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Indirect Taxes

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SERVICE TAX UPDATE

Clarification reg. conducting of audit by service tax department along with CA or CMA

Circular No. 181/7/2014 -ST dated 10-12-2014 – Notification No. 23/2014-service taxdated 05-12-2014

The CBEC has issued above Circular & Notification to neutralise the judgment of Delhi High Court in case of Travelite (India) vs. UOI & Others 2014 (35) S.T.R. 653 (Del.) which considered the service tax audit by departmental officers pursuant to Rule 5A as ultra vires the service tax law.

The above Notification had substituted Rule 5A(2) of the Service Tax Rules, thereby nominating a Chartered Accountant or a Cost Accountant along with an officer authorised by the Commissioner or the Audit Party deputed by the Commissioner or CAG to conduct Service Tax Audit.

The above Circular had also clarified the power of the departmental officers to conduct Service Tax Audit and had clarified that Rule 5A(2) of the Service Tax Rules, interalia, provides for scrutiny of records by a service tax auditor and such scrutiny essentially constitutes Audit.

It has been further clarified that Rule 5A(2) of the Service Tax Rules has appropriate statutory backing for conducting Service Tax Audit by the Departmental officers by virtue of section 94(2)(k) of the Finance Act as amended by Section 114(J) of the Finance Act, 2014 w.e.f. 6th August, 2014 and the expression “verified” used in Section 94(2) (k) of the Finance Act is of wide import and would include within its scope, Audit by the Departmental officers.

MVAT UPDATE

Grant of exemption from filing returns-withdrawal of concession- dated 25-11-2014 Trade Circular 20T of 2014 -Central Sales Tax Act, 1956

Dealer effecting interstate sales, branch transfer, sales outside the State, export sales or deemed export sales and sales in the course of import have now compulsorily to file CST return. Applicable to the returns starting for the period from 01-10-2014 otherwise will be treated as defaulter under the CST Act.

Trade Circular 21T of 2014 Physical submission of Audit Report in Form 704 for the financial year 2013-14 Dated 20-12-2014

Last date for electronic uploading MVAT Audit Report in Form 704 for the period 2013-14 is 15.1.2015. After uploading MVAT Audit Form 704 physical submission of two documents is required :

1) “The Statement of Submission of Audit Report” as per the format given in notification duly certified by dealer with stamp, seal & signature with date and
2) The copy of acknowledgment generated after uploading Form 704 duly certified by auditor & dealer with stamp, seal & signature with date.

Both the documents should be submitted before 27-01- 2015.

In case of acceptance of recommendation given by the auditor the information regarding payment of tax, interest and revised return should be given online when the facility for Computer Desk Audit for the year 2013-14 is made available. No physical submission of challans of payments at the time of above submission is required.

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Direct Taxes

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A resident can seek Advance ruling in relation to his tax liability arising out of one or more transactions undertaken or proposed to be undertaken by him , which has an aggregate value of rupees one hundred crore or more – Notification No. 73 dated 28th November 2014

Income-tax (12th Amendment) Rules, 2014 – Amendment in Rule 44E and introduction of Form 34DA – Notification Notification No. 74 dated 28th November 2014 [S.O.3015 (E)] –
Amendment in the procedure for making an application to the Advance Ruling Authority. A specified resident to make an application to the Advance Ruling Authority in Form 34DA .

Income-tax (13th Amendment) Rules, 2014 –- Rule 2BBA inserted Notification No. 79 dated 12th December 2014 [S.O. 3168 (E)] –

For the purposes of sub-Clauses (iiiab) and (iiiac) of Clause (23C)of section 10, any university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution referred therein, shall be considered as being substantially financed by the Government for any previous year, if the Government grant to such university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution exceeds fifty percent. of the total receipts including any voluntary contributions, of such university or other educational institution, hospital or other institution, as the case may be, during the relevant previous year.

TDS on Salaries for Financial year 2014-15: Circular no. 17/2014 dated 10th December 2014

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ICAI and its members

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1. Disciplinary Cases.

The Disciplinary Committee (DC) of ICAI has decided the following cases and held the concerned members as guilty of professional misconduct. These cases are reported in the publication of ICAI “Disciplinary Cases” which has been published for the information of Members only. The names of the Members are not given in order to maintain Confidentiality.

(i) Case of Mr. A.C.

In this case, the Firm of Mr. ‘A.C’ audited the accounts of ST Pvt. .Ltd. It was reported by R.B.I. that the Company carried on the business of NBFC without obtaining NBFC registration from RBI. This contravention of NBFC Regulations was not reported by the auditors. On inquiry, the D.C. found the member guilty of professional misconduct under clause (7) of Part I of Second Schedule to C.A. Act. In its order dated 12-09-2011, the Disciplinary Committee has Reprimanded the member

(ii) Case of Mr. M.J.

In this case the member was statutory auditor of a Nationalised Bank. He also conducted the Revenue Audit of the same Bank. When this fact was brought to the notice of ICAI, inquiry was made by the D.C. After a detailed enquiry, the D.C. held that the member was guilty of professional misconduct under clause (4) of Part I and clause (3) of Part II of the second schedule to the C.A. Act. After considering the facts of the case and submissions of the member the D.C. decided on 12-09-2011 to issue a “letter of caution” to the member advising him to be more careful in future in complying with Code of Ethics of the Institute.

(iii) Case of Mr. M.K.

In this case the member was a partner of C.A. firm ANA. He had ceased to be a partner w.e.f. 01-07- 2007. But, he continued to sign several official documents of the C.A. firm after his resignation from the firm. He also conducted statutory audit of one of the clients of the C.A. firm after his resignation and collected Audit Fees from the client in his personal name. On complaint by a partner of the C.A. firm, the D.C. after inquiry, held the member guilty of professional misconduct under clause (2) of Part IV of first Schedule to C.A. Act. By its order dated 12- 09-2011, considering the facts and submissions, the D.C. has “Reprimanded” the member.

2. Some Ethical Issues

The Ethical Standards Board of ICAI has given answers to some Ethical Issues as under, on pages 858 – 860 of C.A. Journal of December, 2013.

(i) Issue No. 1:

Whether the office of a Chartered Accountant is permitted to go in for ISO 9001-2000 certification or other similar certifications?

There is no bar for a member to go in for ISO 9001- 2000 certification or other similar certifications. However, the member cannot use the expression like “ISO Certified” on his professional documents, visiting cards, letter-heads or sign boards etc.

(ii) Issue No. 2:

Whether communication with previous auditor is necessary in case of appointment as statutory auditor by nationalised and other Banks?

Clause (8) of Part I of the First Schedule to the CA Act is equally applicable in case of nationalised and other Banks and also to Government agencies.

(iii) Issue No. 3:

Whether communication by the incoming auditor is mandatory with the previous auditor in respect of various audit assignments, like the concurrent audit, revenue audit, tax audit and special audits etc?

The requirement for communicating with the previous auditor would apply to all types of audits viz. statutory audit, tax audit, internal audit, concurrent audit or any other kind of audit. The Council has laid down detailed guidelines in this regard and the same are appearing in the Code of Ethics, 2009 edition.

3. EAC Opinion:

Recognition of Free of Cost Equipment Provided by a Contractee to the Contractor.

Facts:
A company is a defence public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Defence and is engaged in the construction of Warships and Submarines. For a particular class of ship construction, the company entered into an agreement with the buyer for the construction and delivery of 3 ships. The company has agreed for construction of 3 ships on ‘Fixed Price’ basis with variable component in respect to certain items.

The buyer intimated to the company that certain equipments, out of variable cost items, will be supplied by him at ‘free of cost’ for installation on board of ship. There are certain equipments for which orders are directly placed and also paid by the buyer. These equipments are known as “Buyer Furnished Equipment” (BFE) and are delivered to the company ‘free of cost’ for installing in the ship. The labour cost of installation is included in the fixed price component of the contract.

Query:
From the above, the company has sought the opinion of the EAC on the following issues: (i) Whether the Buyer Furnished Equipment’s (BFE’s) cost can be considered as inventory (simultaneously creating liability to the buyer) and then on issue to ship can be taken in WIP, so that accretion to WIP will be recognised as revenue (ii) Whether BFE’s value can be considered as a part of sale value in the year of delivery.

Opinion:
The Committee has noted before any item can be recognised as an inventory, it should meet the definition of ‘asset’ as given in paragraph 49 of the Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements issued by ICAI i. e. “An asset is a resource controlled by the enterprise as a result of past events from which future economic benefit are expected to flow to the enterprise”.

The Committee has also noted from the Facts of the Case that orders in respect of BFEs are directly placed by the buyer and also payment in respect of them is made by the buyer. These are then supplied to the company for installing in the ship and the buyer pays installation charges which are included in the contract price. Thus, the company has neither incurred any cost on BFEs nor any amount is recoverable on account of such equipment except installation charges. Accordingly, the EAC is of the view that such equipments are not ‘assets’, that may be a considered as a part of its contract workin- progress. In fact, after installation in the ship, BFEs are returned to the buyer after completion of the ship. Thus, these are only held by the company in the capacity of a bailee. Since, these cannot be considered as ‘asset’, therefore, these can neither be considered as ‘inventory’ nor as work-in-progress.

Accordingly, these cannot also be considered as a part of sale value or revenue of the company as no consideration would be receivable in respect of the cost of such equipments. (Refer pages 886-888 of C.A. Journal for December, 2013).

4. The Financial position of ICAI

The Summarised Audited Income and Expenditure Account for 2012-13 and Balance Sheet as at 31.3.2013, as published with 64th Annual Report of the Council, is as under.

There are following three Notes to Accounts which are significant.

“(i) The Institute is registered under section 12A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 and eligible for exemption of income under section 11 of the Act. In financial year 2009-10, the assessing Officer denied Exemption u/s 11 of the Act and raised demand of Rs. 51.70 crore. The Institute had filed appeal against the said Order of Assessing Officer before CIT (A) who allowed the Appeal vide Order dated 12.09.2013.

(ii)    The Institute has filed SLPs before the Hon’ble Supreme Court against the Orders of the Hon. Delhi High Court, in the Writ Petition filed by the Institute for the financial year 2006-07 against the Orders passed by DGIT(E) denying exemption U/s 10(23C) (iv) of the Income Tax Act, wherein the High Court held  that  the  activities  of  the  Institute  fall  under the category of “advancement of any other object of  general  public  utility”  within  the  meaning  of Charitable Purpose” as defined in section 2(15) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.  The Hon’ble Court also observed in the same Orders that the Institute is also engaged in the educational activities as it conducts various Post Qualification Professional courses for its Members.   It has been pleaded that the main activities of the Institute are Educational Activities and other activities carried on by the Institute will only fall under the category of “advancement of any other object of general public utility”.  The Income Tax  department  has  also  filed  a  SLP  against  the order of the Delhi High Court for the financial year 2006-07. The Apex court has tagged the said matter along with the Institute’s SLP and granted leave to appeal.

(iii)    In respect of the proposed Nagpur Centre   of Excellence, during the financial year 2012-13, a sum of Rs. 9.75 CRORE was paid to M/s. Luxora Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd. towards Centre of Excellence project at Nagpur through two separate – principal and supplementary agreements. Supplementary agreement has since been cancelled by executing deed of cancellation. A total refund of Rs. 5.87 crore out of Rs. 9.75 CRORE has been received till the finalization of Accounts. For balance sum due amounting to Rs. 3.88 crore, a cheque dated 07- 10-2013 has been received from the vendor. The cancellation of principal agreement shall be done after credit of the balance amount. The net effect of this transaction shall be accounted for on receipt of balance consideration and stamp duty”.

5.    ICAI News:

(Note: Page Nos. given below are from C.a. Journal for december, 2013)
(i)    Companies Act, 2013 not Applicable for May 2014 Examinations:

The  Companies  Act,  2013  notified  in  the  Official Gazette    on    August    30,2013.       (with    partial enforcement of only 98 sections of the Companies Act, 2013 from 12TH September, 2013) shall not be applicable to the May, 2014 examinations of  both Intermediate (IPC) and Final Courses. (Page No: 855)

(ii)    DVD of 61 years of C.A. Journal

DVD containing 61 years of C.A. Journal has been released.  This  contains  Journal  Issues  for  July, 1952 to June 2013 in searchable mode. Readers can search  the  contents  through  key  words  relating to   Accounting,   Auditing,   Taxation   etc.   besides searching by month, year, category, author etc. This DVD will be available for sale by the Institute on 1st January, 2014 onwards. (Page No: 832).

PART C: Information on & Around

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PM’s wife files an RTI application:
Jashodaben, wife of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, kicked up a storm by filing an RTI application seeking information about her security protocol and on whose order she was being provided armed guards.

She filed the application before the Mehsana Superintendent of Police, complaining that her guards have refused to share with her the official order directing them to protect her.

Her application seeks information about “all protocol and facilities, especially security details that is the right of a prime minister’s wife”.

Apart from the fact that the guards do not carry any official orders with them, there are two other points which the RTI application reveals that Jashodaben is miffed about:

While she travels by public transport, her guards tail her in air-conditioned cars.

The guards demand to be treated like family’s guests. Jashodaben has also sought to know what other privileges she is entitled to as the wife of the Prime Minister of India. “I am the wife of the Prime Minister of India and have been extended security as per protocol. What other service can be extended to me under the protocol? Please give me detailed description of the protocol,” her application reads.

Information on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose:
The Prime Minister’s Office in a recent RTI reply accepted that there were 41 files related to Bose, of which two had been declassified, but refused to disclose them, taking a position similar to that of the erstwhile Congress-led UPA government.

“Disclosure of documents contained in these files would prejudicially affect relations with foreign countries. As such, these files are exempted from disclosure u/s. 8(1) (a) read with Section 8(2) of the Right to Information Act,” the PMO said in this reply to RTI activist Subhash Agrawal.

Vasectomy & Tubectomy:
Tubectomy is a permanent birth control surgical procedure. Fallopian tubes are blocked to prevent fertilised eggs from reaching the uterus and embedding there; it also prevents sperms from reaching the egg.

Vasectomy is a minimal invasive procedure from permanent birth control. The two tubes that carry sperms from testicles to urinary tract are surgically severed and sealed. Post surgery, sperms cannot pass through to fertilise a woman’s egg.

The RTI data accessed by activist Chetan Kothari bares the trend of teenage girls going for Tubectomy till five years ago. In 2002-03, 119 girls aged 15 to 19 underwent the procedure, with the instances dipping to 10 or 15 a year. In 2007, the minimum age for Tubectomy was raised to 22 years. A near double incentive for those opting for vasectomy has also failed to lure many men. The number temporarily rose to 4,661 in 2008-09 and 3,927 between 2008 and 2010, only to dip drives dwindled. Since then, it has been a steady downfall with Tubectomy again dominating family planning centers.

Black Money:
The government has denied disclosure of information under RTI on how many requests it has made to other countries with which India has Double Tax Avoidance Agreement (DTAA ) or a Tax Information Exchange Agreement, citing national interest and confidentiality.

CHRI’s Venkatesh Nayak had sought information on the subject from 2011 to October 2014.

However, in response to RTIs, the finance ministry said that it could not disclose the information citing section 8(1) (a) and 8(1) (f) of the Act.

The sections forbid disclosure if the information is against national interest or if the information has been given b a foreign government on condition of confidentiality.

Pointing out this anomaly, Nayak said the bar in the confidentiality clause in DTAAs was only about person-specific information and not for numbers, adding that the government had already made this information public in an international forum.
But when a citizen asks for the number of requests it has made to other countries and shows what is the public interest in disclosing such information, they invoke section 8(1)(a) and (f). So just like in the Ram Jethmalani case, the government thinks it is more loyally bound to foreign countries under its DTAA s and not to even the court or its own citizens in terms of transparency. These DTAA s are not ratified or even placed before Parliament,” Nayak said. Recently the SC ordered the government to hand over the names of accountholders who have stashed black money abroad.

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PART B: RTI Act, 2005

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PEOPLES ’ MONITORING OF THE RTI REGIME IN INDIA 2011-13 RTI Assessment and Advisory Group (RAAG) Samya Center for Equity studies (SAMYA ) have published in October 2014 the work titled “PEOPLES’ MONITORING OF THE RTI REGIME IN INDIA: 2011-13.

Briefly looking into the contents of the above work, running into 177 pages of 11 chapters & 10 annexures, as noted in BCAJ December issue, I plan to serialise it and cover 1 & 2 chapters in each issue. In the last issue, chapter 1 was summarised. Hereunder is a summary of chapter 2:

METHODOLOGY:
Data Collection:

• Primary data collection through individual inter views:
A s a part of the Peoples’ RTI assessment 2011- 13, a total of 2,279 persons were individually interviewed across four states and the National Capital Region of Delhi.

• Primary data collection through street corner interviews:
2,000 people were individually interviewed in the capitals of the four sample states, and in Delhi.

• Primary data collection through focus group discussion:
In addition, a total of 95 focus group discussions (FSGs) were also organised.

• Primary data collection through focus public hearings:
A s part of the nationwide assessment on the implementation of the RTI Act, public hearings (PHs) were organized in the four sample states and in Delhi to documents peoples’ experience of using the RTI Act. The PHs were organised in collaboration with the state partners.

• Primary data collection through inspections:
Across the country, 69 public authorities and offices were inspected as a part of this assessment.

• Primary data collection through filing RTI applications:
Specifically, 462 RTI applications were filed and followed up with PIOs to get basic information from various public authorities across the country.

Data Analysis:

• Analysis of replies received to RTI applications:

Copies of 2,743 RTI applications were received from four states, the union territory of Delhi, and the Central Government, in response to the earlier mentioned RTI application filed with various public authorities.

• Analysis of published material:
Relevant papers, articles, studies and assessments on India and about other countries were identified and assessed for possible inputs into the design of methodology and process for this assessment. These have also been used to develop national and international contexts in which the findings of this assessment can be located.

• Analysis of the official websites of all ICs:
An analysis of the official websites of all ICs was undertaken with a view to ascertain whether the websites provide relevant and updated information on the functioning of the ICs, including number of commissioners in each commission, orders passed by the commissions, and their annual reports.

• Analysis of the official websites of PAs:
T o check compliance with provisions of proactive disclosure, the websites of 30 public authorities were analysed.

Specially, the Peoples’ RTI Assessment 2011-13 sought to survey and otherwise access information from the following key RTI stakeholders:
Citizens
Applicants and appellants
Public Information Officers
Public Authorities

Scope and Sampling:
• States: T he assessment covered four states across the country, and the National Capital Region of Delhi. In each state, the state capital and two districts were surveyed.

• Public Authority:
A total of 69 public authorities (PAs) were surveyed across the country, by visiting them. Of these, 10 were from the Central Government, and four each from each of three states and one UT, and three from Bihar (total 19 – as permission to survey Bihar HQ police was not granted). In addition, in four states and one UT, four PAs were surveyed in each of the two sample district. This made it a total 40 PAs in ten district headquarters.

• Applicants:
A total of 192 applicants were interviewed as a part of this assessment. Of these, 12 were from rural areas and the remaining 180 were from urban areas. The rural applicants were identified by the rural field teams during their visits to the sample villages especially through the focus group discussions, and all the applicants identified, available and willing to talk to the team, were interviewed, irrespective of which PA they had applied to for information.

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PART A: Decision Of CIC & High Court

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Right of appeal to whom?
On 5th December, 2014, the Delhi High Court passed an order in a writ petition: R.K. Jain vs. Chairman, Income Tax Settlement Commission (ITSC) & others. The issue was whether ITSC, a Public Authority, has right to appeal to Information Commission.

Delhi High Court held as under:

The impugned order is set aside. However, it will also be open for the respondent (ITSC) to approach the CIC to assail the orders dated 26-09-2013 and 21-10-2013 passed by respondent no. 2(PIO) and respondent no. 4 (FAA ) respectively. Needless to mention that if an appeal is filed before the CIC by the public authority (the Income Tax Settlement Commission), the same would be considered is accordance with law.

[R. K. Jain vs. Chairman, Income Tax Settlement Commission & ors. in W.P. (C) 2939/2014, Delhi High Court Single Judge]

My Note: RTI activists are divided on the correctness of this order. One view is that Public Authority has no right to appeal to CIC [just like IT department (Assessing (AO) or CIT) has no right to appeal against the order of AO].

This view is held by Venkatesh Nayak, Programme coordinator of Commonwealth Human Rights Commission. His detailed analysis is as given below:

An Analysis of the Delhi high court order

1. Basic Facts:
1.1 In 2013, Mr. R. K. Jain, the Petitioner, sought some information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (RTI Act) from the Income Tax Settlement Commission (Respondent #1) established under the Government of India. The information was in respect of disposal and pendency of matters before that public authority.

1.2 In September 2013, the Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) and Joint Commissioner of Income Tax passed an order furnishing the Petitioner, some of the requested information while denying other categories of information.

1.3 Aggrieved by the PIO’s refusal to furnish all the information sought in the RTI Application, the Petitioner submitted a first appeal under the RTI Act. The First Appellate Authority (FAA ) issued an order in October, 2013 partially allowing disclosure of some information which had been denied by the CPIO.

1.4 The Petitioner sent a letter to the Public Authority, two days later, demanding compliance with the FAA ’s order. Later in March 2014, he sent another reminder demanding that the information be disclosed as per the FAA ’s order. Less than a week later, the Petitioner received a communication from an officer of the public authority informing him that Respondent #1 had passed an order setting aside the order of the FAA and the CPIO on grounds of non compliance. The Petitioner challenged this action of Respondent #1 of passing an administrative order annulling the orders of the CPIO and the FAA , before the Delhi High Court through the instant Writ Petition.

2. J udgement of the Hon’ble Delhi High Court with Reasons:

2.1 T he Hon’ble Delhi High Court ruled that orders such as those passed by the CPIO and the FAA in exercise of their statutory powers cannot be declared as a nullity or void through an administrative order. The Court cited a couple of judgements to hold that even if an order is a nullity, it would continue to be effective unless set aside by a competent body or Court. It held that the Respondent was not authorised under the RTI Act to interfere with the orders passed under the RTI Act. The order issued by Respondent #1 was set aside.

2.2 The Court however left it open to Respondent #1 to approach the Central Information Commission (CIC) to assail the orders of the CPIO and the FAA . The Court held as follows:

“13. … Needless to mention that is an appeal is filed before the CIC by the public authority (the Income Tax Settlement Commission), the same would be considered in accordance with law.”

3. A Critical Analysis of the Decision and the Reasoning:

3.1 The Court’s decision to set aside the administrative order issued by the Respondent holding the orders of the CPIO and the FAA a nullity on account of non compliance is to be welcomed. Henceforth, any officer of a public authority having no statutory authority under the RTI Act will not be able to interfere with the process furnishing information under the RTI Act after a matter has been decided by the CPIO or the FAA .

3.2 H owever, it is respectfully submitted that the Court’s direction to the Respondent to approach the CIC amounts to creating a right of appeal which is contrary to the scheme of appeals provided for in Section 19(1) of the RTI Act. Before putting forth our detailed reasons for arriving at this opinion, it is necessary to point to a similar order of the Hon’ble Andhra Pradesh High Court (APHC) which seeks to create a right of appeal for the public authority under the RTI Act.

3.3 In the matter of Public Information Officer, Under RTI Act, Syndicate Bank, Regional Office, Mugulrajapuram, Vijayawada vs. Central Information Commission under Right to Information Act, New Delhi Etc., [2012 (2) ALT 348], the APHC ruled as follows:

“7. … in the opinion of this Court, the Public Information Officer cannot dawn [sic] the role of the Officer of the Public Authority in relation to orders passed by the appellate authorities against orders passed by him. If his order is reversed by the appellate authority, he cannot be treated as aggrieved party giving rise to a cause of action for him to question such Orders. It is only either the public authority, against whom the directions are given, or any other party, who feels application at hand. Aggrieved by such directions, that can question the orders passed by the appellate authorities.” [emphasis supplied]

3.4 The effect of the two judgments cited above is that a right of appeal is created for a public authority to challenge a decision of its own PIO or FAA before the CIC (or by logical extension before any other State Information Commission that may have jurisdiction in a given case).

3.5 In our humble opinion, Parliament had never intended for the appeals scheme to be used by other officers of a public authority to challenge the orders of their own PIO and FAA. Our detailed reasons are given below:

(I) Reason I, in our opinion, the two stage appeal process is created u/s. 19 of the RTI Act for the use of an aggrieved RTI applicant or any person who may be treated as a third party to an RTI application/ appeal. The relevant provisions are reproduced below:

“19. (1) Any person who, does not receive a decision within the time specified in sub section (1) or clause (a) of sub-section (3) of section 7, or is aggrieved by a decision of the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, may within thirty days from the expiry of such period or from the receipt of such a decision prefer an appeal to such officer who is senior in rank to the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer as the case may be, in each public authority: …

(2) Where an appeal is preferred against an order made by a Central Public Information Officer or a State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, u/s. 11 to disclose third party information, the appeal by the concerned third party shall be made within thirty days from the date of the order.

(3) A second appeal against the decision u/s/s. (1) shall lie within ninety days from the date on which the decision should have been made or was actually received, with the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission: …”

The scheme of section 19 is crystal clear leaving no room for ambiguity. Only two categories of persons may challenge the decision of a PIO a) an aggrieved RTI applicant and b) a third party who is aggrieved by a PIO’s decision to disclose information pertaining to he/she/ it which is treated as being confidential by that third party.  the  PIO  is  statutorily  empowered  u/s.  5(4)  read with section 5(5) of the RTI act to seek the assistance of any other officer of the public authority to perform his/ her appointed functions under the act. So, any reservations or reasons that other officers of that public authority might have against disclosure of the information sought by an RTI applicant must be placed before the Pio to arrive at a reasoned decision. Such reservations and reasons against disclosure are not binding on the Pio who is required to make a decision by applying his/her own mind to the RTI application at hand.

Further, section 19(1) only permits an aggrieved RTI applicant to submit a first appeal to an FAA on two grounds only, i.e., if no decision has been received from the Pio or if he is aggrieved by a decision of the Pio, namely, rejection of the request or partial disclosure. a third party to an RTI application may also submit a first appeal to the FAA u/s. 19(2). So, in our opinion, the scheme of the first appeal process does not contemplate any other right of appeal vesting in any other person including any other officer of the public authority.

Further, the opening line of section 19(3) is crystal clear it refers to a second appeal and not a fresh appeal against a decision made u/s. 19(1). in other words, an appeal that may be submitted against the faa’s order by the aggrieved RTI applicant or an aggrieved third party. It is not open for any other person including any officer of the public authority such as the concerned Pio to approach the concerned information Commission challenging the order of the faa. So in our opinion, a public authority does not have any right of appeal at the first or second appeal stage u/s.19 of the rti act.

(ii)    Reason ii, the PIO is a serving officer of a public authority designated to perform the statutory duties of receiving an rti application and making a decision whether or not to disclose any or all of the requested information. Next, the FAA is an officer senior in rank designated by the said public authority to examine the correctness and validity of an order passed by the Pio. in effect, both officers are acting on behalf of the concerned public authority, even though they may be performing administrative or quasi judicial functions while making a decision on an rti application or appeal. in a complaint or second appeal submitted to the relevant information Commission, the PIO and the FAA appear as representatives of the public  authority  which  appointed  them.  the  RTI  rules, 2012 notified by the Government of India do permit any other officer to represent the public authority in a second appeal proceeding along with or in lieu of the PIO or the FAA. 4 however nothing in the RTI act or the RTI rules, 2012 recognize the right of any other officer or the public authority itself to challenge a decision of its own Pio or faa through the appeals process. The only course of action available to a public authority to demand the setting aside of an order of the CIC is the route of judicial review by invoking the writ jurisdiction of the concerned high Court under article 226 of the Constitution. to hold that the public authority or any of its officers may challenge an order of their own Pio or faa amounts to acknowledging that the statutory authorities under the RTI act were not provided the required assistance at the application/first appeal stage for the Pio or the faa as the case may be to arrive at a reasoned decision. The failure of the public authority cannot be used as a ground for creating a right of appeal which was not originally contemplated by Parliament when it enacted the RTI Act.

(iii)    Reason iii, there is authority to support the above opinion expressed by us. in the matter of Chief Information Commr. And Another vs. State of Manipur and Another [(2011) 15 SCC 1], the hon’ble Supreme Court of india explained the scheme of appeals provided for in the RTI Act in the following words:

“35.     Section 19 is an appellate procedure and a person who is aggrieved by refusal in receiving the information which he has sought for can only seek redress in the manner provided in the statute, namely, by following the procedure under Section 19. This Court is, therefore, of the opinion that Section 7 read with Section 19 provides a complete statutory mechanism to a person who is aggrieved by refusal to receive information. …

42.    Apart from that the procedure under Section 19 of the Act, when compared to Section 18, has several safeguards for protecting the interest of the person who has been refused the information he has sought. Section 19(5), in this connection, may be referred to. Section 19(5) puts the onus to justify the denial of request on the information officer. Therefore, it is for the officer to justify the denial. …

43.    There is another aspect also. The procedure under Section 19 is an appellate procedure. a right of appeal is always a creature of statute. A right of appeal is a right of entering a superior forum for invoking its aid and interposition to correct errors of the inferior forum. It is a very valuable right. Therefore, when the statute confers such a right of appeal that must be exercised by a person who is aggrieved by reason of refusal to be furnished with the information.” [emphasis supplied]

Nowhere in its detailed explanation of the scheme of section 19 does the Hon’ble Supreme Court recognise the right of a public authority to any of its officers to challenge a decision of their PIO or FAA made under the RTI Act.

(iv)    Reason iv, the manner of recognition of the right of a public authority or any of its officers to appeal against a decision of the designated PIO or FAA amounts to recognising a right that the public authority or its public officers may have in the information sought by the RTI applicant (except where the information is personal information of the concerned officers whose disclosure may cause unwarranted invasion of their privacy). In the matter of Union of India vs. Namit Sharma [(2013) 10 SCC 389] the Supreme Court explained the nature of an RTI-related dispute in the following words:

“21. In the judgment under review, this Court after ex- amining the provisions of the act, however, has held that there is a lis to be decided by the information Commission inasmuch as the request of a party seeking information is to be allowed or to be disallowed and hence requires a judicial mind. But we find that the lis that the information Commission has to decide was only with regard to the information in possession of a public authority and the information Commission was required to decide whether the information could be given to the person asking for it or should be with held in public interest or any other interest protected by the provisions of the Act. The information Commission, therefore, while deciding this lis does not really perform a judicial function, but performs an administrative function in accordance with the provisions of the act.” [emphasis supplied]

In deciding an appeal under the RTI act neither the FAA nor the information Commission is making a determination about the right that a public authority orany of its officers may have (except personal information of an officer whose disclosure may cause unwarranted invasion of his/ her privacy) in the information sought. A public authority is only a custodian of the information that it holds in material form which is an extension of its legally appointed role as the custodian of the public interest. All that the public authority is permitted to do is to put forth arguments regarding the public interest that must be protected by keeping the information confidential. This too must be done in the course of the first appeal or second appeal submitted by an aggrieved RTI applicant. The RTI act does not recognise any special right of either the public authority or any of its officers with regard to the information under dispute (except when it is personal information whose disclosure will cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of an individual) which can be protected by invoking the appeals procedure provided u/s. 19.

4.    Conclusion:
in light of the foregoing critical analysis it is respectfully submitted that there is a strong case for challenging through appropriate proceedings, the directive of the Delhi High Court as well as the Andhra Pradesh High Court regarding the right of a public authority or any of its officers to invoke the appeals process against an order of disclosure of information made by their PIO or FAA under the  RTI Act.

Against the said analysis and view, many other RTI activists hold the view that Public authority has a right to appeal to the Central information Commission.

Let us see when ITSC appeals to CIC, what view CIC holds or when R.K. Jain files appeal against the above delhi high Court order what the Supreme Court rules.


Ethics and u

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Shrikrishna (S) — Arjun, you are looking relaxed and seem to be enjoying the chilled climate. Arjun (A) — Yes. At long last, we could upload all tax returns by midnight of 30th November. We paid advance taxes of all clients by 15th of December.
S — N ow, what is going on?
A — U sual running about for scrutiny assessments!
S — But tell me. You got so much of additional time for tax audit. Could you do it properly?
A — Please don’t ask me that! I know how we managed it. It is always a nightmare.
S — A re your audit papers organised properly? A — Who is going to see it now?
S — T hat’s the trouble with all of you. You have learnt many times that work should not only be done, but it should be seen that is done.
A — O f course, we have so many papers generated. But where to keep them? We don’t have space to keep all that record. We have to either scrap it or give back to the client!
S — T his is the folly. You somehow sign the audits. That too, backdated! And say that you don’t have working papers. I told you so many instances of complaints for misconduct.
A — But how to overcome this problem?
S — See, I cannot tell you the whole list of documents that you need to maintain. That you know better. Do you have at least the appointment letters of all audits?
A — N o. Only for companies we have started taking. It is compulsory to upload to ROC – with 23B. All these years we never did it.
S — I know, you people do it only when you have no option. That too, at the 11th hour.
A — A ll queries are also there. Now we send the queries on e-mail. So automatically, there is a record.
S — But when did you send the queries on mail?
 A — Continuously during the last two to three months.
S — A nd when did you sign the audits?
A — Company audits in the beginning of September. And tax audits in November.
S — I had told you that a partner of even a large and reputed CA firm was held guilty since there were queries sent after the date of the audit.
A — O h! I need to see that. I don’t know what my assistants have done.
S — M oreover, there may be many queries raised. But have you put remarks as to how each one was resolved?
A — See. We just instruct our juniors to do the vouching etc. Some of the queries are solved. Some remain just hanging.
S — A nd you sign the balance sheet even when queries are unresolved. There are many cases where queries were not discussed at all. Obviously, it is a gross negligence. What about MRL?
A — T hat we rarely take. Everything is oral and in good faith.
S — I have told you how ‘good faith’ is the most dangerous thing in your profession. If you sign in good faith, why should there be an audit by qualified person like you?
A — I agree. But in practice, it is difficult.
S — No. Not very difficult. You lack will-power. And once you develop that habit among the clients, they take you for granted. Thereafter, it is difficult to insist on these things.
A — What you say is right.
S — A ctually, it is very wrong that you relax immediately after the deadline. The real work should be done at this stage. Organise the records, audit files, connect all loose ends. Your staff will be available. Do the right things when everything is fresh in the mind. Who will remember after four or five years? Where will you trace the records?
A — Y ou are frightening me. I have understood. But somehow, it does not happen. I tell you, a couple of audits I have given many adverse remarks. In fact, there are annexure containing adverse observations.
S — That is alright. But what is your final audit opinion?
A — T hat is a standard one – ‘subject to this ……. It is true and fair!’
S — T hat itself is highly objectionable. On the one hand, you give serious qualifications; and at the same time, you say it is true and fair. How do you reconcile these two things? There is a clear direction in SA 700. You either give a disclaimer or say it does not give true and fair view.
A — Y es. That’s a point. See, every time we discuss these ethics, we invariably refer to some live case, some actual story. Today it was general.
S — Y es. But your negligence like this will give rise to many stories! And remember, now the misconduct means not only ‘gross negligence’ but also ‘lack of due diligence’. And again, now you cannot take shelter from ‘watch-dog’, ‘blood-hound’ theory.
A — Good that you told me all this. I was wondering how I should keep all articles occupied after the tax-returns. I will make them arrange all papers properly.
S — Y es. It will also help you in peer review. This is a wake-up call for you, dear!

Note: The above dialogue between Shri Krishna and Arjun is based on clause (8) of Part I of Second Schedule which is reproduced below.

Clause (8) of Part I of Second Schedule states that a CA in practice shall be deemed to be guilty of professional misconduct, if he – ‘Fails to obtain sufficient information which is necessary for expression of an opinion or its exceptions are sufficiently material to negate the expression of an opinion.

levitra

From published accounts

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Section B: IAASB’s Revised Format of Auditors’ Report

Compiler’s Note
The
International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB) had in
June 2012 started a project “Enhancing the Auditor’s Report” and had
issued an Exposure Draft of a revised format of the Auditor’ Report.
While issuing the ED, IAASB observed that “The auditor’s report is the
auditor’s primary means of communication with an entity’s
stakeholders—as such, it has to be meaningful and have value for them.
More than ever before, users of audited financial statements are calling
for more pertinent information for their decision-making in today’s
global business environment with increasingly complex financial
reporting requirements. The global financial crisis also has spurred
users, in particular institutional investors and financial analysts, to
want to know more about individual audits and to gain further insights
into the audited entity and its financial statements. And while the
auditor’s opinion is valued, many perceive that the auditor’s report
could be more informative. Change, therefore, is essential”.

After
considering the several responses to the ED from stakeholders,
regulators, accounting bodies from across the world (including ICAI) and
others, the IAASB in its meeting in September 2014 issued the final
revised standard on Auditor Reporting. Different jurisdictions across
the world are likely to adopt the revised standard from 2015 onwards.

Some of the key changes in the revised standard are:

Additional
information in the auditor’s report to highlight matters that, in the
auditor’s judgment, are likely to be most important to users’
understanding of the audited financial statements or the audit, referred
to as “Auditor Commentary.” This information would be required for
public interest entities (PIEs) –which includes, at a minimum, listed
entities –and could be provided at the discretion of the auditor for
other entities.

Auditor conclusion on the appropriateness of
management’s use of the going concern assumption in preparing the
financial statements and an explicit statement as to whether material
uncertainties in relation to going concern have been identified.

Auditor
statement as to whether any material inconsistencies between the
audited financial statements and other information have been identified
based on the auditor’s reading of other information, and specific
identification of the information considered by the auditor.

Prominent placement of the auditor’s opinion and other entity-specific information in the auditor’s report.

Further suggestions to provide clarity and transparency about audits performed in accordance with ISAs.

Though
the revised standard will become applicable from 2015 onwards, given
below is an illustration of a company whose auditors chose to use the
revised standard for issuing its report to the members.

Independent Auditor’s Report

to the members of Rolls-Royce Holdings plc only

Opinions and conclusions arising from our audit
1
Our opinion on the financial statements is unmodified We have audited
the financial statements of Rolls- Royce Holdings plc for the year ended
31st December 2013 set out on pages 75 to 129. In our opinion the
financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the
Group’s and of the parent company’s affairs as at 31st December 2013 and
of the Group’s profit for the year then ended; the Group financial
statements have been properly prepared in accordance with International
Financial Reporting Standards as adopted by the European Union (Adopted
IFRS); the parent company financial statements have been properly
prepared in accordance with UK Accounting Standards; and the financial
statements have been prepared in accordance with the requirements of the
Companies Act 2006 and, as regards the Group financial statements,
Article 4 of the IAS Regulation.

2 Our assessment of risks In
arriving at our opinions set out in this report, the risks that had the
greatest effect on our audit and the key procedures we applied to
address them are set out below. Those procedures were designed in the
context of the financial statements as a whole and, consequently, where
we set out findings we do not express any opinion on these individual
risks.

The basis of accounting for revenue and profit in the Civil aerospace business
Refer
to page 81 (Key areas of judgement – Long-term aftermarket contracts),
page 83 (Significant accounting policies – Revenue recognition) and page
44 (Audit committee report – Financial reporting)

The risk
The
amount of revenue and profit recognised in a year on the sale of
engines and aftermarket services is dependent, inter alia, on the
appropriate assessment of whether or not each long-term aftermarket
contract for services is linked to or separate from the contract for
sale of the related engines. As the commercial arrangements can be
complex, significant judgement is applied in selecting the accounting
basis in each case. The most significant risk is that the Group might
inappropriately account for sales of engines and long term service
agreements as a single arrangement for accounting purposes as this would
usually lead to revenue and profit being recognised too early because
the margin in the long term service agreement is usually higher than the
margin in the engine sale agreement

Our response
We
made our own independent assessment, with reference to the relevant
accounting standards, of the accounting basis that should be applied to
each long-term aftermarket contract entered into during the year and
compared this to the accounting basis applied by the Group.

Our findings

We
found that the Group has developed a framework for selecting the
accounting basis to be used which is consistent with accounting
standards and has applied this consistently. For almost all the
agreements entered into during this year, it was clear which accounting
basis should apply. Where there was room for interpretation, we found
the Group’s judgement to have been balanced.

The measurement of revenue and profit in the Civil aerospace business
Refer
to page 81 (Key areas of judgement – Long-term aftermarket contracts),
page 83 (Significant accounting policies – Revenue recognition) and page
44 (Audit committee report – Financial reporting)

The risk
The
amount of revenue and profit recognised in a year on the sale of
engines and aftermarket services is dependent, inter alia, on the
assessment of the percentage of completion of long-term aftermarket
contracts and the forecast cost profile of each arrangement. As
long-term aftermarket contracts can extend over significant periods and
the profitability of these arrangements typically assumes significant
life-cycle cost improvement over the term of the contracts, the
estimated outturn requires significant judgement to be applied in
assessing engine flying hours, time on wing and other operating
parameters, the pattern of future maintenance activity and the costs to
be incurred. The inherent nature of these estimates means that their
continual refinement can have an impact on the profits of the Civil
aerospace business that can be significant in an individual financial
year. The assessment of the estimated outturn for each arrangement
involves detailed calculations using large and complex databases with a
significant level of manual intervention.

Our response
We tested the controls designed and applied by the Group to provide assurance that the estimates used in assessing revenue and cost profiles are appropriate and that the resulting estimated cumulative profit on such contracts  is accurately reflected in the financial statements; these controls operated over both the inputs and the outputs  of the calculations. We challenged the appropriateness of these estimates for each programme and assessed whether or not the estimates showed any evidence of management bias. our challenge was based on our assessment of the historical accuracy of the Group’s estimates in previous periods, identification and analysis of changes in assumptions from prior periods and an assessment of the consistency of assumptions across programmes, detailed  discussions  and  assessments  of the achievability of the Group’s plans to reduce life-cycle costs and an analysis of the impact of these plans on forecast cost profiles taking account of contingencies and analysis of the impact of known technical issues on cost forecasts. Our analysis considered each significant airframe that is powered by the Group’s engines and was based on our own experience supplemented by discussions with an aircraft valuation specialist engaged by the Group. We assessed whether the valuer was objective and suitably qualified. We also checked the mathematical accuracy of the revenue and profit for each arrangement and considered the implications of identified errors and changes in estimates.

Our findings

Our testing identified weaknesses in the design and operation of controls. in response to this we assessed the effectiveness of the Group’s plans for addressing these weaknesses and we increased the scope and depth of our detailed testing and analysis from that originally planned. We found no significant errors in calculation. overall, our assessment is that the assumptions and resulting estimates (including appropriate contingencies) resulted in mildly cautious profit recognition.

Recoverability of intangible assets (certification costs and participation fees, development expenditure and recoverable engine costs) and amounts recoverable on contracts primarily in the civil aerospace business
Refer to page 82 (Key sources of estimation uncertainty
–    Forecasts and discount rates), pages 86 and 87 (Significant accounting policies –  Certification  costs  and participation fees, Research and development, Recoverable engine costs and Impairment of non-current assets), page 99 (Note 9 to the financial statements – Intangible assets) and page 44 (Audit committee report–    Financial reporting)

The risk

The recovery of these assets depends on a combination of achieving sufficiently profitable business in the future as well as the ability of customers to pay amounts due under contracts often over a long period of time. assets relating to a particular engine programme are more prone to the risk of impairment in the early years of a programme as the engine’s market position is established. In addition, the pricing of business with launch customers makes assets relating to these engines more prone to the risk  of impairment.

Our response

We tested the controls designed and applied by theGroup  to  provide  assurance  that  the  assumptions are regularly updated, that changes are monitored, scrutinised and approved by appropriate personnel and that the final assumptions used in impairment testing have been appropriately approved. We challenged the appropriateness of the key assumptions in the impairment test (including market size, market share, pricing, engine and aftermarket unit costs, individual programme assumptions, price and cost escalation, discount rate and exchange rates) focusing particularly on those assets with a higher risk of impairment (those relating to the trent 900 programme and launch customers on the trent  900  and  1000  programmes).  Our  challenge  was based on our assessment of the historical accuracy of the Group’s estimates in previous periods, our understanding of the commercial prospects of key engine programmes, identification and analysis of changes in assumptions from prior periods and an assessment of the consistency of assumptions across programmes  and  customers  and comparison of assumptions with publicly available data where this was available. We considered the appropriateness of the related disclosures in note 9 to the financial statements.

Our findings
Our testing did not identify any deviation in the operation of controls which would have required us to amend the nature or scope of our planned detailed test work. We found that the assumptions and resulting estimates were balanced and that the disclosures in note 9 appropriately describe the inherent degree of subjectivity in the estimates and the  potential  impact  on  future  periods of revisions to these estimates. We found no errors in calculations.

Accounting for the consolidation of rolls- royce Power systems holding Gmbh and valuation of Daimler AG’s put option
Refer to page 81 (Key areas of judgement – Rolls-Royce Power Systems Holding GmbH), page 82 (Key sources of estimation uncertainty – Intangible assets arising on consolidation of Rolls-Royce Power Systems AG and put option on Rolls-Royce Power Systems Holding GmbH), page 83 (Accounting policies – Basis of consolidation) and page 44 (Audit committee report – Financial reporting) Control of Rolls-Royce Power Systems Holding GmbH

The risk
rolls-royce  Power  Systems  holding  Gmbh  (a  special purpose vehicle owned equally by the Group and daimler aG  (RRPSh))  acquired  a  controlling  interest  in  rolls-royce Power Systems AG (RRPS) on 25 august 2011. From that date, the Group equity accounted for its joint venture  interest  in  RRPSh  as  control  was  shared  with Daimler AG. On 1 January 2013, conditions were fulfilled which the Group considered gave it control over RRPSh and from that date the Group’s 50 per cent interest has been classified as a subsidiary and RRPSH has been consolidated in the Group financial statements. Assessing whether  or  not  the  Group  controls  RRPSh  is  a  critical accounting  judgement.  The  rights  of  the  Group  and daimler AG are encapsulated in shareholder agreements and assessing whether the Group’s rights are sufficient to give it control over RRPSh requires detailed consideration of the relevant provisions and a commercial assessment as to which rights are most important.

Our response
We analysed the shareholder agreements with particular reference to rights relating to key matters including the existence of a casting vote in respect of key matters described on page 81 at the shareholders meeting and Shareholders’ Committee of RRPSh.

Our findings
We found that the terms of the agreements provide the Group with the power to establish key operating and capital decisions of rrPSh and to appoint, remove and set the remuneration of key management personnel. the agreements also provide daimler AG with rights (in particular over matters that would significantly change the scale, scope and financing of RRPSH’s business, certain significant supplier relationships and changes to contractual  arrangements  between  RRPSh  with  rolls- royce)  which  we  have  determined  provide  protection to  daimler  AG  over  its  interest  in  RRPSh  but  are  not sufficient to prevent the Group from controlling RRPSH. on that basis, we consider that it is appropriate that RRPSh (and hence RRPS) has been consolidated from 1 january 2013.

Consolidation of Rolls-Royce Power systems holding GmbH

The risk

estimating  the  fair  value  of  intangible  assets  of  rrPS at the date of consolidation involved the use of complex valuation techniques and the estimation of future cash flows over a considerable period of time. To the extent that greater or lesser value is attributed to intangibles (which are subject to amortisation), lesser or greater value is attributed to goodwill (which is not).

Our response
We evaluated the basis upon which the Directors identified and assessed the fair value of each significant asset, liability and contingent liability of rrPS and its subsidiaries having regard to the relevant accounting standards. for the intangible assets, we assessed whether the measurement basis and assumptions underlying the estimate of the fair values were reasonable, taking account of our experience of similar assets in other comparable situations and of the work performed by a valuer engaged by the Group. We assessed whether the valuer was objective and suitably qualified, had been appropriately instructed and had been provided with complete, accurate data on which   to base its evaluation. We also assessed whether or not the estimates showed any evidence of management bias with a focus on whether there was any indication of value being inappropriately attributed to goodwill rather than depreciable assets.

Our findings

We found that the intangible assets identified were typical for acquisitions of similar businesses and that the valuation bases used were in accordance with accounting standards. We have no concerns with the basis on which the valuer had been instructed by the Group and found that (i) the valuer was objective and competent, (ii) the estimates used in the valuations were balanced and did not result in either too much or too little goodwill being recognised and (iii) the valuations arrived at by the valuer had been adopted by the Group without adjustment.

Valuation of Daimler AG’s put option

The risk
As part of the shareholder agreements, for a period of six years from 1 january 2013  daimler aG has the option to require the Group to purchase its 50 per cent interest in RRPSH. The estimated amount of the purchase price of this option has been recognised as a financial liability on the  Group  balance  sheet. The  purchase  price  is  based on averaging three valuations, which are based on both internal and external metrics, at the date the option is exercised.  The  external  metrics  include  price/earnings ratios for comparable companies and those implicit in comparable  transactions.  There  is  judgement  involved in choosing appropriate comparable companies and transactions and in predicting what these might be at a future date.

Our response
We analysed the shareholder agreements and tested the reasonableness of the estimate of the purchase price    of the option, including assessing whether the Group’s judgement as to which external metrics should be used was appropriate, and the accuracy of its calculation. We also assessed whether or not the estimates showed any evidence of management bias with a particular focus on the risk that the liability might be understated given its visibility.

Our findings

We found that the resulting estimate was acceptable but mildly optimistic resulting in a somewhat lower liability being recorded than might otherwise have been the case.

Liabilities    arising    from    sales    financing arrangements
Refer to page 82 (Key areas of judgement – financing support), page 88 (Significant accounting policies – Sales financing support, page 112 (Note 18 to the financial statements – Provisions for liabilities and charges) and page 44 (Audit committee report – Financial reporting)

The risk
The Group has contingent liabilities in respect of financing and  asset  value  support  provided  to  customers.  this support typically takes the form of either a guarantee with respect to the value of an aircraft at a future date   or a guarantee of a customer’s future payments under an aircraft financing arrangement. Judgement is required to assess the likelihood of these liabilities crystallising,  in order to assess whether a provision should be recognised  and  if  so  the  amount  of  that  provision. The total potential liability is significant and can be affected by the assessment of the residual value of the aircraft and the creditworthiness of the customers.

Our response
We analysed the terms of guarantees on aircraft delivered during the year in detail and obtained aircraft values from and held discussions with aircraft valuation specialists engaged by the Group. We assessed whether the valuer was objective and suitably qualified, had been appropriately instructed and had been provided with complete, accurate data on which to base its evaluation. for  all  contracts  on  delivered  aircraft,  we  assessed the commercial factors relevant to the likelihood of the guarantees being called, including the credit ratings and recent financial performance of the relevant customers and their fleet plans, and critically assessed the Group’s estimate of the required provisions for those liabilities. We considered movements in aircraft values and potential changes in the assessed probability of a liability crystallising since the previous year end and considered whether the evidence supported the Group’s assessment as to whether or not a liability needs to be recognised and the amount of the liability recognised or contingent liability disclosed. We considered the appropriateness of the related disclosure in note 18 to the financial statements.

Our findings
We found that the assumptions and estimates were balanced and that note 18 appropriately discloses the potential liability in excess of the amount provided for    in the financial statements for delivered aircraft and highlights the significant but unquantifiable contingent liability in respect of aircraft which will be delivered in  the future.

Accounting for risk and revenue sharing arrangements refer  to  page  81  (Key  areas  of  judgement  –  risk  and revenue sharing arrangements), page 84 (Significant accounting    policies    –    risk    and    revenue    sharing arrangements), page 11 (Chief Financial Officer’s review) and page 44 (audit committee report – financial reporting)

The risk
The   Group   receives   non-refundable   cash   payments under risk and revenue sharing arrangements (which are referred to as entry fees). The assessment of when these entry fees should be recognised in the income statement involves analysis of their commercial substance in the context of the agreement as a whole. As there is no single accounting standard that directly addresses these types of agreements, management has to apply very significant judgement in deciding how to apply the various provisions of accounting standards that are relevant to different aspects of the agreements. These arrangements are complex and have features that could be indicative of: a collaboration agreement, including sharing of risk and cost in a development programme; a long-term supply agreement; sharing of intellectual property; or a combination of these.

Our response
We independently analysed the agreements under which significant entry fees have been received to establish the range of possible accounting treatments that could be adopted and to assess which of these would in our view most appropriately reflect the requirements of accounting standards. The most significant accounting standards considered were iaS 8 accounting policies, changes in accounting estimates and errors, IAS 18 revenue, IFRS 11 joint arrangements in terms of the timing of recognition of the entry fees and IAS 1 Presentation of financial statements in respect of their presentation as an offset against the expenditure to which they relate. We also had regard to the definitions of assets, liabilities, income and expenses in the ifrS framework and, to the extent they did not conflict with Adopted IFRS, to pronouncements of other standard-setting bodies that more explicitly address accounting for payments from suppliers and collaborative arrangements. We examined correspondence between the  Group  and  the  financial  reporting  Council  and attended meetings between them. We sought to identify the accounting applied in similar circumstances by other companies including the Group’s direct competitors and compare these to the approach adopted by the Group and the requirements of adopted IFRS. We assessed whether the change to the accounting policy made in the year was appropriate and recalculated the resulting amounts in the financial statements. We considered the appropriateness of the related disclosures.

Our findings
Our analysis indicated that in substance, from the point of view of both the Group and the risk and revenue sharing workshare partners, the entry fees represent the reimbursement of expenditure incurred by the Group as part of an engine development programme and that this represented a significant transfer of development risk from the Group to the partners that should be reflected  in the income statement at the time the reimbursed expenditure is recognised. on that basis, we found that the revised accounting policy most appropriately reflects the commercial substance of the entry fees. So far as it was possible to tell, we found that the accounting applied by the Group was similar to the approach taken by others. We found that the change to the accounting policy made by the Group was appropriate given the incidence of entry fees in the year and the costs capitalised on the programmes to which these entry fees relate. We found that the disclosures in the financial statements properly describe the accounting treatment adopted by the Group and the directors’ basis for applying that treatment bribery and corruption
Refer to page 120 (Note 23 to the financial statements– Contingent liabilities) and page 44 (Audit committee report – Financial reporting)

The risk
A  large  part  of  the  Group’s  business  is characterised by competition for individually significant contracts with customers which are often directly or indirectly associated with governments and the award of individually significant contracts   to   suppliers.   The   procurement   processes associated with these activities are highly susceptible   to the risk of corruption. In addition the Group operates in a number of territories where the use of commercial intermediaries is either required by the government or  is  normal  practice.  The  Group  is  currently  under investigation by law enforcement agencies, primarily the Serious Fraud Office in the UK and the US Department of justice. Breaches of laws and regulations in this area can lead to fines, penalties, criminal prosecution, commercial litigation and restrictions on future business.

Our response
We evaluated and tested the Group’s policies, procedures and controls over the selection and renewal of intermediaries, contracting arrangements, ongoing management, payments and responses to suspected breaches of policy. We sought to identify and tested payments made to intermediaries during the year, made enquiries of appropriate personnel and evaluated the tone set by the Board and the executive Leadership team and the Group’s approach to managing this risk. having enquired of management, the audit committee and the Board as to whether the Group is in compliance with laws and regulations relating to bribery and corruption, we made written enquiries of the Group’s legal advisers to corroborate the results of those enquiries and maintained a high level of vigilance to possible indications of significant non-compliance with laws and regulations relating to bribery and corruption whilst carrying out our  other  audit procedures. We discussed the areas of potential  or suspected breaches of law, including the ongoing investigation, with the audit committee and the Board    of directors as well as the Group’s legal advisers and assessed related documentation. We assessed whether the financial effects of potential or suspected breaches of law or regulation have been properly disclosed in note 23 to the financial statements.

Our findings
We found that the disclosures in note 23 to the financial statements reflect appropriately the matters required to be disclosed by accounting standards and highlighted that, as the investigation is at too early a stage to assess the consequences (if any), including in particular the size of any possible fines, no provision can be made at year end.

The presentation of ‘underlying’ profit
Refer to page 10 (Chief Financial Officer’s review), page 89 (Note 2 to the financial statements – Segmental analysis) and page 44 (Audit committee report – Financial reporting)

The risk
In addition to its Adopted IFRS financial statements, the Group presents an alternative income statement on an ‘underlying’ basis. the directors believe the ‘underlying’ income statement reflects better the Group’s trading performance  during  the  year.  the  basis  of  adjusting between the adopted ifrS and ‘underlying’ income statements and a full reconciliation between them is set out in note 2 to the financial statements on pages 89  and 91. A significant recurring adjustment between the adopted ifrS income statement and the ‘underlying’ income statement relates to the foreign exchange rate used  to  translate  foreign  currency  transactions.  The Group uses forward foreign exchange contracts to manage the cash flow exposures of forecast transactions denominated in foreign currencies but does not generally apply hedge accounting in its adopted IFRS income statement. the ‘underlying’ income statement translates these amounts at the achieved foreign exchange rate on forward foreign exchange contracts settled in the period, retranslates assets and liabilities at exchange rates forecast to be achieved from future settlement of such contracts and excludes unrealised gains and losses on such contracts which are included in the adopted IFRS income statement. In addition, adjustments are made to exclude one-off past-service credits on post-retirement schemes and the effect of acquisition accounting and a number of other items.

Alternative performance measures can provide investors with appropriate additional information if properly used and presented. in such cases, measures such as these can assist investors in gaining a better understanding of a company’s financial performance and strategy. However, when improperly used and presented, these kinds of measures might mislead investors by hiding the real financial position and results or by making the profitability of the reporting entity seem more attractive.

Our response

We assessed the appropriateness of the basis for the adjustments between the adopted ifrS income statement and the ‘underlying’ income statement and recalculated the adjustments with a particular focus on the impact    of the foreign exchange rate used to translate foreign currency amounts in the ‘underlying’ income statement. As the Group has discretion over which forward foreign exchange contracts are settled in each financial year,  which could impact the achieved rate both for the period and in the future, we assessed whether or not this showed any evidence of management bias. We also assessed: (i) the extent to which the prominence given to the ‘underlying’ financial information and related commentary in the annual report compared to the Adopted IFRS financial information and related commentary could be misleading;
(ii) Whether the Adopted IFRS and ‘underlying’ financial information are reconciled with sufficient prominence given to that reconciliation; (iii) whether the basis of the ‘underlying’ financial information is clearly and accurately described and consistently applied; and (iv)  whether  the ‘underlying’ financial information is not otherwise misleading in the form and context in which it appears in the annual report.

Our findings
We have no concerns regarding the basis of the ‘underlying’ financial information or its calculation and found no indication of management bias in the way the Group managed forward foreign exchange contracts  during  the year. We consider that there is sufficient appropriate disclosure of the nature and amounts of the adjustments to allow shareholders to understand the implications of the two bases on the financial measures being presented. We consider that the ‘underlying’ financial information is useful to shareholders as an adjunct to the adopted IFRS financial information particularly in the context of isolating trends resulting from trading performance from trends that result from other factors. We found the presentation of the ‘underlying’ financial information to be balanced.

In addition to these key audit risks, we also focused on the recognition of revenue and profit on other long-term contracts; the implementation of a new consolidation system; warranties and guarantees; valuation of derivative contracts; valuation of post-retirement scheme liabilities; and the recoverability of tax assets and the adequacy of provisions for tax contingencies.

3 our application of materiality and an overview of the scope    of  our  audit    the  materiality  for  the  Group financial statements as a whole was set at £86 million.  this  has  been  calculated  with  reference  to a benchmark of profit before taxation (representing 4.9% of reported and ‘underlying’ profit before taxation) which we consider to be one of the principal considerations for members of the company in assessing the financial performance of the Group.

We agreed with the audit committee to report to it the following  misstatements  that  we  identified  through  our audit: (i) all material corrected misstatements; (ii) uncorrected misstatements with a value in excess of £4 million for income  statement  items  (or  £8  million for balance sheet reclassifications); and (iii) other misstatements below that threshold that we believe warranted reporting on qualitative grounds.

In order to gain appropriate audit coverage of the risks described above and of each individually significant reporting component:

(a)    Audits for Group reporting purposes were carried out at 13 key reporting components located in the following countries: United Kingdom (9 key reporting components), uSa (1), Germany (2) and norway (1). in addition, audits for Group reporting purposes were performed at a further 20 reporting components. Together these covered 90 % of revenue, 87 % of underlying profit before taxation and 85 % of total assets; and

(b)    Specified reporting procedures were carried out over key risk areas at a further 12 reporting components, none of which are considered to be key.

In total our procedures covered 98 % of revenue, 99 % of underlying profit before taxation and 94 % of total assets. detailed audit instructions were sent to the auditors of all these reporting components. these instructions covered the significant audit areas that should be covered by these audits (which included the relevant risks of material misstatement detailed above) and set out the information required to be reported back to the group audit team. The group audit team visited the following locations: united Kingdom, USA, Germany, norway and Singapore. Telephone meetings were also held  with the auditors at these locations and the majority of the other locations that were not physically visited.

The audits undertaken for Group reporting purposes at the reporting components were all performed to materiality levels set by, or agreed with, the group audit team. These materiality levels were set individually for each such component and ranged from £0.5 million to £50 million.

4 our opinion on other matters prescribed by the Companies Act 2006 is unmodified In our opinion: the part of the directors’ remuneration report to be audited has been properly prepared in accordance with the Companies act 2006; and the information given in the Strategic report and directors’ report for the financial year for which the financial statements are prepared is consistent with the financial statements.

5 We have nothing to report in respect of the matters on which we are required to report by exception under ISA (UK and Ireland) we are required  to  report  to you if, based on the knowledge we acquired during our audit, we have identified other information in the annual report that contains a material inconsistency with either that knowledge or the financial statements, a material misstatement of fact, or that is otherwise misleading. in particular, we are required to report to you if:

We have identified material inconsistencies between the knowledge we acquired during our audit and the directors’ statement that they consider that the annual report and financial statements taken as a whole is fair, balanced and understandable and provides the information necessary for shareholders to assess the Group’s performance, business model and strategy; or the audit committee report does not appropriately address matters communicated by us to the audit committee.

Under the Companies act 2006 we are required to report to you if, in our opinion:

Adequate accounting records have not been kept by the parent company, or returns adequate for our audit have not been received from branches not visited by us; or  the parent company financial statements and the part of the directors’ remuneration report to be audited are not in agreement with the accounting records and returns; or certain disclosures of directors’ remuneration specified by law are not made; or we have not received all the information and explanations we require for our audit. Under the Listing Rules we are required to review: the directors’ statement, set out on page 72, in relation to going concern; and the part of the corporate governance report on page 39 relating to the Company’s compliance with the nine provisions of the UK Corporate Governance Code (2010) specified for our review.

We have nothing to report in respect of the above responsibilities.

Scope of report and responsibilities as explained more fully in the directors’ responsibilities statement set out  on pages 72 and 73, the directors are responsible for the preparation of the financial statements and for being satisfied that they give a true and fair view. A description of the scope of an audit of accounts is provided on the financial  reporting  Council’s  website  at  www.frc.org. uk/auditscopeukprivate.  this  report  is  made  solely  to the Company’s members as a body and is subject to important explanations and disclaimers regarding our responsibilities, published on our website at          which are incorporated into this report set out in full and should be read to provide an understanding of the purpose of this report, the work we have undertaken and the basis of our opinions.

PART C: Information on & Around

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BMC’s reluctance to provide information:

A classic case of efforts by Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation (BMC) officials to dissuade citizens from seeking details under the Right to Information (RTI) Act has come to light.

On 3rd September, Aftab Siddique, prominent activist from Khar, sent an RTI request to the municipal commissioner, seeking information about the number of Ganpati mandal permissions this year.

The commissioner’s office replied on 10th September, directing her to apply to the deputy commissioners. The deputy commissioner (removal of encroachment) and deputy commissioner Zone II.

Accordingly, she applied to both the deputy commissioners. The deputy commissioner (removal of encroachment) Anand Wagralkar informed her on November 8 that, as per a circular issued by the BMC, the information can be had only from the deputy commissioner Zone II, Kishore Kshirsagar.

Kshirsagar is the nodal officer for all matters related to Ganesh mandals.

Instead of collating the necessary information from the ward officers and providing it to Siddique, Kshirsagar gave copies of her application to all the 24 ward officers of Greater Mumbai. Siddique was shocked when 10 of the ward officers called her the same day – on 27th November.

“How am I supposed to be present at 10 ward offices the same day? This is nothing but an effort to sabotage my RTI, Kshirsagar has failed in his duty to obtain the information and pass it on to me,” she added.

Kshirsagar was unavailable for comment. His office said he was busy on a tour of the wards in zone II. Siddique said she wanted the information since several illegal Ganesh pandals were put up.

The spirit of the RTI Act is destroyed by such hostile attitude. Even though Kshirsagar may not be the primary Public Information Officer (PIO) under the law, he could have easily parted with the information, which must have been with him in his capacity as the nodal officer for Ganesh mandals.” she observed

Section 8 (1) (h) of the RTI Act:

The Prime Minister’s Office has refused to disclose communication exchanged between former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Gujarat Chief Minister Narendra Modi during the 2002 Gujarat riots even after 11 years.

Responding to an RTI application, the PMO cited section 8(1) (h) of the RTI Act, which exempts information that would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders.

The PMO did not give any reasons as to how disclosure of the information would attract section 8(1) (h) of the RTI Act even though the Delhi High Court has made it clear that cogent reasons must be given while denying information under the clause.

Section 2(h) of the RTI Act:

The Supreme Court has admitted ADAG Relianceled power distribution companies’ appeals seeking quashing of the Orissa High Court order that declared them as ‘public authorities’, thus bringing them under the purview of the RTI Act.

Reliance Infrastructure owned three discoms, engaged in the distribution and retail supply of Electricity in 23 districts of Orissa since 1999, had challenged the order arguing they are exclusively private bodies, and not public authorities within the meaning of section 2 (h) of the RTI Act, 2005.

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PART B: RTI Act, 2005

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Withdrawals of the Orders of CSIC:

State information commissioner Ratnakar Gaikwad on 4th December withdrew an order issued last month that imposed certain qualifications on obtaining building plans approved by the BMC under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.

Gaikwad said the latest decision was taken “with a view to avoid confusion and practical difficulties in securing information about building plans”. Nonetheless, he urged that caution be exercised when demands for the plans of public utilities or buildings are made. “The authorities must consider if there may be some danger to national security or public safety if these plans are given.” If the answer is yes, the requests in such cases “should be declined as per the provisions of the RTI Act”.

This was the second time Gaikwad withdrew an order on the issue. Following criticism, an order dated 26th September was cancelled on 21st November and a new one issued. But that too met with disapproval. “The language and structure of both the orders perhaps made them look like blanket ban on disclosure of information relating to building plans, which was never the intention of the Commission and the Commission expresses regrets for it,” said Gaikwad.

While explaining the rationale behind the September order, Gaikwad said it was not taken suo motu. “Subhash Desai (Shiv Sena MLA) wrote to the Commission pointing out serious lapses committed by PIOs while furnishing information about building plans and violations of sections 8(a,d), 9 and 11 of the Act, which were dangerous for the country’s security.”

Desai enclosed news items that described how Maoists, through proxies, obtained information under RTI in Jharkhand and misused it for extortion, leading in some cases to the killing of contractors. The MLA requested the Commission not to provide information on public buildings. “Since the Commission was of the same opinion, an order was issued on 26th September.”

• Ms. Sushma Singh is appointed as chief central Information Commissioner w.e.f. 19-12-2013 Now the strength of the Commission is 9 memberschief CIC and 8 Information Commissioners as under:

• Shri Rajiv Mathur
• Shri Vijai Sharma
• Shri Basant Seth
• Shri Yasovardhan Azad
• Shri Sharat Sabharwal
• Mrs. Manjula Prasher
• Shri. M. A. Khan Yusufi
• Prof Madabhushanam Sridhar Acharyulu.

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From published accounts

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Section B:
• Creation of Reserve for Corporate Social Responsibility

Power Finance Corporation Ltd (31-03-2013)

From Notes to Accounts

The Company has formulated a Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) policy in line with the guidelines issued by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises (Department of Public Enterprises) vide Office Memorandum F.No.15(3)/2007 -DPE(GM)-GL-99 dated 09-04-2010. As per the CSR policy of the Company, a minimum of 0.5% of the consolidated profit after tax of the previous year will be allocated every financial year for CSR Activities, and Company was creating CSR provision for this purpose up to FY 2011-12. Now, the Expert Advisory Committee of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has given opinion that unspent expenditure on CSR activities should not be recognized as provision, but a reserve may be created as an appropriation of profits. Accordingly, CSR provision of Rs. 16.39 crore (amount unspent as at 01-04-2012) has been reversed to the credit of the statement of profit & loss through prior period account, and CSR reserve of Rs 18.36 crore has been created as appropriation of profit, the details of which are as under:



Coal India Ltd (31-3-2013)

From Notes to Accounts
CSR Reserve
As per CSR Policy of the company a reserve equivalent to 2.5% of the retained profit of previous year is created for meeting expenses relating to CSR activities of Coal India Ltd. The same is utilised for execution of CSR activities in the states which are not covered by any subsidiary company and also for supporting CSR activities in loss making subsidiaries.

The subsidiaries of CIL also create a reserve equivalent to 5% of the retained earnings of previous year subject to a minimum of Rs. 5 per tonne of coal production of previous year, for meeting expense relating to CSR activities in the state to which the subsidiary belongs.

ECL & BCCL although have earned profits in the relevant previous year are still having accumulated losses which does not make it possible to create such reserves. As such, CSR reserve created by CIL continues to be utilised for CSR activities of ECL& BCCL also.

The actual expenses incurred and accounted for during the year is Rs. 23.73 crore transferred to General Reserve from CSR Reserve as utilised.

Further CSR expenses of Rs. 1.67 crore charged to statement of profit & loss in earlier years and remaining to be transferred to General Reserve from CSR Reserve is also transferred to General Reserve during the year.

• No provision for impairment of Goodwill arising on Consolidation

Mahindra Forgings Ltd (31-3-2013)

From Notes to Accounts of CFS

Goodwill amounting to Rs. 60,065 lakh arises on consolidation of wholly owned subsidiaries the subsidiaries namely MFGL and MFIL and their step down subsidiaries Mahindra Forgings Europe AG (MFE AG) and its wholly owned subsidiary companies namely Jeco Jellinghaus GmbH, Schoneweiss & Co GmbH, Gesenkschmiede Schneider GmbH and Falkenroth Unfirmtechnik GmbH (collectively referred to as step-down subsidiaries). Due to downturn in the economic situation in Europe, the market demand declined significantly impacting the sales and profitability of MFE AG and the step down subsidiaries.

Necessary actions are being taken in MFE AG to:

• Improve the operating efficiencies and align the cost structure in line with current market demand.
• Enhanced Focus on exploiting the synergies of business in Europe and India.
• Closely monitor the performance with increased periodic reviews to facilitate timely corrective actions to improve profitability.

The management also considers the current market situations, to be temporary and expects that together with its above actions the company should turnaround its performance in the next few years planned.

Therefore, in the opinion of the management, there is no impairment of the goodwill.

From Auditors’ Report on CFS
Emphasis of Matter

We draw attention to Note no. XXVI(8) of the consolidated financial statements and for the reasons detailed therein the management of the Company does not perceive any impairment in the value of Goodwill of Rs. 60,065 lakh arising on consolidation of the subsidiaries in view of the measures for improving financial performance being taken by the management of the Company. Our opinion is not qualified in respect of this matter.

• Change of period of operating cycle

Tecpro systems ltd (31-03-2013)

From Notes to Accounts

In the previous year, the operating cycle was determine to be 12 months in view of the varying nature of contracts, customers, payment terms, project duration etc. Basis further analysis and considering additional guidance/clarity available related to implementation of revised schedule VI, the management is of the view that the Company has multiple operating cycles which are determined on the basis of the distinguishing features and characteristics of various categories of contracts.

Due to change in operating cycle during the current year, figures for the previous year have been regrouped for meaningful comparison of current and previous year classification. The impact of regrouping on significant financial statement items if summarised below:

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Letters to the editor

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The Editor,
BCA Journal

Dear Sir,

Apropos an article titled ” WHEN PROFESSIONALS HAVE TO RUN THEIR FIRMS….authored by CA. Vaibhav Manek, published in the November 2014 issue of the Journal, I would like to know how the client’s lack of knowledge or ability or time has “Fair Market Value”. I am a bit confused. This is something new as far as my knowledge goes. There can be at the most ‘fair value’ not ‘fair market value’. If we go by the author’s terminology, a question arises – does the client market his lack of knowledge or ability or time? I may be wrong in my interpretation of the term used by the author. There are several factors in practical life, which determine the value of services rendered by the professional. I know one maxim “price what we pay, value what we get”. When the professional quotes his fees he does not know the degree of client’s lack of knowledge, ability or time.

With regards,

Avinash Rajopadhye
Chartered Accountant

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Cancerous Corruption

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Anti-corruption Bureau:
Right to Information is an effective tool to contain corruption. When bureaucrats realise that they will be exposed to scrutiny because of RTI applications, they are afraid to do the wrong thing and do not take a bribe. But many believe that such fear is now less than it was in earlier times.

Hence RTI plays a preventive role. However, it cannot result in catching an individual who demands and takes bribe. That role is played by CBI and ACB. Presently ACB is headed by DGP Praveen Dixit. He has made ACB very vigilant and dynamic. In this month (December) Trustees of Public Concern for Governance Trust (PCGT) of which I am Jt. Managing Trustee, had a dialogue with him. PCGT and ACB finalised the arrangement to launch a device in Whatsapp format to facilitate anyone to make a complaint on bribe-seekers to ACB from anywhere in Maharashtra. (Please see BCAJ issue of August 2014 for more on this device). On my request, Mr. Dixit has agreed to write for this feature in a month or two.

Crime Records:
The number of crimes reported in different government departments in 2014 has already seen a 104% rise than last year. Breaking its 10-year record, the ACB has registered 1,199 corruption cases from 1st January to 30th November, while the figure was 583 last year.

According to the Anti-Corruption Bureau data, the revenue department is the most corrupt department, where 297 cases were registered and 392 of its officials caught so far, followed by the state police department where 383 cops were arrested for taking bribes in 273 offences. The gram panchayat department had 171 of its officials booked for graft in 89 cases, while 118 and 53 corruption cases were registered against urban development department and the BMC officials respectively. A total of 71 officials for the education department have been caught.

“Unscrupulous officials do not spare the challenged or senior citizens. Corrupt babus don’t care if their victim is disabled, for whom life is a struggle every day. They just want their needs to be satisfied.” Said DGP (ACB) Praveen Dixit. “Due to the awareness, more people are reporting such offences and so, the number of registered cases has also risen.”

Reasons for seeking bribes:
The reasons for seeking bribes vary from renewal of licenses, deleting the names of deceased persons from property cards, leniency in criminal cases to even getting sanction for maternity leave. Cases documented in the ACB report show the bribe amount has varied from as little as Rs. 50 to over Rs. 2 lakh.

Citizen’s role to contain bribeseeking:
Uday Aphale, deputy SP (ACB), Kolhapur said mere arrest of corrupt employees would not stop corruption. “People should be aware of their rights and fight for them. If people decide to not pay a bribe, the government employee will not dare to ask them for money. This is a key way to keep a check on corruption,” he said. He said awareness drives among visitors to government offices have helped increase the number of complaints registered.

Business & Graft:
Gone are the days when multinationals could book bribes paid in far-flung countries as tax-deductible expenses. These days would-be palm-greasers have to contend with ever-tougher enforcement of old laws, such as America’s Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977, and a raft of new ones on countries from Britain to Brazil.

As policing is stepped up, however, much about the practice of bribery remains murky. The OECD’s first report of the subject, published on 2nd December 2nd, sheds some light by analysing more than 400 international bribery cases that have been brought since the antibribery convention of this group of mostly rich countries came into force in 1999.

Some findings confirm what was known or suspected. The most bribe-riddled sectors are oil, gas, mining, construction and transport. At the other end of the spectrum, financial services and retailing are fairly clean. Most bribes go to managers of state-owned companies, followed by customs officials. And America leads the enforcement pack, with 128 cases that resulted in sanctions.

But the report also undermines some common beliefs. Bribery is not a sin of rogue employees or poor countries. In 53% of cases, payments were made or authorised by corporate managers. More than 40% of the time, the bribe taking official was in a developed country (though this figure is probably inflated by rich countries’ greater willingness to criminalise bribery and co-operate with cross border investigations). Authorities are often alerted by firms themselves: those that co-operate quickly are often treated leniently.

The cost of bribery varies by industry. Builders pay a modest average of 4% of transaction’s value, extractive companies a hefty 21%. Add to that the rising costs of paying penalties and conducting internal probes – these cost Siemens, for example, $2.4 billion when it was mired in a graft scandal a few years ago – and bribery starts to look bad not just for reputations, but also for bottom lines.

—The Economist

Transparency International Corruption Perception Index 2014:
The Corruption Perception Index ranks countries and territories based on how corrupt their public sector is perceived to be. A Country or territory’s score indicates the perceived level of public sector corruption on a scale of 0 (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean). A country or territory’s rank indicates its position relative to the other countries and territories in the index. This year’s index includes 175 countries and territories. First 10 least corrupt countries:

India ranks at 85 along with 8 other countries with thesame score 38. They are:

Asian Countries: India and its neighbors

The above chart shows that only Bhutan is much ahead in containing corruption. All other 7 countries are behind. India has improved its rank, while for China it is other way round. For the first time in 18 years, India ranks as less corrupt than China. India ranks an otherwise depressing 85th, but has improved by jumping 10 places. China, on the other hand, has fallen 20 places to rank No. 100 despite Chinese President Xi Jinping unleashing a massive campaign against corruption and arresting a number of high profile politicians and military leaders.

-Jose Ugaz, Chair, Transparency International writes: “Countries at the bottom need to adopt radical anticorruption measures in favour of their people. Countries at the top of the index should make sure they don’t export corrupt practices to undeveloped countries.”

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ICAI and its members

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1. Some Ethical Issues

The Ethical Standards Board of ICAI has given answers to some Ethical Issues on pages Page 760 to 762 of the C. A. Journal for December, 2014. Some of these issues are as under:

i) Issue:
Whether a member can appear on television/Radio or give lectures at Forums?

Response:
Council direction under Clause(7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the C.A. Act prescribes that a member may appear on television/Radio or give lectures at forums and may give his name and describe himself as chartered accountant. Special qualifications or specialised knowledge directly relevant to the subject matter of the programme may also be given. But no reference should be made, in the case of practicing member to the name and address or services of his firm. What he may say or write must not be promotional of him or his firm but must be an objective professional view of the topic under consideration.

(ii) Issue: Whether a Chartered Accountant in practice can use expression like Income tax Consultant, Cost Accountant, Company Secretary, Cost Consultant or a Management Consultant?

Response:
Council direction under Clause (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the C.A. Act prescribes that it is improper for a Chartered Accountant to state on his professional documents that he is an Income tax Consultant, Cost Accountant, Company Secretary, Cost Consultant or a Management Consultant, whereas it is permitted to mention his degrees.

(iii) I ssue: Whether a Chartered Accountant/Firm is permitted to use logo on letter-heads, stationery, etc.?

Response:
The use of logo/monogram of any kind/form/style/design colour etc whatsoever on any display material or media e.g. paper stationery, documents, visiting cards, magnetic devices, internet, signboard by the Chartered Accountant, firm of Chartered Accountants is prohibited. Use or printing of member/firm name in any other manner tantamounting to logo /monogram is also prohibited. However, a common CA logo has been allowed to the members, provided it is used in the correct manner within terms of the Council guidelines.

(iv) Issue:

Whether a Chartered Accountant in practice can engage in any business or occupation other than the profession of Chartered Accountancy?

Response:
In terms of Clause (11) of Part I of First Schedule to the C.A. Act a Chartered Accountant in practice is not permitted to engage himself in any business or occupation other than the profession of Chartered Accountants.

However, there are the following exceptions to it: (i) A Chartered Accountant can be a Director of a Company (not being a Managing Director or Whole – Time Director), provided he, or any of his partners or the firm in which he is a partner is not Auditor of such Company.

(ii) A Chartered Accountant in practice may engage in any business or occupation with the permission granted in accordance with a Resolution of the Council. Appendix-9 of the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988 contains the above resolutions under two heads (A) permission granted generally and (B) permission to be granted specifically.

(v) Issue:
If a member is a partner in more than one firm, is it permissible to print the names of all the firms on visiting cards, letter-heads, stationery etc.?

Response:
There is no violation under Clause (7) of Part I of the First Schedule to the C.A. Act.

2. EAC Opinion Determination of Stage of Completion in Construction Contracts

Facts:
A company incorporated under Companies Act, 1956, is a state public sector undertaking (PSU) and is a wholly owned by the Government of Odisha. The company is an unlisted public company.

The company has stated that since the company has been incorporated specifically for execution of projects of Home Department of the Government of Odisha, it does not participate in tender for obtaining orders from various Government departments.

Further, the company has stated that the revenue is recognised on the basis of contracts executed by the company, which are in the nature of fixed price contracts. Since the company is executing more than 2,000 projects at a time, it is not practically possible for the company to estimate the contract cost to complete the balance work and calculate the stage of contract completion as on the balance sheet date. Furthermore, since there is no correlation between the estimated cost and actual cost of execution, it is not practically feasible to derive the outcome of such huge number of projects unless and until the projects are completed and handed over to the user departments.

Query:
On the basis of the above, the company has sought the opinion of the EAC as to whether the accounting procedure followed by the company for recognition of revenue and expenditure, which is as per Para 31(a), 31(b) and 32 of AS 7 is in conformity with AS 7 or not.

EAC Opinion:
The Committee notes from the Facts of the Case that the company, on the basis of inquiry received from the various Government departments, submits estimates for each project separately as per Odisha Public Works Department (OPWD) Schedule of Rates (SoR). The estimates are submitted after including cost of materials, labour, other overheads and supervision charges which includes its profit margin.

The Committee further notes from the Facts of the Case that the Company has stated two reasons for it not being able to measure the outcome of the project reliably. Firstly, it is stated that the company is executing large number of projects due to which it is not practically possible to estimate the contract cost to complete the balance work and calculate the state of completion as on the balance sheet date. Secondly, it is stated that since there is no correlation between the estimated cost and actual cost of execution due to estimates being based on SoR, it is not practically feasible to derive the outcome of such huge number of projects unless these are completed and handed over to the user departments.

As far as the first reason for not measuring the outcome of the project reliably due to practical difficulties of having large number of projects is concerned, the Committee notes that AS 7 identifies certain situations/conditions wherein, in fixed price contracts, it can be stated that the outcome of the project cannot be estimated reliably. The Committee notes that as per AS 7 in case of fixed price contracts, ordinarily, the company would be able to estimate the outcome of the contract reliably.

Therefore, it should recognise the contract costs and revenue based on stage of completion of the contract. The Committee also notes that as per the provisions of AS 7, stage of completion of a contract can be determined either by reference to the contract costs incurred or by reference to physical completion of the contracts using survey of work performed or completion of a physical proportion of the contract work method. The Committee is of the view that only practical problems due to large number of projects cannot be considered as a ground for not being able to estimate the outcome of the contract reliably as even in large number of projects where the stage of completion is being determined by reference to contract cost incurred, the company, on the basis of estimates of various costs, such as, labour, materials, etc. would generally be able to reasonably estimate the outcome of various projects. However, for this purpose, in order to overcome the practical difficulties, due to number of projects, the company should develop an effective reporting system from all the projects to obtain the data for determining the stage of completion as per AS 7.

As far as the second reason of no correlation between the estimated cost and actual cost of execution of the contract, the Committee is of the view that although for submission of an estimate for a project to the Government departments, it might be essential for the company to use the rates given in Sor, for the purposes of implementation of AS-7, estimates should be based on the costs expected to be incurred on the project and should also be revised from time to time depending on the changes in the circumstances. The Committee is of the view that for this purpose, the company should develop an effective budgeting system so as to have the reliable data available for estimating the outcome of the contracts at any stage and for determining the stage of completion. the Committee is of the view that a proper budgeting and reporting system is not only required from the angle of implementation of aS 7 but it also necessary to effectively manage various contracts.

The  Committee further  notes that the company has  stated that the amount of surplus or deficit in a particular project is not included in the revenue of that project, during a particular year, unless and until the project is completed and handed over to the user departments. On the basis of above, the Committee is of the opinion that accounting procedure followed by the company is not in accordance with the requirements of aS 7.

[Pl. refer page nos. 791 to 797 of the C. a. journal – december, 2014]

3 ICAI news
(Note:  Page numbers given below are from the C.A. journal for december, 2014)

(a)    ICAI geared up for IFRS convergence new/revised ind aS converged with ifrS will be notified by December end by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. ICAI has already started a nation wide exhaustive exercise to train the members in the new indian accounting Standards and foresee a global demand of indian Cas with IFRS expertise. New ind as can be applied voluntarily from 2015-16 and will be made compulsory from 2016-17 (P. 746-747)

(b)    Guidance Note on reporting on internal financial Controls would be available shortly at offices of Regional Councils of ICAI. However, on a representation made by ICAI, the MCA  has amended rules for Chapter 10 (audit and auditors)  of  the  Companies act,  2013  and  reporting on internal financial Control  u/s. 143(3)(i) has been deferred for one year i.e., upto 31st march,2015. (P.747)

(c)    Report on Campus Placement Programme – August – September – October, 2014

Brief summary of the Campus Placement Programme _ august – September – october, 2014.

Particulars

Campus august

– September – october, 2014

Number of Candidates Registered

4,809

Number of Candidates shortlisted

4,208

Number of Interview Teams

154

Number of Organizations

86

Number of jobs offered

1,019

Number of jobs Accepted

953

Percentage
of jobs offered vis-a vis short- listed candidates

24.22%



Top CTC offered for domestic posting

Sl no.

Company name

Job offered

CtC offered (InR Per annum)

1

ITC
Limited

7

17,00,000

2

Coca-
Cola India Inc

6

15,00,000

3

ITC
Limited

6

14,00,000

4

Bharat Petroleum Corp. Ltd.,

10

12,50,000

5.

Cairn India Limited

6

11,00,000

Highest Salary offered for international Posting was rs. 24,00,000/- (p.a) to 4 Candidates. (P. 866-877)

(d)    Secretary of ICAI

Shri T. Karthikeyan who served the iCai for 37 years retired as Secretary on 31-10-2014. our best wishes to Shri Karthikeyan for a healthy and peaceful retirement.

Shri V. Sagar has been appointed as acting Secretary of iCai. our best wishes to him for a successful term in office (P.749)

(e) ICAI President elected as Member of IFAC Board: Shri  K.  Raghu,  ICAI  President  has  been  elected  as  a member of the Board of international federation of accountants (IFAC) on 7th november, 2014. He will hold this office for a period of 3 years. Our Greetings and best wishes to Shri K. raghu for this achievement.   We wish him a successful term of office. (P.750).

Allied Laws

14. 
Duty to Court – Advocates not to cite wrong judgments & mislead the
Court – No excuse for lawyers for not cross-checking status of judgments – Task
of an advocate is perhaps more onerous – Duty to the court, duty of fidelity to
the law, if anything, it is higher now. [Principles of Law, Code of Ethics for
Professionals]

Heena Nikhil Dharia vs. Kokilaben Kirtikumar Nayak NOTICE
OF MOTION (L) NO. 3117 of 2016 (Bom) (HC) (unreported)

The learned judge has cited several instances where the
learned counsel appearing for one of the parties cited judgements as being
binding authority even though the said judgements had been overruled.

The learned Judge records with “profound sadness” that before
pronouncing the judgement, he specifically asked the counsel whether he still
maintained that the judgements cited by him were good law and that the counsel
confirmed that he did and that both are binding precedents. “It was clear that
Mr. Shah was completely unaware of the appeal court orders, and, too, the
subsequent orders in Sajanbir Singh Anand,”

As Lord Denning MR in Randel vs. W. (1996) 3 All E. R. 657
observed:

“The Code which obligates the Advocate to disregard the instructions
of his client, if they conflict with his duty to the Court, is not a code of
law — it is a code of honour. If he breaks it, he is offending against the
rules of the profession and is subject to its discipline.”

The Judge made it clear that whatever may have been the
position in the past, there is today no excuse for the casual and careless
approach of Advocates given the fact that all judgements are available in
online databases.

Conveying the message that, Don’t make the Court lose its
way, the Court stated :

“Judges need the Bar and look to it for a dispassionate
guidance through the law’s thickets. When we are encouraged instead to lose our
way, that need is fatally imperilled,”

15. 
Family – Does not include mother of unmarried deceased employee – Entire
pension to be payable to widow of employee – However, the assets may be
distributed amongst mother and widow, if employee died intestate [Employees
Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952; Section 6A – Family
Pension Scheme, 1964; Cl. 4(ii)].

Nitu vs. Sheela Rani And Ors AIR 2016 SUPREME COURT 4552

The learned counsel appearing for the appellant-widow
submitted that the appellant-widow is the only person who is entitled to the
pension as per the provisions of the Family Pension Scheme. It was also
submitted that pension is paid in pursuance of the afore-stated Scheme and
therefore, pension cannot be treated as other assets of the deceased and
according to the provisions of the Scheme, only the appellant-widow is entitled
to the pension.

On the other hand, the learned counsel appearing for the
respondent-mother submitted that she being a class-I heir of a Hindu of the
deceased who died intestate, she is entitled to one-half share of the
properties of the deceased, as he was survived by his widow and the mother.

The learned counsel appearing for the State supported the
case of the appellant-widow and submitted that in the Scheme, the term “family”
has been defined and in the instant case, the widow of the deceased is the only
person who is entitled to pension and therefore, the impugned order deserves to
be quashed and set aside so that the entire amount of pension can be paid to
the appellant.

Clause 4(ii) of the Scheme defines the term “family”, which
reads as under :-

4(ii). “Family” for the purpose of this scheme includes the
following relatives of the officer:-

    wife, in the case of a male officer;

    husband, in the case of a female officer;

    minor sons;

    unmarried minor daughters;

    widowed/legally divorced daughters; and the
parents of an unmarried officer.”

So far as the respondent mother is concerned, she has not
been included in the definition of the term “family” for the reason that as per
the provisions of sub-clause (f), parents of an unmarried officer would be a
part of the family and therefore, the respondent mother would not be included
in the family of deceased as he was married.

So far as the provisions of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956,
are concerned, it is true that the properties of a Hindu, who dies intestate
would first of all go to the persons enumerated in class I of the schedule as
per the provisions of Section 8 of the said Act and therefore, so far as the
properties of the deceased are concerned, they would be divided among the
respondent mother and the appellant wife, provided there is no other family
member of late Shri Yash Pal alive, who would fall within class 1 heirs, but
the position in this case, with regard to pension, is different.

16. 
Legal Practitioners – Publicity for Judges and Legal Practitioners must
not be encouraged – Amounts to breach of Professional Ethics and Professional
Conduct – Only the name of High Court should be used by Print Media and not the
names of Judges or the legal Practitioners. [Constitution of India – Art 217,
Advocates Act, 1961, Section 35; Law Reports Act, 1875, S.4]

S. Baskar Mathuram vs. The State of Tamil Nadu and Ors.
AIR 2016 MADRAS 178

The whole basis for seeking extravagant reliefs through
filing a Writ Petition appears to be an act of obtaining gaining popularity and
publicity, so that the law practitioner filing such a writ, could attract more
number of clients.

Such a practice would amount to an unethical practice of
soliciting one’s work. If the code of conduct prescribed by the Bar Counsel is
not adhered to, whether directly or indirectly, it must attract corrective actions.

Hence, the Registrar was directed to initiate necessary
action for breach of Code of Ethics and Professional Behaviour.

The court also directed the Registrar (Administration) to
request the Print, Electronic and Media House, not to publish the individual
names of the Judges, unless it is so essentially required. The reason being,
every Judge of the High Court is carrying on with his work sitting in a
particular division/roster as assigned by the Hon’ble Chief Justice. The Judges
do perform their duties dispassionately and to the extent possible by not
allowing their individual notions and philosophies to be a guiding factor in
deciding the causes brought before them. Therefore, we feel that the names of
the Judges should not be published and on the other hand, the name of the High Court alone should be published.

17. 
Limitation on filing suit – Suit instituted within 3 years of attaining
majority – Not barred by limitation – Plaintiffs even though majors were not
managers/karta of Joint
family – Not capable of discharging without concurrence of other members of the
family [Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956; Section 8, Limitation Act,
1963; Section 7, Constitution – Article 60, 109, 110, 113]

Narayan vs. Babasaheb and Ors. AIR 2016 SUPREME COURT 1666

The Hon’ble Court was of the considered opinion that a quondam
minor
Plaintiff challenging the transfer of an immovable property made by
his guardian in contravention of section 8(1)(2) of the Hindu Minority and
Guardianship Act 1956 which states the powers of a natural guardian, and who
seeks possession of property can file the Suit only within the limitation
prescribed under Article 60 of the Limitation Act and Articles 109, 110 or 113
of the Limitation Act are not applicable to the facts of the case.

In view of the above discussion, the limitation to file the
present Suit is governed by Article 60 of the Limitation Act and the limitation
is 3 years from the date of attaining majority. When once the Court arrives at
a conclusion that Article 60 of the Act applies and the limitation is 3 years,
the crucial question is, when there are several Plaintiffs, what is the
reckoning date of limitation?

A reading of section 7 of the Limitation Act, 1963, makes it
clear that when one of several persons who are jointly entitled to institute a
suit or make an application for the execution of the decree and a discharge can
be given without the concurrence of such person, time will run against all of
them but when no such discharge can be given, time will not run against all of
them until one of them becomes capable of giving discharge.

In the case on hand, the 1st Plaintiff was 20
years old, the 2nd Defendant was still a minor and the Plaintiffs 3,
4 and 5, who are married daughters, were aged 29, 27 and 25 respectively on the
date of institution of the Suit in the year 1989. As per Explanation 2 of
section 7 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the manager of a Hindu undivided family
governed by Mithakshara law shall be deemed to be capable of giving a
discharge without concurrence of other members of family only if he is in
management of the joint family property. In this case, Plaintiffs 3 to 5 though
major as on the date of institution of Suit will not fall under Explanation 2
of Section 7 of the Limitation Act as they are not the manager or Karta
of the joint family.

The 1st Plaintiff was 20 years old as on the date
of institution of the Suit and there is no evidence forthcoming to arrive at a
different conclusion with regard to the age of the 1st Plaintiff. In
that view of the matter, the Suit was instituted well within three years of
limitation from the date of attaining majority as envisaged under Article 60 of
the Limitation Act.

Hence, in view of the above discussion, the Court held that
the appeal was devoid of merits and it deemed it appropriate to dismiss the
appeal.

18. 
Registered Document – Operates from date of its execution – Not from the
date of its Registration  [Registration
Act, 1908; Section 47]

Principal Secretary, Government of Karnataka and Ors. vs. Ragini Narayan and Ors. AIR 2016 Supreme Court 4545

One of the Disputes which arose was with respect to the date
from which the document is said to start to operate when the document
registration was on a date subsequent to date of execution.

It was contended that the
Deed of Nomination dated 16.01.1995 was not a valid document. It was pointed
out that the amended deed based on Resolution dated 10.12.1994 was not
registered, by the date 16.01.1995 as the registration is said to have been
done only on 30.01.1995. As such, delegation of power in favour of the
Plaintiff on 16.01.1995 is not valid. It was vehemently argued that since the
amendment registered on 30.01.1995 was a non-starter as such the same was non-effective.

Section 47 of Registration Act, 1908 reads as under:

Time from which registered document operates. – A registered
document shall operate from the time at which it would have commenced to
operate if no registration thereof had been required or made, and not from the
time of its registration.

In view of the above provision of law, the
Hon’ble Court held that if there is a document registered on a subsequent date,
it starts to operate from the date of execution and not from the date of
registration.

Miscellanea

3. Fed rate hike restricts India’s policy space

Indian policymakers should prepare for higher inflation,
following the decision of America’s Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) to
raise policy rates by 25 basis points (or 0.25%). This is the first such move
since December 2015 and the second in a decade. It reflects its assessment that
growth is entrenched, employment strong and prices buoyant in the US.
President-elect Donald Trump is expected to try and pump up growth through
various measures, including fiscal stimuli. So, all 12 members of the FOMC
voted for the hike and prepared markets for at least three more rate increases
in 2017.

Indian markets saw foreign institutional investors (FIIs)
take out nearly Rs 20,000 crore in November, after the government’s
demonetisation announcement. The outflow has continued: FIIs have sold more
than Rs 2,500 crore in December. Capital flight can accelerate after the FOMC
announcement as money flows to safe havens like US Treasury bonds. The rupee
has weakened against the dollar, our main trading currency.

This will boost import costs, bad news for India, a net
importer. Worryingly, crude oil prices have doubled over the year, from around
$27 per barrel in February to $54 now. Part of this is because of signs of
economic recovery in the US, Europe and East Asia, but the real reason lies in
the 13-nation cartel OPEC’s decision to cut production. OPEC sells 42% of the
world’s oil and holds 70% of proven reserves. On December 11, another 11 oil
producers, outside OPEC, including Russia, made a similar pact. This bodes ill
for India, which imports 80% of its oil requirements. Higher crude and a weaker
rupee could widen our trade deficit, kept artificially low when crude prices
crashed.

Given these trends, policymakers must take measures to
counter capital flight and a further, rapid depreciation. Foreign exchange
reserves are adequate, but there is no room for complacency. Interest rates have
little room to move down, if capital flight is to be avoided. And there is no
scope for lax fiscal discipline, as that could trigger macroeconomic
instability.

(Source : The Economic Times dated 16.12.2016)

4.  Winter session
wasted by petty politics, parties must debate and conduct business in
Parliament

Senior BJP leader LK Advani’s anguish over disruption
politics taking centre stage is justified as the winter session of Parliament
ends today without much business being transacted. Both government and
opposition are equally to blame, especially in the backdrop of the NDA
government having conducted a major exercise like demonetisation that affects
every aspect of society. Earlier, opposition parties had closed ranks to force
the government into a debate on demonetisation that would entail voting. By the
time they came around to debate the issue without any rule this week, the
government seemingly didn’t oblige.

This is reminiscent of 2010 when the entire winter session
was washed out over the 2G spectrum allocation scam during UPA-II. Now the
opposition, led by Congress, claims this is the first time in history that
treasury benches have disrupted Parliament proceedings, while government has
blamed opposition for running away from debates. Both sides need to heed elder
statesman Advani’s advice, especially when he invoked Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi too should take inspiration from Vajpayee who
thrived on engaging debate in Parliament. If Modi had spoken in Parliament on
demonetisation, that would have given opposition one less reason to disrupt it.
His predecessor Manmohan Singh sat through debates on 2G spectrum and coal
allocation scams and sometimes even participated in them.

There was a glimmer of hope when the Rights of Persons with
Disabilities Bill, 2014 was passed in Rajya Sabha, but subsequently more than
80% of time has been lost to partisan bickering this winter session. Both
government and opposition parties agree that GST will be beneficial for the
economy. Centre and states now need to finalise three GST legislations – CGST,
IGST and compensation law – so that they can be introduced and passed in
Parliament early in the next session if GST is to become a reality by the next
financial year.

The government cannot afford disruptions of such magnitude
which have dealt a severe blow to the institution of Parliament. Government’s
crisis managers need to reach out to the opposition and have better floor
management in the House. Both sides must realise that debate is the only
democratic way of making the government accountable for its actions. If
opposition wants to create a favourable public opinion on their view of
demonetisation, the best way would be to get the better of the government in a
parliamentary debate.

(Source: The Times of India dated 16.12.2016)

5. Tax and other enforcement authorities must not abuse big
data to bring back inspector raj

The year’s second voluntary income disclosure scheme was
approved by Lok Sabha and operationalised. Along with it were reports of
bankers being sacked or suspended for complicity in attempts to launder
unaccounted money, and an invitation to citizens to lodge anonymous complaints
if they notice suspicious activity. The weeks following demonetisation have
been accompanied by growing intrusiveness of the state. Big government seems to
be back with a vengeance. But India’s earlier experiment in this area led to an
inspector raj and created opportunities for corruption to flourish. It must not be repeated.

A legitimate expectation of demonetisation was that it would
leave trails which could be used to bring tax evaders to book. This was in line
with a series of steps taken over the last decade to create an audit trail in
myriad areas to allow tax authorities to mine data. This is a sound way of
widening the tax net. In addition to tax authorities, agencies such as the
Financial Intelligence Unit processed information related to suspicious
financial transactions. India was switching to a more sophisticated way of
enforcing tax rules.

It is important that government now build upon a decade’s
work. Threats of tax raids and allowing bureaucrats to exercise excessive power
will be counterproductive. The return of an inspector raj will have a chilling
effect on economic activity. It will only prolong the ongoing economic
disruption. Government must send the right message to all economic agents.
Legitimate economic activity ought to be encouraged and needless impediments
removed. Exhorting people to use digital modes of payment is not enough.
Different arms of the government should make better use of technology to do
their work.

(Source: Times of India dated 19.12.2016)

6. Lead by example: To curb black money at its root, make all
political funding cashless and digital

As citizens are subjected to the unrelenting grind of
demonetisation, they are told this is in the interest of digitising India and
ridding it of black money. To make this argument more convincing than it is
currently, the Modi government must address the very fount of corruption and
black money in our society: political funding. As an Election Commission
background paper points out, money used to fund political parties or candidates
in a non-transparent manner undermines the core principles of democracy. The
rot begins here. It follows, therefore, that digital sanitisation must begin
here too. 

For stemming the flow of black money into politics, a most
recent EC recommendation is to lower the cap for anonymous donations from Rs
20,000 to Rs 2,000. This will help only at the margins, because the current
practice is to subdivide unaccounted funds into units below Rs 20,000 and claim
anonymity for them. The same sharp practice can be followed if a window of
anonymity is allowed below Rs 2,000: it’s just that one will have to claim ten
times more anonymous donations. To give an example of how preposterous current
claims are, in the election year 2013-14 BJP reported donations in excess of Rs
20,000 at just Rs 167 crore, Congress Rs 66 crore and BSP zero.

To end this charade and walk the talk of building a cashless
society, the laws must be amended to mandate that all donations to political
parties can only be in digital format. Prime Minister Narendra Modi has
appealed to 125 crore Indians, small traders and businessmen, farmers,
washermen, vegetable vendors, milk suppliers, newspaper vendors, tea stall
owners and chanaa sellers to bear with the hardships of transitioning to
cashless transactions because that will take India to new economic heights. In
that case, why should only political parties be exempt and continue to wallow
in cash? 

With 80% of the 1,800 parties registered in India not having
contested any election in the last few years, many of them look like setups to
launder money. Mandating a digital trail will put paid to this rot. More
broadly the political class cannot be shielded from the tribulations and trends
of the rest of society. If it claims to want to rid society of black money, it
should lead by example.

(Source: Times of India dated 21.12.2016).

From The President

Dear Members,

The
countdown is over! The fireworks have lit up the sky, and 2017 is here! My
colleagues at the BCAS join me in Wishing You All a Very Happy and
Prosperous New Year.
With each New Year, we get a fresh, clean page to
start over. Here’s hoping that life writes a beautiful new chapter for you this
year.

Hits & Misses – 2016 – The year has gone by

It
is said, don’t forget the past, learn from it! Seldom one witnesses such an
eventful year. Let’s begin with the Olympics at Rio where India sent its
largest contingent of 100 athletes. Pushing the limits many of them qualified
but failed in nail-biting finishes. In the end, it was Sindhu and Sakshi who
beat the odds to win two medals for India. Another dismal performance for India
but an apt demonstration that Indian women are winners!

Sixteen
years in the making and finally in the first week of August both houses clear
the Goods & Services Tax. A major tax reform and a game changer, GST which
is slated to be rolled out in April (may be July) next year, calls for a total
revamp of systems and will be a huge opportunity for the government, companies
and all of us.

Then
there was the Income Declaration Scheme which offered tax evaders an
opportunity to come clean after paying 45% of the undisclosed amount. It got
off to a slow start but at the end turned in some impressive figures that
enabled the government to toot its flute.

On
the international front, we have the BREXIT which made it abundantly clear that
nationalism is on the rise. Winning with a wafer-thin margin, the people of
Britain opted out of the European Union, highlighting the disadvantages of globalization.

Donald
Trump’s sweeping victory is another endorsement that is blindly embracing
globalization is not the best policy. Countries are looking at ways how they
can harness the ‘take’ of globalization without too much ‘give’ going out.
Inward looking and capitalizing on local is becoming the norm.

On
November 5, there was the 2016-17 Mid-Year Review of the Indian Economy by the
National Council of Applied Economic Research (India’s oldest and largest
independent think-tank). The figures were looking good; the economy was
buoyant, and there was distinct optimism in the air.

The
overall GDP growth was a healthy 7.6%. The agricultural sector fared well with
normal rainfall enhancing crop output 11% to touch 124 million tonnes. More
importantly, rural demand was strong too. The manufacturing sector displayed
growth with the Purchasing Managers’ Index and the Index of Industrial
Production inching north. The service index indicators continued to be muted
while urban demand was predicted to remain strong.

On
the global front, demand continued to be volatile. India’s merchandise exports
turned positive in June 2016, with exports rising in June to $ 22.57 billion.
India was on a good wicket with inflation too. After an upswing, it fell
sharply in September 2016 to 4.31%, as measured by the Consumer Price Index
(CPI). After declining for 17 months, the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation
turned positive in April 2016, hovering at 3.5-3.7%. Tax collections were
better at 42.5% of the budget estimate with the escalation in both direct and
indirect taxes.

It
was amidst this relatively rosy scenario that the demonetization bomb dropped.
A second explosion hit India with the shock election of Donald Trump’s
widespread victory, sinking all benchmarks instantly. Targeting counterfeiting,
black money and terror funding, Notification No. 2652 nullified 86% of the
value of all cash in the market. It was a bold move that was hailed by many
within India and across the world. The secrecy and suddenness were calculated
to be effective in combating the shadow economy and corruption that was
plaguing India’s real growth.

But
the great expectations from the culling of the currency seem to have
evaporated. Out of the 15.4 trillion rupees that were voided, about 13 trillion
have already been deposited in the banks, reducing substantially the huge
windfall the government expected. The monumental mismanagement of replacing the
currency has severely impacted the economy and the image of the government.
Over 90 people have lost their lives, and the key indices of the economy have
all plummeted!

The
long-term gain from the short-term pain that the government is harping about
appears remote and of little consolation to the innocent common man and the
rural poor who have had to bear the brunt of the currency purge. The drought of
currency has caused immense losses to agriculture…crops rot unharvested and
wholesale markets have collapsed without cash.

The
unorganized sector which generates 30% of the national income is among the most
severely affected. This sector constitutes the majority of the economy in terms
of investments, savings and value addition. A whopping 90% of the Indian labour
force powers this sector. Largely rural, it lacks proper documentation as it is
unable to access banking or credit facilities. Its oxygen which is cash has been
thoroughly throttled.

Corporate
and consumer confidence have both slumped. The cash crunch has decelerated
sales to a trickle, disrupting manufacturing plans completely. The MSME sector
that feeds large companies is crippled with huge inventories and their
production is thrown out of gear.

The
only silver lining is the banking arena which has received a huge quantum of
deposits. Serpentine queues outside the banks have swelled the coffers and have
helped alleviate the bank’s NPA woes. Interest rates have dropped but credit
offtake however is down with both consumers and corporates staying away.

Cashless
payments have been given a huge impetus. E-wallets, net banking, debit/credit
cards, mobile banking, NEFT/RTGS…are all witnessing phenomenal growth trajectories.
The banks and payment companies are going all out to woo customers with high
decibel promotions reiterating the benefits of going cashless. Even the
government has joined the bandwagon by offering a spectrum of incentives for
cashless payments.

So,
is demonetization really working? Will it succeed in tackling the bane of black
money? Will there be sustained efforts to eradicate black money? Or was it all
just a ploy to choke funds to the opposition in the forthcoming elections? Will
the long-term gain actually translate into achhe din? Only time will tell!

Looking ahead

Now
all expectations are on the Budget 2017 which will be delivered for the very
first time on 1st February. The Government will surely look at
soothing the wounds of the common man either by reducing the tax rates or
increasing the basic taxation limits or may be both. The FM remarked, “What you
need is a broader base of the economy, for which you need a lower level of
taxation”. Only 3.3% of the population pays tax in India, which is very low
compared to 39% in Singapore, 46% in the US, and 75% in New Zealand – even if
the number here could be doubled to 7%, it will amount to a windfall of tax
collections. With GST around the corner, the stage is set to bring in all the
unorganized sector into the tax system by increasing compliance and vigilance.

The
government seems to be all ready for the GST rollout and has already trained
three-fourth of the targeted 60,000 field officers who would be instrumental in
implementing the new GST regime. But it seems that the industry is falling
behind. It will be a herculean task to train the unorganized sector in this new
law, many of whom probably may for the very first time pay any taxes. BCAS is
gearing up to take this challenge of training the industry and soon will
rollout a schedule in this regard.

With
the tax scrutiny season and the last date of depositing demonetized currency
into the bank coming to an end, we may be witness to a slew of notices being
issued inquiring about the source of the cash deposits. Though it is within the
power of the Income Tax department to ask questions, unless and until the
officers are made accountable for unnecessary harassment and without any proper
direction, this can be a new avenue of corruption. It is high time that there
is transparency and accountability of those governing the law and respect given
to the honest tax payers.

They are listening

The
Expert Group formed to consider issues related to Audit Firms appreciated the
representation made by BCAS and were receptive. I had an occasion to personally
interact with the committee and explain the issues faced by Indian Audit Firms.
We are hopeful that the interest of the profession is taken care of and our
suggestions are considered in the right spirit.

From Published Accounts

Section B:

Disclaimer of Opinion on
account of impact on financial statements due to errors, incorrect accounting
or falsification, fictitious sales, etc.

Ricoh India Ltd. (31-3-2016)
(report dated 18th November 2016)
 

From Notes to Financial
Statements

Note 45

Background of Significant
events

(a)   The
Company in compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 appointed
BSR & Co., LLP, Chartered Accountants as the statutory auditors of the
Company on 24th September, 2015. In compliance with the provisions
of Regulation 33 of the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements)
Regulations, 2015 (“Listing Regulations”), the Company prepared its financial
results for quarter and half year ended 30th September 2015. The
statutory auditors as a part of limited review process for the above quarter
raised various suspicions with respect to certain transactions between the
company and its customers and vendors.

      On 14th
November 2015, the statutory auditors met the Audit Committee of the Company
(“Audit Committee”) and communicated their observations to the Audit Committee.
To seek to expedite the filing of the financial result with the Bombay Stock
Exchange Limited (“BSE”) in accordance with the Listing Regulations, the Audit
Committee decided to engage the services of S. S. Kothari & Mehta,
Chartered Accountants (“SSKM”) to conduct another review of the financial
statements on an agreed upon procedure basis. SSKM submitted its report to the
Audit Committee on 2nd February 2016 (“SSKM Report”). However, the
statutory auditors did not agree to the scope of the agreed upon procedures and
hence no progress was made.

       Following
the concerns raised by the statutory auditors, the Audit Committee in order to
better understand certain areas where the statutory auditors has raised
concerns decided to appoint Shardul Amarchand Mangaldas & Co., Advocates
& Solicitors (“SAM”) who in turn appointed PricewaterhouseCoopers Private Limited,
India (“PwC”) to conduct an independent investigation into the concerns raised.

        Pending
the investigation by SAM and PwC, the following key managerial personnel of the
Company were sent on paid leave by the Board on 29th March 2016: Mr.
Manoj Kumar, the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer; Mr. Arvind
Singhal, the Chief Financial Officer; and Mr. Anil Saini, the Senior Vice
President and Chief Operating Officer. Following the above, on 2 April 2016,
Mr. Manoj Kumar, the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer resigned
from the board of the directors.

       PwC
issued a “Report on Preliminary Findings’ (“Preliminary Report”) dated 20th
April 2016. From this Preliminary Report, it was apparent that the concerns
identified and the consequent falsification of the account comprised the
following areas” Out of book adjustments; Revenue recognition issues; Suspect
transactions and Personal type expenditure.

       Upon
receipt of the Preliminary Report, the Company made disclosures and filings
with various regulatory authorities including the BSE, The Securities &
Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”), Ministry of Corporate Affairs (“MCA”) and
also filed a criminal complaint with the Delhi Police to investigate into the
suspected wrongdoings.

       On 18th
May 2016, the Company published its financial results for the quarter and
half year ended 30th September 2015. In the disclosures accompanying
the financial results, the Board of Directors stated that the financial results
did not represent a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the Company
and the reasons therefor. The statutory auditors did not provide an opinion in
their limited review report.

       The
Company, with the support of the Audit Committee and the Board of Directors,
continued to address the concerns raised in the financial statements for the
quarter and half year ended 30th September 2015. It was recognised
that the Company was falling further behind the filings. With the quarter ended
30th September 2015 accounts only being finalised for filing in May
2016, and with the inability of the Board of Directors to approve these
accounts without significant caveats and concerns, they realised the need for a
change in process. Moreover, given the passage of time and the potential losses
in the accounts it was concluded that there was an urgent need to obtain up to
date reliable financial statements which would be of value to all stakeholders.

        It
was recognised that many of the matters identified in the Preliminary Report
could best be addressed by a team with Ricoh specific knowledge, engaging PwC
where appropriate, so that efficiency and effectiveness was achieved. It was
therefore concluded that an internal investigation (staffed and led
independently of Ricoh India Limited) could be used to complete certain of the
activities.

       The
Company also realised that having already filed a complaint with the Delhi
Police against the suspected wrongdoers (whether known or unknown) who were
already investigating the matter, the investigation with regard to the
individual culpability of the alleged wrongdoers should be best left to
regulatory authorities and the Company should focus on restoration of the
economic value of the shareholders and producing reliable financial results.

    Accordingly,
in early June 2016 a team comprising various Ricoh group representatives, all
of whom were independent of Ricoh India Limited, was established to continue the investigations alongside PwC.

      On 19th
July 2016 the internal investigation team and the Company presented the
estimated unaudited loss for the year ended 31st March 2016 of
Rs.112,300 lakh to the Audit Committee. This estimated result was approved and
filed with BSE.

       On 19th
July 2016, the Promoter Ricoh Company, Limited filed a petition with the
Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”) seeking various reliefs but in
particular the re-capitalisation of the Company.

       On 24th
August 2016 the NCLT issued an Order granting the cancellation of the
shares of either Ricoh Company Limited, or the Co-Promoter NRG Group Limited,
and the preferential issue of the same number of shares for an amount
equivalent to the estimated unaudited loss announced on 19th July
2016 i.e. Rs.112,300 lakh.

        On 14th
October 2016, an Extraordinary General Meeting was held that approved the
re-capitalisation by way of cancellation of the shares of NRG Group Limited,
and preferential issue of the same number of shares to NRG Group Limited. On 15th
October 2016 the board approved the cancellation, issue and allotment for the
consideration of Rs.112,300 lakh.

       On 17th
November 2016 PwC presented their final report (“the PwC Report”) and the
independent team presented their findings to the Audit Committee. The PwC
Report will be shared with the relevant regulatory authorities including the
NCLT, BSE, SEBI, MCA and the Delhi Police Economic Offences Wing.

       On 18th
November 2016, the result along with the auditor’s report for the quarter ended
31st December 2015 and the quarter and year ended 31st
March 2016 were presented to the Audit Committee. These were subsequently
approved by the board and filed with BSE.

(b)   As a
result of the investigations and the matters identified the Company concluded
that it was impractical, because of limitations in the available documentation,
because of the inability to conclude on the nature of certain transactions and
because of time and cost, to seek approval to restate all financial periods
during which the falsification of accounts had taken place.

        Hence,
the Company has reported the final loss for the quarter and year ended 31st
March 2016 and separately identified, where possible, the loss relating
to previous periods. Given the nature of the falsification of accounts it is
not possible to fully allocate the falsifications or errors since to do so would
require significant assumptions that would be subjective.

        As a
result of the PwC Report and the internal investigation team analysis, it is
clear that some of the loss for the year ended 31st March 2016
relates to previous years. Accordingly, in the results for the quarter and year
ended 31st March 2016 and as detailed in the analysis at note (f)
below reference is made to items where it is clear that the previous year was
impacted. Given that it is not possible to fully allocate the falsifications or
errors due to subjectivity it is possible that further losses may be
attributable to the previous year.

(c)    The
auditors have disclaimed from an opinion on the profit and loss account for the
year ended 31st March 2016. Therefore, within these financial
statements the directors have sought to explain the falsifications identified
and the periods to which they relate. Such analysis is unaudited but in the
opinion of the Directors is critical to an understanding of the matters
included in these financial statements.

(d)    The
auditors have disclaimed from an opinion on the balance sheet at 31st March
2016. The Company has sought to satisfy the auditors that the balance sheet
represents a true and fair view but has been unable to do so. The Directors
will file the appropriate statement with BSE stating there is no difference
between the results reported and the results with the impact of the disclaimer
of opinion.

(e)  On the
basis of the matters detailed in point (d) above, and based on the
investigations carried out by PwC and the independent investigation team, and
based on the information available to the directors, the directors believe that
the balance sheet statement as at 31st March 2016 materially
represents a true and fair view and will form the basis for future reporting.

       The
loss for the year ended 31st March 2016 and the impact of
falsification of accounts

(f)    The
loss for the year ended 31st March 2016 can be analysed as follows:

 

NotNote

(Amount in Rs. lakhs)

One off adjustments that related to the year ended 31st  March 2015 and prior

A

(17,400)

Cumulative value of one off adjustments that relate to the year
ended 31st  March 2016 and
have been included in the results for the year ended 31 March 2016

B

(31,300)

Cumulative value of one off adjustments that cannot be allocated
by year and hence are included in the year ended 31st  March 2016

C

(19,600)

Loss for the year ended 31st  March 2016 before one off adjustments

 

(43,500)

Total loss for the year

 

(111,800)

Notes:

(A) One off
adjustments that relate to the year ended 31st March 2015 and prior
are accounting errors/falsifications that can be attributed to those periods.
These included two main categories: (i) incorrect revenue recognition and
profit recognition on contracts; and (ii) unsupported adjustments that have
been made to inflate profits.

(B) One off
adjustments that specifically relate to the year ended 31st March
2016 are errors and accounting falsifications that relate to that financial
year. These include unsupported adjustments that have been made to inflate
profits and also provisioning for doubtful debt which can be attributable to
the financial year.

(C) One off
adjustments that cannot be allocated by period are accounting
errors/falsifications that due to their nature cannot be retrospectively
analysed by period. Whilst it is possible that some element of these relate to
previous periods any allocation would be subjective. These include categories
such as: (i) inventory where the Company has had to make significant
corrections and provisions. Whilst it is possible that similar issues existed
at 31st March 2015, and the ensuing quarter ends, without having
access to detailed inventory verification and records at each of those dates it
is not possible to determine what errors, if any, existed at those date and
hence in which period the inventory errors arose; and (ii) reconciliation and
accounting adjustments where again without being able to recreate all of the
reconciliations and reliable accounting data at each balance sheet date it is
not possible to determine in which period such errors arose.

(g)    Items
included as one off adjustments in the year ended 31st March 2016
comprise: 

(Amount in Rs. lakhs)

 

Year ended 31st March 2016

 

Revenue

Loss

Apparently fictitious sales that inflate revenues

   Reported within other income net of costs

(68,300)

Bad debts that relate to fictitious sales where the Company is
pursuing legal recovery

(17,600)

Other doubtful debts

(6,100)

Unsupported adjustments that have inflated
profits

(26,800)

Inappropriate revenue recognition and
profit recognition

(14,500)

3,100

Balance sheet items for which inadequate
accounting or controls or falsifications has resulted in irrecoverable
balance
s

(11,800)

Inventory provisions and adjustments

(7,300)

Other

(1,800)

One off adjustments included in the year
ended 31st March 2016

(Note (f)A (f)B and (f)C above)

(82,800)

(68,300)

(h)    As indicated, these one off adjustments
and/or accounting falsifications have had a significant impact on the Company.
Given the significance of these matters the Company will work with the relevant
authorities to take action against those responsible. At this time, all such
matters are subject to legal process and consequently it is inappropriate for
the Company to comment and potentially prejudice such action.

From Auditors’ Report

4.    Basis
for Disclaimer of Opinion

A.   Scope of
investigation and impact on opening balances

       Attention
is invited to Note 45 of the standalone financial statements which describes in
a general and overall manner the irregularities and suspected fraudulent transactions
noted during the year. In view thereof, the Company appointed an external firm
along with an internal team (comprising representatives of other Ricoh
companies) to carry out the investigation. Reports of the aforesaid
investigations have been made available for our sighting (on a non-copy basis).

     As a
result of the external and the internal investigation, the Company has recorded
significant adjustments in the current year financial statements as referred to
in Note 45. These relate to recognition of adjustments/transactions which had
remained out of books in earlier periods, disclosure of bank borrowings/bills
discounted, reversal of circular sale and purchase transactions with certain
parties with minimal value addition considered fictitious by the management,
correction of inventory values and provisions of receivable balances considered
doubtful of recovery.

       Investigations
mentioned above have concluded that revenue and cost have been overstated by
Rs.130,476 lakh (including Rs.65,495 lakh pertaining to the current year) and
by Rs.110,544 lakh (including Rs.58,983 lakh pertaining to the current year)
respectively from the inception of business with identified suspected parties.
The difference between revenues and costs of the current year has been
presented on a net basis as a part of other income of current year. Further,
uncollected account receivable balances amounting to Rs.17,542 lakh pertaining
to these parties have been considered doubtful of recovery and provided for as
on 31st March 2016. Attention is also invited to Note 45 which
summarise the overall impact of findings/adjustments as a result of
investigations.

       Based
on our initial findings, our reading of the Report on preliminary findings
dated 20th April 2016 of the external investigation team and
communications sent by the Company to various regulatory authorities, we have a
reason to believe that suspected offence involving a violation of applicable
law, which may tantamount to fraud, may have been committed. Accordingly, we
made the necessary reporting to Central Government of suspected offence
involving fraud being committed or having been committed as required by Rule
13(1)(ii) of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 [as amended by the
Companies (Audit and Auditors) Amendment Rules, 2015] on 30th June
2016.

      The
Company has also requested Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to
consider conducting an investigation to ascertain if the incorrect standalone
financial statements had any impact on the securities market and the investors,
particularly under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Prohibition of
Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 and the Securities and Exchange Board of
India (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to the Securities
Market) Regulations, 2003.

In view of the limitations
pertaining to investigations elaborated in Note 45 of the financial statements
read with our comments mentioned below in para 4.B to 7, we are unable to
comment on the appropriateness of amounts pertaining to each period,
consequential impact thereof on the opening balances as at 1st April
2015, the persons involved and the amount of fraud/misappropriation, and
consequential impact on these standalone financial statements and
appropriateness of related disclosures.

B.   Non-availability
of information/ documentation/ satisfactory explanations/ justification

B.1  For most
of the documents, originals were not available and hence we had to carry out
our audit procedures on photo copies of those documents, to the extent made
available to us.

B.2  In
relation to Statement of Profit and Loss, we were not able to complete our
audit procedures due to non-availability of required information/documentation/
satisfactory explanations. This includes non-availability of audit evidence to
support certain sale and purchase transactions such as carriers’ receipts,
goods received notes, proof of delivery, customer acknowledgment, effective
cut-off and sales return procedures; and non-availability of significant
information pertaining to other income, employee benefit expenses, other
expenses, related disclosers in notes to accounts etc.

       Further,
in respect of revenue contracts due to non-availability of complete
documentations / sufficient information, the management has accounted for such
contracts on the basis of significant assumptions Accordingly, in view of
aforementioned limitations, we are unable to comment on appropriate accounting
of revenue recognised for these contracts, completeness of provision towards
onerous contracts, evaluation of potential impact of the irregularities and
suspected fraudulent transactions of such contracts.

B.3  In
respect of inventories:

i)   the
Company has not maintained proper records including reconciliation of goods
purchased/sold in terms of quantity and value. Further, the reasons for
material discrepancies noted during the physical verification have not been
investigated.

ii)  confirmation
for inventories lying with third parties and documentation for movement of
goods from one location to another currently valued at Rs.4,761 lakh was not
available;

iii)  Net
Realizable value (NRV) analysis in respect of goods valued at Rs.8,608 lakh has
not been provided.

     Therefore,
we are unable to comment on possible adjustment of these, if any, to the
carrying value of inventories.

B.4  In
respect of receivables for machines given on lease, we were not able to
complete our procedures due to non-availability of complete
documentation/details e.g. absence of lease contracts/details and reconciliation
of amount collected till 31st March 2016 / amount due as at year-end
and analysis of nature of lease such as operating lease vs finance lease etc.
Further, basis checking of limited number of samples made available to us, we
have observed inaccuracies/ inconsistencies in details used for computation of
lease receivable as at year end such as fair value of lease, lease terms,
computation of interest rate implicit in the lease etc.

       In
view of abovementioned observations, we are unable to comment on the carrying
value of lease receivables balances sand appropriateness of lease income
recognised for the year.

B.5  During
the current year, the Company has performed physical verification of certain
fixed assets. As per the physical verification report provided to us, fixed
assets of gross value of Rs.2,661 lakh against total gross value of Rs.13,914
lakh have been physically verified. Further, basis this physical verification
report, the Company has written off assets having carrying value of Rs.700 lakh
(Gross value Rs.2,988 lakh) to the Statement of profit and loss. Similarly,
assets physically found and not appearing in FAR, have been recorded at zero
value in the fixed assets register. In the absence of complete reconciliation
of assets physically verified with fixed assets register, we are unable to
comment on appropriateness of amounts written off and carrying value of assets
recorded at zero value. Further, as the management has not performed a complete
physical verification of all fixed assets, we are unable to comment on the
existence of such assets and consequential adjustments, if any, and the impact
thereof on the carrying value of such fixed assets.

B.6  We were
not able to complete our balance confirmation procedures in relation to
customers and vendors due to incomplete / incorrect addresses resulting in
non-delivery for balance confirmation letters for certain selected parties,
non-receipt of responses from most of the parties and unreconciled/unexplained
differences for confirmations received. In view of these read along with our
comments mentioned in para B.2 above and considering that the Company does not
have process in place to perform periodical reconciliation of balance with
customers and vendors, we are unable to comment on recoverability of account
receivable balances and advance given to suppliers and completeness of account
payable balances.

B.7  In
respect of following account balances, we were not able to complete our audit
procedures due to non-availability of information/ documentation/ satisfactory
explanations:

Account balance

NoIncluded under

Amount in

Rs. lakhs

Dealer Deposits

Other long-term liabilities

339

Provision for sales commission

Short term
provisions

546

Provision for dealer
commission

Short term
provisions

730

Security Deposits

Long term loans and advances

6,897

Accrued revenue

Other current assets

1,385

Deposit/balance with Excise and Sales tax authorities

Short-term loans and advances

2,510

Advance tax (Net of Provision for income tax)

Long term Loans and Advances

776

      In
view of above, we are unable to comment on appropriateness of these balances.

B.8 The
Company has not made the following disclosures required by the Schedule III of
the Companies Act, 2013 and those required by the applicable accounting
standards:

i)   Warranty
expense, provision for warranty and related disclosure

ii)  Components
of Deferred tax

iii)  Consumption
of stores and spares

iv) Specific
disclosures required by AS-7 Construction contracts

v)  Complete
disclosure for Operating leases

     In
view of our observations in paras A to B.8 above, we are unable to determine
the adjustments, if any, that are necessary in respect of the Company’s assets,
liabilities as on balance sheet date, income and expenses for the year, the
elements making up the Cash Flow Statement and disclosures in the notes to
accounts.

5.    Disclaimer
of Opinion

        Because
of the significance of the matter described in the Basis of Disclaimer of
Opinion paragraph, we have not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit
evidence to provide a basis for an audit opinion. Accordingly, we do not
express an opinion on the standalone financial statements.

7.    Report
on Other Legal and Regulatory Requirements

(ii)    As
required by section 143(3) of the Act, we report that:
 

a.  as
described in the Basis for Disclaimer of Opinion paragraph, we were unable to
obtain all the information and explanations which to the best of our knowledge
and belief were necessary for the purpose of our audit;
 

b.  due to
the possible effects of the matters described in the Basis for Disclaimer of
Opinion paragraph, we are unable to state whether proper books of account as
required by law have been kept by the Company so far as appears from our
examination of those books;
 

c.  the
Balance Sheet, the Statement of Profit and Loss and the Cash Flow Statement
dealt with by this Report are in agreement with the books of account as
maintained;

d.  due to
the possible effects of the related matters described in the Basis for
Disclaimer of Opinion paragraph, we are unable to state whether the Balance
Sheet, Statement of Profit and Loss and Cash Flow Statement comply with the
Accounting Standards specified u/s. 133 of the Act, read with Rule 7 of the
Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014;

e.  on the
basis of written representations received from the directors as on 31st
March 2016, and taken on record by the Board of Directors, none of the
directors is disqualified as on 31st March 2016 from being appointed
as a director in terms of section 164(2) of the Act. However, as informed to
us, the aforementioned representation has not been received from the
ex-Managing Director of the Company. 
Accordingly, we are unable to comment as to whether such director is
disqualified as on 31st March 2016 from being appointed as a director
in terms of section 164(2) of the Act; and

f.   with
respect to the adequacy of the internal financial controls over financial
reporting of the Company and the operating effectiveness of such controls,
refer to our separate report in “Annexure B”, and

g.  with
respect to the other matters to be included in the Auditor’s Report in
accordance with Rule 11 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014, in
our opinion and to the best of our information and according to the
explanations given to us:

i)   In view
of the related matters described in para 4 Basis for Disclaimer of Opinion, we
are unable to state whether Note 28 to the standalone financial statements
discloses the complete impact of pending litigations on the financial position
in the standalone financial statements of the Company;

ii)  In view
of the related matters described in para 4 Basis for Disclaimer of Opinion, we
are unable to state whether the Company has made provision, as required under
the applicable law or accounting standards, for material foreseeable losses, if
any, on long-term contracts including derivative contracts;

iii)  There
has been no delay in transferring amounts, required to be transferred, to the
investor education and protection fund by the Company.

From Directors’ Report

Disclosures

(iv)  DETAILS
IN RESPECT OF FRAUD REPORTED BY THE AUDITORS U/S. 143(12) OF THE COMPANIES ACT
2013 OTHER THAN THOSE REPORTABLE TO CENTRAL GOVERNMENT

      On 5th
May 2016, BSR & Co. LLP, Chartered Accountants, the statutory auditors of
the Company reported to the Audit Committee u/s. 143(12) of the Companies Act,
2013. This report of the statutory auditors was made on the basis of the review
of BSR & Co. LLP of the report of preliminary findings by
PricewaterhouseCoopers Private Limited, India (PwC) dated 20th April
2016. The Audit Committee responded to BSR & Co. LLP on 15th
June 2016 confirming their understanding that the concerns raised were in
accordance with the issues identified in the PwC report of preliminary
findings.

       Following
the conclusion of the Company investigations (as fully detailed in Note 45) of
the financial statements, the Company has filed its financial statements for
the year ended 31st March 2016. Set out in Note 45(f) and 45(g) of
the financial statements are details of the one-off adjustments that the
Company has identified as being attributable to accounting errors and or
falsifications.

    Given
the significance of the one-off adjustments and/or accounting falsifications
the Company will work with the relevant authorities to take action against
those responsible. At the date of this Report all the matters are subject to
legal process and consequently it is inappropriate for the Company to comment
and potentially prejudice such action.

(vii) EXPLANATIONS
OR COMMENTS BY THE BOARD ON EVERY QUALIFICATION, RESERVATION OR ADVERSE REMARK
OR DISCLAIMER MADE BY THE STATUTORY AUDITOR IN HIS REPORT AND BY THE COMPANY
SECRETARY IN PRACTICE IN HIS SECRETARIAL AUDIT REPORT

       As
included in pages 74 to 82 the statutory auditors have issued a disclaimer of
opinion on the financial statements for the year ended 31st March
2016 on the basis that they have not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate
audit evidence.

     The
Directors have filed on 18th November 2016 with BSE Limited a statement
of impact of audit qualification. In this statement management, have confirmed
that they believe that there is no impact and that, based on their analysis and
assumptions, the balance sheet at 31st March 2016 is materially
correct.

       The
Directors acknowledge that the circumstances for the statutory auditors are
challenging, in particular as a result of the falsification of accounts during
the year ended 31st March 2016. The Directors would draw the
followings points to your attention:

a)    Whilst
the auditors have had to rely in part on photocopies the directors have no
reason to believe that such copies are not a true reflection of originals. The
Company has instituted improved document retention strategies, and in line with
the core business offering of the Company, will increasingly move to scan and
or copy documents to minimise the cost and impact of document management.

b)    Whilst
the auditors have raised documentation concerns on the profit and loss
statement, the approach taken by the Company has been to ensure that the
balance sheet at 31st March 2016 is materially correct. As a result
the profit and loss account is the cumulative difference between the audited
balance sheet at 31st March 2015 and the balance sheet at 31st March
2016. The Directors concluded that this was the most reliable way of moving
their investigations forward and would allow the Company to produce reliable
profit and loss statements going forward. It would also enable to scale of
losses and actions required to be identified as quickly as possible.

c)    The
Directors acknowledge that their accounting for major contracts is based on
their discussions with the contracted parties and assumptions regarding the
outcome of such contracts. This is normal business practice. The Directors are
aware of the need to improve the contractual documentation and are working to
ensure that this is addressed.

d)    The
Directors have valued inventories in accordance with physical stocktakes rolled
back to 31st March 2016. It is the Directors view that the overall
level of inventory provisioning is adequate.

e)    For
finance lease contracts the Directors acknowledge the need to improve document
retention (see above) and are working on this. Based on the calculations
performed the Directors are of the view that the material balances contain
within finance lease contracts are adequately confirmed and accounted for.

f)    The
Directors have corrected the fixed assets register. In the period, we have not
carried out a 100% verification but have confirmed the existence of material
assets.

g)    In
respect of Debtors, Creditors and various account balances, the Directors
recognise that the auditors have not received all of their confirmations.
However, based on the management analysis and documentation, the Directors are
of the view that such balances are materially correctly stated.

h)    The
Company have invested significant time in confirming the balance sheet at 31st
March 2016. In the period from 19th July 2016 when the
estimated unaudited loss for the year ended 31st March 2016 was
announced as Rs.1,123 crore to the date of the financial statements on 18th
November 2016, significant reconciliation and verification was undertaken. The
impact was a reduction in the reported loss of Rs.5 crore i.e. the reported
loss for the year ended 31st March 2016 was Rs.1,118 crore.

       The
Directors are of the view that the Balance Sheet as at 31st March
2016, is materially true and fair and forms the basis for future reporting.

      The
Directors will ensure that the accounting policies are followed consistently
such that the results reported, regardless of the audit disclaimer, will going
forward be a reflection of the Company’s operating performance.

      The statutory auditors have also raised
matters in their report on Internal Financial Controls. These are summarised
with our comments as follows:

a)    Deficiencies
in maintenance of books of accounts and documentation including
non-availability of original documents, recording of unsupported and back dated
transactions, out of books adjustments entries etc.

      These
issued primarily related to the falsification of accounts. Specific controls
have been put in place to ensure backdating is no longer possible and that out
of book entries (journals) are minimised and, if necessary, are fully
validated, properly documented and approved. The Company is also improving its
documentation management and retention processes. Significant progress has been
made in this regard though inevitably gaps for prior periods will take time to
close.

b)    Recording
of circular sales and purchase transactions considered fictitious by the
Management, non-maintenance of appropriate inventory records including
quantitative reconciliation of goods purchased and sold and physical
verification of inventory at regular interval.

       This
issue primarily relates to the falsification. Controls are now in place to
ensure the independence of sales, finance and account administration.  Inventory controls have also been enhanced
and regular verification processes implemented.

c)    Non-maintenance
of complete records and documentation for machines given on lease at
transaction level and fixed asset records.

The majority of the Company’s sales are on lease
transactions. All major leases have been validated. The Company is continuing
to gather the records for all historic transactions.  This is linked closely to the document
retention and management improvements referred to above.

Glimpses of Supreme Court Rulings

7.  Capital gains –
Exemption u/s. 54E is available to the depreciable assets which is a long term
capital asset and cannot be denied by referring to the fiction created u/s.50.

CIT vs. V.S. Dempo Company Ltd. (2016) 387 ITR 354 (SC)

In the return filed by the assessee for the Assessment Year
1989-90, the assessee had disclosed that it had sold its loading platform M.V.
Priyadarshni for a sum of Rs.1,37,25,000/- on which it had earned some capital
gains. On the said capital gains the assessee had also claimed that it was
entitled for exemption u/s. 54E of the Income Tax Act. The asset was purchased
in the year 1972 and sold sometime in the year 1989. Thus, the asset was almost
17 years old. Going by the definition of long term capital asset contained in
section 2(29B), it was admittedly a long-term capital asset. The Assessing
Officer however rejected the claim for exemption u/s. 54E on the ground that
the assessee had claimed depreciation on this asset and, therefore, provisions
of section 50 were applicable. Though this was upheld by the Commissioner of
Income Tax (Appeals), the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal allowed the appeal of
the assessee herein holding that the assessee was entitled for exemption under
Section 54E of the Act. The High Court dismissed the appeal of the Revenue.
While doing so the High Court relied upon its own judgment in the case of CIT
vs. ACE Builders Pvt. Ltd. [(2006) 281 ITR 210 [Bom]
. The High Court
observed that section 50 of the Act which is a special provision for computing
the capital gains in the case of depreciable assets was not only restricted for
the purposes of section 48 or section 49 of the Act as specifically stated
therein, the said fiction created in sub-section (1) & (2) of section 50
had limited application only in the context of mode of computation of capital
gains contained in sections 48 and 49 and would have nothing to do with the
exemption that is provided in a totally different provision i.e. section 54E.
Section 48 deals with the mode of computation and section 49 relate to cost
with reference to certain mode of acquisition. This aspect was analysed by the
judgment of the Bombay High Court in the case of CIT vs. ACE Builders Pvt.
Ltd. (supra)
in the following manner:

In our opinion, the assessee cannot be denied exemption
u/s. 54E, because, firstly, there is nothing in section 50 to suggest that the
fiction created in section 50 is not only restricted to sections 48 and 49 but
also applies to other provisions. On the contrary, section 50 makes it
explicitly clear that the deemed fiction created in sub-section (1) & (2)
of section 50 is restricted only to the mode of computation of capital gains
contained in Section 48 and 49. Secondly, it is well established in law that a
fiction created by the legislature has to be confined to the purpose for which
it is created. In this connection, we may refer to the decision of the Apex
Court in the case of State Bank of India vs. D. Hanumantha Rao reported in 1998
(6) SCC 183. In that case, the Service Rules framed by the bank provided for
granting extension of service to those appointed prior to 19.07.1969.

The respondent therein who had joined the bank on 1.7.1972
claimed extension of service because he was deemed to be appointed in the bank
with effect from 26.10.1965 for the purpose of seniority, pay and pension on
account of his past service in the army as Short Service Commissioned Officer.
In that context, the Apex Court has held that the legal fiction created for the
limited purpose of seniority, pay and pension cannot be extended for other
purposes. Applying the ratio of the said judgment, we are of the opinion, that
the fiction created u/s. 50 is confined to the computation of capital gains
only and cannot be extended beyond that.

Thirdly, Section 54E does not make any distinction between
depreciable asset and non-depreciable asset and, therefore, the exemption
available to the depreciable asset u/s. 54E cannot be denied by referring to
the fiction created u/s. 50. Section 54E specifically provides that where
capital gain arising on transfer of a long term capital asset is invested or
deposited (whole or any part of the net consideration) in the specified assets,
the assessee shall not be charged to capital gains. Therefore, the exemption
u/s. 54E of the I.T. Act cannot be denied to the assessee on account of the
fiction created in Section 50.”

The Supreme Court held that it was in agreement with the
aforesaid view taken by the High Court.

The Supreme Court noted that the Gujarat High Court as well
as Guahati High Court had also taken the same view in the following cases:

1.  CIT 
vs. Polestar Industries [(2014) 221 Taxman 423 (Guj)];

2.  CIT vs. Tax vs. Assam Petroleum Industries
(P.) Ltd. [(2003) 262 ITR 587 (Guj.)].

The Supreme Court also noted that against the aforesaid
judgments no appeal had been filed.

In view of the foregoing, the Supreme Court did not find any
merit in the instant appeal which was accordingly, dismissed.

8. Business Expenditure – Amortisation of expenditure for
issue of share u/s. 35D – Amortisation allowable over a period of 10 years –
Where benefit is allowed for the first two assessment years, it cannot be denied
in the subsequent balance period.

Shasun Chemicals and Drugs Ltd. V. CIT (2016) 388 ITR 1
(SC)
 

Business Expenditure – Bonus – Dispute with workmen – Payment
made to Trust to comply with the requirement of section 43B but the dispute was
settled and the payment was made before the expiry of time permissible u/s. 36
– Deduction was allowable and the provisions of section 40A(9) were not
attracted.

The assessee went in for public issue of shares in order to
raise funds to meet the capital expenditure and other expenditure relating to
expansion of its existing units of production both at Pondicherry and Cuddalore
and for expansion of its Research and Development Activity. The assessee issued
to public 15,10,000 equity shares of Rs.10/- each for cash at a premium of
Rs.30/- per share aggregating to Rs.6,04,00,000/-.

The aforesaid issue was opened for public subscription during
the financial year ending 31.03.1995 relevant to the Assessment Year 1995-96.
The assessee had, in the prospectus issued, clearly stated under the column
projects that the production capacity of its existing products, more
particularly Ibuprofen and Ranitidine was proposed to be increased.

The assessee incurred a sum of Rs.45,51,890/- towards the
aforesaid share issue expenses and claimed 1/10th of the aforesaid share issue
expenses each year u/s. 35D of the Act from the Assessment Years 1995-96 to
2004-05. The Assessing Officer on the same set of facts allowed the claim of
the assessee (1/10th of the share issue expenses u/s. 35D of the Act) for the
initial Assessment Year being the Assessment Year 1995-96 after examining the
materials produced. However, the Assessing Officer disallowed the expenses for
the Assessment Year 1996-97 on the ground that the share issue expenses were
not eligible for deduction in view of the decision of the Supreme Court in the
case of Brooke Bond India Ltd. vs. CIT [(1997) 225 ITR 798 (SC)],
stating that the expenditure incurred was capital in nature and hence not
allowable for computing the business profits.

Aggrieved against the aforesaid disallowance made by the
Assessing Officer for the Assessment Year 1996-97, the assessee filed an appeal
before the Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals), [hereinafter referred to as
CIT(A)] who vide his order directed the Assessing Officer to verify
physically the factory premises of the assessee and find out, whether there
were any additions to the plant and machinery at the factory and whether there
were any additions to the buildings at the factory whereby any expansion has
been made to the existing industrial undertaking to justify the claim made by
the assessee.

In furtherance to the aforesaid direction, the Assessing
Officer after making due physical verification of the factory premises and on
being satisfied with the expansion of the facilities to the industrial
undertaking duly allowed the claim of share issue expenses. While doing so, the
Assessing Officer, for the assessment year 1996-97, passed a detailed and
elaborate order after scrutinising all the materials made available to him and
recorded a positive finding of fact that there was an expansion to the existing
units of the industrial undertaking and after being satisfied of the same duly
allowed the claim of share issue expenses u/s. 35D.

In the return by the assessee for the assessment year
2001-02, it was mentioned by the assessee that it had paid bonus to its
employees to the tune of Rs.96,08,002/- in the said Financial Year and,
therefore, it claimed deduction. However, invoking the provisions of section
40A(9), the said expenditure was disallowed on the ground that it was not paid
in cash to the concerned employees. CIT(A) allowed the expenditure and the same
view was taken by the ITAT but the High Court has reversed the view of ITAT on
this ground also.

In the aforesaid backdrop, two questions were raised before
the Supreme Court by the assessee.

As regards to the issue amortisation u/s. 35D of the
expenditure incurred on issue of shares, the Supreme Court noted that in the
Income Tax Return which was filed for the Assessment Year 1995-96, the assessee
had claimed that it had incurred a sum of Rs.45,51,890/- towards the share
issue expenses and had claimed 1/10th of the aforesaid share issue expenses
u/s. 35D of the Act from the Assessment Year 1995-96. This claim of the
assessee was found to be justified and allowable under the aforesaid provisions
and on that basis 1/10th share issue expenses was allowed u/s. 35D of the Act.
When it was again claimed for the Assessment Year 1996-97, though it was
disallowed and on directions of the Appellate Authority, the Assessing Officer
made physical verification of the factory premises. He was satisfied that there
was expansion of the facilities to the industrial undertaking of the assessee.
It was on this satisfaction that for the Assessment Year 1996-97 also the
expenses were allowed. The Supreme Court held that once this position is
accepted and the clock had started running in favour of the assessee, it had to
complete the entire period of 10 years and benefit granted in first two years
could not have been denied in the subsequent years as the block period was 10
years starting from the Assessment Year 1995-96 to Assessment Year 2004-05. The
Supreme Court observed that the High Court, however, disallowed the same
following the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Brooke Bond India
Ltd (supra)
. In the said case it was held that the expenditure incurred on
public issue for the purpose of expansion of the company is a capital
expenditure. However, in spite of the argument raised to the effect that the
aforesaid judgment was rendered when section 35D was not on the statute book
and this provision had altered the legal position, the High Court still chose
to follow the said judgment. According to the Supreme Court it was here where
the High Court went wrong as the instant case was to be decided keeping in view
the provisions of section 35D. The Supreme Court held that in any case, it
warrants repetition that in the instant case under the very same provisions
benefit was allowed for the first two Assessment Years and, therefore, it could
not have been denied in the subsequent block period. The Supreme Court thus,
answered the question in favour of the assessee holding that the assessee was
entitled to the benefit of section 35D for the Assessments Years in question.

So far as the other question regarding deduction on account
of payment of bonus to the employees of the assessee was concerned, the Supreme
Court noted that in the Assessment Years in question the workers of the
assessee had raised a dispute of quantum of bonus which had led to the labour
unrest as well. Because of this the workers had finally refused to accept the
bonus offered to them. Faced with this situation, the assessee had made the
payment to the Trust to comply with the requirement of section 43B, as the said
provision makes it clear that deduction in respect of bonus would be allowed
only if actual payment was made. Pertinently, the dispute could be settled with
the workers well in time and for that reason payment of bonus was made to the
workers on the very next day of deposit of the said amount in the Trust by the
assessee. This happened before the expiry of due date by which such payment was
supposed to be made in order to claim deduction u/s. 36 of the Act. However,
since the payment was made from the Trust, the Assessing Officer took the view
that as the payment was not made by the assessee to the employees directly in
cash, it was not allowable in view of the provisions of section 40A(9). Though
this view was not accepted by the CIT(A) as well as ITAT, the High Court had
found justification in the stand taken by the Assessing Officer. According to
the Supreme Court, here also the High Court had gone wrong in relying upon the
provisions of section 40A(9) of the Act.

The provisions of section 36 which enumerate various kinds of
expenses which are allowable as deduction while computing the business income
u/s. 28. The amount paid by way of bonus is one such expenditure which is
allowable under clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 36. According to the
Supreme Court there was no dispute that this amount was paid by the assessee to
its employees within the stipulated time. Embargo specified u/s. 43B or
40A(9)  did not come in the way of the
assessee. Therefore, the High Court was wrong in disallowing this expenditure
as deduction while computing the business income of the assessee and the
decision of the ITAT was correct.

On both counts, the order of the High Court was set aside by
the Supreme Court and the appeals were allowed.

Note: In the above case, in the context of the second
issue relating to deductibility of bonus payment, some of the observations of
the apex court relating to sections 40A(9) and 43B lack clarity and do not seem
to be in line with the provisions and hence, they are ignored.

9  Appeal to the High
Court – High Court must frame the substantial question(s) of law arising in the
appeal before answering the same.

Jai Hind Cycle Company Ltd. vs. CIT (2016) 388 ITR 482
(SC)

The only point canvassed at the hearing before the Supreme
Court was that the income tax appeal u/s. 260A 
had been decided by the High Court without framing any substantial
question of law. This, according to the Appellant was impermissible on the
basis of several decisions of the Supreme Court including the one in M.
Janardhana Rao vs. Joint CIT
reported in [(2005) 273 ITR 50 (SC)].

The Supreme Court after perusing the said order of the Court,
was of the view that the High Court ought to have framed the substantial
question(s) of law arising in the appeal before answering the same. The High
Court having not done that, the Supreme Court set aside the order passed by the
High Court and remanded the matter to the High Court for a de novo
consideration after formulating the substantial question(s) of law arising, if
any.

The Supreme Court clarified that it had
expressed no opinion on the merits of the case.

RBI /FEMA

Given below are the highlights
of certain RBI Circulars & Notifications

85. FED Master Direction No. 9/2015-16 dated January 1, 2016

Master Direction – Insurance

This Notification contains the
updated Master Direction 9 on Insurance. The Master Directions have been
updated up to November 17, 2016 and are Annexed to this Notification. The
Master Direction prescribes the manner in which insurance business, in foreign
exchange, has to be conducted and deals with the following topics: –

1.  Introduction.

2.  Foreign Exchange Regulations
relating to General / Health / Life Insurance from Insurers outside India.

3.  Foreign Exchange Regulations
relating to General/ Health Insurance from insurers in India.

4.  Foreign Exchange Regulations
relating to Life Insurance from insurers in India.

86. Corrigendum dated November 25, 2016

Notification No. FEMA.362/2016-RB dated February 15, 2016

This corrigendum replaces
paragraph 2(C) (iv), S. No. 9.3 and 9.3.1 of Notification No. FEMA.362/2016-RB
dated February 15, 2016 as under: –

9.3

Air Transport Services

 

 

 

(1)   (a) Scheduled Air Transport Service /   Domestic Scheduled Passenger Airline

      (b) Regional Air Transport Service

 

49%

(100% for NRIs)

Automatic

 

(2) Non-Scheduled Air
Transport Service

100%

Automatic

 

(3) Helicopter services/
seaplane services requiring DGCA approval

100%

Automatic

9.3.1

Other Conditions

 

 

 

(a) Air Transport Services would include Domestic Scheduled
Passenger Airlines; Non-Scheduled Air Transport Services, helicopter and
seaplane services.

(b) Foreign airlines are allowed to participate in the equity of
companies operating Cargo airlines, helicopter and seaplane services, as per
he limits and entry routes mentioned above.

 

 

 

9.3.1

Other Conditions

 

 

 

(c) Foreign airlines are also allowed to invest in the capital
of Indian companies, operating scheduled and non-scheduled air transport
services, up to the limit of 49% of their paid-up capital. Such investment
would be subject to the following conditions:

(i)    It would be made under the Government approval route.

(ii)   The 49% limit will subsume FDI and FII/FPI investment.

(iii)  The investments so made would need to
comply with the relevant regulations of SEBI, such as the Issue of Capital
and Disclosure Requirements (ICDR) Regulations/ Substantial Acquisition of
Shares and Takeovers (SAST) Regulations, as well as other applicable rules
and regulations.

(iv)   A Scheduled Operator’s Permit can be
granted only to a company:

      a) that is registered and has its
principal place of business within India;

      b) the Chairman and at least two-thirds
of the Directors of which are citizens of India; and

        c) the substantial ownership and
effective control of which is vested in Indian nationals.

(v)    All foreign nationals likely to be
associated with Indian scheduled and non-scheduled air transport services, as
a result of such investment shall be cleared from security view point before
deployment; and

(vi)   All technical equipment that might be
imported into India as a result of such investment shall require clearance
from the relevant authority in the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Note: (i) The FDI
limits/entry routes, mentioned at paragraph 9.3(1) and 9.3(2) above, are
applicable in the situation where there is no investment by foreign airlines.

(ii) The dispensation for
NRIs regarding FDI up to 100% will also continue in respect of the investment
regime specified at paragraph 9.3.1(c) (ii) above.

(iii) The policy mentioned
at 9.3.1(c) above is not applicable to M/s Air India Limited

87.  A. P. (DIR Series)
Circular No. 20 dated November 09, 2016

Issue of Pre-Paid Instruments to foreign tourists

This circular: –

1.  Supersedes A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 16
dated November 11, 2016 regarding Withdrawal of the legal tender character of
the existing and any older series banknotes in the denominations of ? 500 and ?
1000.

2.  Provides that foreign citizens (i.e. foreign
passport holders) are permitted to exchange foreign exchange for Indian
currency notes up to a limit of ? 5,000/- per week until December 15, 2016. The
foreign tourist will have to give, at the time of exchange, a self-declaration
that he / she has not availed of this facility during the week and also provide
a copy of their passport.

3.  Provides that foreign tourists can continue to
avail facility of Pre-Paid Instruments as mentioned A. P. (DIR Series) Circular
No. 17 dated November 11, 2016.

88.  A. P. (DIR Series)
Circular No. 22 dated December 16, 2016

Exchange facility to foreign citizens

This circular provides that the facility for
exchange of foreign exchange for Indian currency, available to foreign citizens
(i.e. foreign passport holders) whereby they were permitted to exchange foreign
exchange for Indian currency notes up to a limit of Rs. 5,000/- per week will
continue up to December 31, 2016. The foreign tourist will have to give, at the
time of exchange, a self-declaration that he / she has not availed of this
facility during the week and also provide a copy of their passport.

Miscellanea

1. Economy

 

10.  U.S., Japan Express Concern Over China’s Interest in Saudi Oil Giant Amarco

 

A plan to list Saudi Aramco in 2018 is on
track. Prince Mohammad has said the IPO, which could be the world’s biggest,
will value Aramco at a minimum of $2 trillion and could raise as much as $100
billion.

 

U.S. and Japan have urged Saudi Arabia to
pursue an international listing for oil giant Aramco, fearing the possible sale
of a stake to China would give Beijing too much sway in the Middle East.

 

Recently Donald Trump has publicly pleaded
with Saudi Arabia to sell shares in its national oil company, Aramco, on the
New York Stock Exchange via tweet. “Would very much appreciate Saudi
Arabia doing their IPO of Aramco with the New York Stock Exchange. Important to
the United States!” It would be interesting to see if the Aramco will give pre
listing stake to China or not. Only year 2018 will give you answer.

 

(Source : Returns and Wall Street
Journal)

 

11. 
Fortune 500 Companies presence in Tax Heaven

 

Tax havens help MNCs in evading the taxes by
different ways and by different means .One of the major companies uses the tax
havens is for corporate tax avoidance; which has enormous impact both on
developing and developed countries. It is difficult for the tax authorities to
track the global companies who are evading taxes in their countries due to lack
of transparency.

 

Multinational firms can artificially shift
profits from high tax to low tax jurisdictions using a variety of techniques ,
such as shifting debt to high tax jurisdictions ,because tax on the income of
foreign subsidiaries (except for certain passive income) is deferred until
income is repatriated (paid to the US parent as a dividend).

 

Interesting facts

 

More than two thirds of the companies
registered in the US (Surface area: nearly 4 million square miles) appear to be
located in the tiny state of Delaware (Surface area: less than 2000 square
miles).

 

Most of America’s largest corporations
maintain subsidiaries in offshore Tax havens. At least 358 companies, nearly 72
percent of the fortune 500 operate subsidiaries in tax haven jurisdictions. All
told these 358 companies maintain at least 7,622 tax havens’ subsidiaries. The
thirty companies with the most money officially booked offshore for tax
purposes collectively operate 1,225 tax haven subsidiaries.

 

Fortune 500 companies currently hold more
than 2.1 trillion in accumulated profits offshore for tax purposes. Just thirty
fortune 500 companies account for 65 percent of these offshore profits. These
thirty companies with the most money offshore have booked 1.4 trillion overseas
for tax purposes. Only fifty seven fortune 500 companies disclose what they
would except to pay US taxes if these profits were not officially booked
offshore. In total these seven corporations public disclosures, the average
rate they have collectively paid to foreign countries on these profits is a
mere six percent indicating that a large portion of this offshore money has
been booked in tax havens.

 

If we apply that average tax rate of six
percent to the entirety of fortune 500 companies they would collectively owe
620 billion in additional federal taxes.

 

(Source: Black Money and Tax Heavens
Book)

 

2.  Social

 

12. 
India’s blind people struggle to recognise new banknotes

 

The government move to change the currency
bills last year has affected the visually impaired. Unlike the previous rupee
bills, the new banknotes are indistinguishable from one another based on their
texture and dimensions. The old 50, 100, 500 and 1,000 rupee banknotes, there
was a discernible size difference of 10mm or more either by length or width, a
distinction that helped most of India’s blind population transact with cash.
Imagine a Rs. 500 Note of a pale grey 150 by 66mm piece of paper and 20-rupee
note a 147mm by 63mm, how the blind person is going to differentiate? There are
more than 4 Million Blind population in India.

 

The Blind Graduates Forum of India, has been
in touch with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), 
finance minister and prime ministers’ offices, for the past few months
to make representation.

 

India’s Finance Minister Arun Jaitley in his
2014 budget speech had promised more schemes and measures to assist those with
disabilities. The Right of Persons with Disabilities Act passed in 2016
stipulates that various facilities, infrastructure and services be provided in
an accessible fashion. But implementation has so far been uneven. There is
online petition in chage.org, which has got more than 5000 signatures.

 

(Source: TRT World)

 

3.  Technology

 

13. 
Investors are Selling Gold to Invest in Bitcoin

 

According to ACG Analytics US macro strategy
head Larry McDonald, investors have begun to sell gold to invest in bitcoin
through the newly launched bitcoin futures exchange of the Chicago Board
Options Exchange (CBOE)

 

Since September, the value of gold miners
ETF (GDX), the largest gold exchange-traded fund (ETF) in the market, has
fallen by nearly 15 percent. In the past, McDonald noted that the value of gold
ETFs were correlated to the price trend of bond yields. But, this week,
McDonald explained that the decline in the price of gold ETFs was triggered by
the rapid increase in demand for bitcoin.

 

Given bitcoin’s decentralized nature,
transportability, fixed supply, and divisibility, in the long-term, bitcoin
will be able to compete with traditional stores of value such as gold.

 

(Source : newsbtc)

 

14. 
2017 rewind: achievements,  
major   milestone, political and other events in India

 

January

–    2
January – Nuclear-Capable Agni-IV Missile Tested Successfully.

  7
January -Heavy snowfall in Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttrakhand disrupt
normal life. Heaviest snowfall recorded of two decades at most of the places.

  25
January – UAE delegation led by Shaikh Mohammad Bin Zayed Al Nahyan, Crown
Prince Abu Dhabi visited India to sign 14 agreements including strategic
partnership, defense industries, transport, cyber security and shipping.

 

February

   1
February – Union budget for 2017 – 18 is presented by Arun Jaitley in Lok
Sabha.[7] 92 year old Railway Budget is merged in this budget.

   15
February – ISRO launched PSLV-C37 rocket which put into orbit a record 104
satellites from seven countries.

 

March

  6
March – Indian Navy’s oldest serving aircraft carrier INS Viraat decommissioned
after 30 years of its service.

   11
March – Election result of Legislative election in five states declared by
Election Commission.

  14
March – Manohar Parrikar took oath as the new Chief Minister of Goa.

  15
March – Biren Singh took oath as the new Chief Minister of Manipur.

  16
March – Amarinder Singh took oath as the new Chief Minister of Punjab.

   18
March – Adityanath Yogi took oath as the new Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh.

 

April

   27
April – Vinod Khanna death, 70, Veteran Actor, Former Minister of State (born
1946), Bladder Cancer.

 

May

   26
May – K. P. S. Gill dead, 82, IPS officer.

 

June

   9
June – India along with archrival Pakistan became full members of Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation.

   17
June – Kochi Metro inaugurated.

   19
June – BJP announced Ram Nath Kovind as its Presidential Candidate for
Presidential Election.

   23
June – ISRO puts 31 satellites including 29 satellites from other countries
through PSLV C-38 successfully.

July

   1
July – Goods and Services Tax (India) launched in India. The India’s biggest
tax reform in 70 years of independence, was launched at midnight of 30 June
2017.

   11
July – Major landslide occurred in Arunachal Pradesh. 14 people died while many
injured.

   17
July – Indian presidential elections were held.

   17
July – BJP led NDA declared Venkaiah Naidu as their candidate for Vice –
President election.

   18
July – Congress protests against Madhur Bhandarkar’s film Indu Sarkar based on
1975 Emergency in India.

   20
July – Ram Nath Kovind won the 2017 Indian presidential election with 65.65%
votes against Meira Kumar, the presidential candidate of the opposition.

   25
July – Ram Nath Kovind took oath as 14th President of India.

   26
July – Nitish Kumar (JDU) resigns as Chief Minister of Bihar, breaking the
coalition with RJD & Indian National Congress.

   27
July – NDA (JDU + BJP) led government comes in Bihar. Nitish Kumar and Sushil
Modi took oath as Chief Minister and Dy. Chief Minister of Bihar respectively.

 

August

   5
August – Venkaiah Naidu won the Indian vice-presidential election with 67.89%
votes against Gopalkrishna Gandhi, the opposition candidate.

   9
August – Maratha Kranti Morcha starts in Mumbai for the demand for reservation
for the Maratha Community in the state of Maharashtra.

   11
August – Venkaiah Naidu took oath as 13th Vice President of India.

   22
August – Supreme Court bans instant triple talaq calling it unconstitutional.
Instructed Central Government to pass law in parliament for triple talaq.

   28
August – Dipak Misra sworn in as 45th Chief Justice of India.

   30
August – Switzerland president Doris Leuthard visited India for bilateral talk.

 

September

  3
September- Nirmala Sitharaman became Defence Minister of India.

   5
September – Narendra Modi on visit of China for 9th BRICS Summit and
Myanmar for bilateral talk and Lucknow Metro inaugurated.

   11–12
September – Belarus President Alexander Lukashenko visited India for bilateral
talk, signed 10 agreements including defense.

   13–14
September – Japan Prime Minister Shinzo Abe visited Ahmedabad for bilateral
talk, signed many agreements including Bullet Train project in India.

 

October

   6
October – FIFA U-17 World Cup kickoff in India

   16
October – 6 Corporaters in Mumbai joined Shivsena leaving Raj’s MNS.

 

November

   1
November – Ashish Nehra retired from International Cricket.

   18
November – Manushi Chhillar won the 6th Miss World crown for India
in Sanya, China.

   29
November – Inauguration of Hyderabad Metro.

 

December

   2
December – Cyclone Ockhi hits Tamil Nadu and Kerala causing 13 deaths.

   4
December – Shashi Kapoor’s death, 79, Indian Veteran Actor.

   7
December – Mani Shankar Aiyar removed from Congress.

   13
December – Rohit Sharma scored third double century in ODIs against Sri
Lanka.[58].

   18
December – Election commission declared result of Himachal Pradesh and Gujarat
legislative assembly election.

 

(Source: https://en.wikipedia.org) _

Letter To The Editor

Dear Sir/Madam

 

I, Mr. Samirkumar Kasvala (Membership :
O-30946), really appreciate the opportunity given to me to provide the feedback
on BCA Journal.

 

Further I would  like to mention that BCA Journal is
publishing articles on ‘’PRACTICE MANAGEMENT‘’.

 

 

This is very useful at all levels. So this
should be made a regular article every month. This is just a good and positive
thought I shared with you.

 



Corporate Law Corner

10. Kediya Ceramics, In re

[2017] 86 taxmann.com 166 (NCLT – Ahd.)                               
Date of Order: 22nd September, 2017


Sections 230 to 232 of Companies Act, 2013 – Partnership firm
which is not registered under the provisions of Companies Act, 2013 is a body
corporate but not a company – The firm cannot participate in the amalgamation
proceedings under sections 230 to 232 of the Companies Act, 2013.

 

FACTS

K Co
(the applicant) was a partnership firm, registered under the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932 and was formed on 05.02.2015. The Applicant along with six other
companies sought to amalgamate with a company under a scheme of amalgamation
filed before the NCLT.

 

The
primary issue before the Tribunal was whether a registered partnership firm,
being a body corporate, could be treated as a “company” for the
purpose of sections 230-232 of the Companies Act, 2013.

 

The
Applicant put forth the following contentions before the Tribunal:

 

1.  Section 2(11) read with section 2(95) of
Companies Act, 2013 (the Act) indicates that a firm is a body corporate and
therefore, entitled to proceed u/s. 232 of the Act for an amalgamation.

 

2.  Section 366 of the Act which deals with
entities authorised to register as a “company” includes any
partnership firm. It was also stated that Explanation (b) to section 375(4)
stipulates that the expression “unregistered company” shall include
any partnership firm consisting of more than seven members.

 

3.  Reference was drawn to section 394(4)(b) of
Companies Act, 1956 which stipulates that transferee company does not include
any company other than a company within the meaning of the Act, whereas a
transferor company includes any body corporate within the meaning of the said
Act or not.

 

4.  It was further contended that section 234(2)
of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for merger of a foreign company (whether a
company or a body corporate) into a company registered under the Act or vice-versa.

 

5.  Reliance was placed on judgments of Bombay
High Court in Philip J. vs. Ashapura Minechem Ltd. [2016] 66 taxmann.com
328/134 SCL 416, Kerala High Court in Co. Pet. No. 30/2014 in the matter of
Manjilas Agro Foods (P.) Ltd. and High Court of Calcutta in the matter of
Rossell Industries Ltd., In re [1995] 6 SCL 79 (Cal.)           

 

HELD

The
Tribunal examined the various arguments that were put forth by the Applicant.
It was observed that section 2(20) defines a company as a company incorporated
under the provisions of the Act or under any previous company law. The
Applicant is not a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 or under
any other previous Companies Act that was in force on the date of the
registration of the firm; and consequently not a “company” as defined under section
2(20) of the Act.

 

It was
held that the Applicant, being a partnership firm was “body corporate” within
the meaning of section 2(11) of the Act. Regarding the first two contentions,
the Tribunal observed that section 2(95) applied only when the phrase used has
not been defined under the Act. Since the word company has been defined,
recourse cannot be taken to provisions of section 2(95). Further, section 366
only contemplates which entities are authorised to be registered as a company
under the Companies Act. Thus, the Tribunal was of the view that a partnership
firm unless registered under the Companies Act by making use of section 366 of
the Companies Act cannot be included as a company.

 

The
Tribunal examined the provisions of section 394(4)(b) of Companies Act, 1956
which permitted a scheme of amalgamation between a transferor company
registered as a partnership firm and a transferee company, but not vice-versa.
It was held that there was no similar provision in sections 230 and 232 of the
Act. In the absence of such specific provision in the Companies Act, 2013
relating to amalgamation, it could not be said that even a body corporate can
participate in the scheme of amalgamation.

 

The
Tribunal further observed that section 234 had no application in the case of a
body corporate incorporated in India.

 

Lastly,
the Tribunal distinguished the cases relied upon by the Applicant and proceeded
to hold that the applicant, being a registered partnership firm and a body
corporate, is not a company within the meaning of the Companies Act, 2013 and,
therefore, it cannot participate in the amalgamation proceedings that are
initiated under the provisions of sections 230 to 232 of the Act.

 

11. India Awake for Transparency vs. UOI

[2017] 88 taxmann.com 101 (Delhi)                             
Date of Order: 5th December, 2017

 

Section 124(6) – Section 124(6) does not contemplate a statutory
vesting of property in shares the dividends of which have not been claimed for
more than seven years – Such shares merely stand transmitted to the Investor
education and protection fund that continues to hold them as a custodian –
Companies are required to comply with requirement of giving 3 months’ notice to
the shareholders before giving effect to such transfer of shares.

 

FACTS

I Co
is a non-profit company and filed a public interest litigation for strict
enforcement of Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (Accounting,
Audit, Transfer and Refund) Rules, 2016 (“the 2016 Rules”) by every
company transferring shares to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (“the
Fund”). Companies Act, 2013 (the Act) provides that unpaid dividends accruing
in a company are to be transferred to an Unpaid dividend account (UDA). The Act
also provides for transfer of funds from UDA to the Fund, if no payout were
made for seven years. New section 124(6) has been introduced which further
provides that shares which yield dividends that remain unpaid for over seven
(7) years, would be transferred to the Fund.

 

The
petition describes the scheme of the Rules framed on 05.07.2016. It was
submitted that an impractical procedure was devised, which the authorities
realised and therefore, amended the Rules on 28.02.2017 (“first
amendment”) and later, on 13.10.2017 (“second amendment”). Rule
6.

 

It was
argued that there was complete lack of clarity with respect to the three month
period to be given to shareholders for the purpose of applying to claim their
shares from the respective companies before their vesting to the Fund.

 

HELD

The
High Court observed that the crux of controversy was operationalisation of
section 124(6) which statutorily transfers shares to the Fund in the
eventuality of dividends lying unclaimed for over seven years. Such shares are
merely transferred for safekeeping by the Fund and do not become the property
nor do they vest in the Central Government. Thus, the shareholder continues to
retain title but loses agency.

 

The
Court held that the sum and substance of the Rules was that the companies were
mandated to follow two crucial steps – one, inform the shareholders about the
manner of vesting of shares and in that regard provide three clear months
before the date of statutory transfer and two, ensure that the further
conditions and changes introduced by the first and second amendments, granting
relief to certain classes of shareholders who might have either in the interim
encashed dividends or approached them to reclaim the shares, were protected.

 

The
due date of transfer was an unclear concept under the old Rules – originally
notified on 05.09.2016, the Rules were modified and the date of transfer
shifted to 31.10.2017. However, several instances of non-compliance of three
months notice period were highlighted by the Applicant. The Court, however,
held that it could not go into specific violations and non-compliances in this
PIL.

 

The
Court held that section 124(6) did not result in a statutory vesting of any
property; it merely transferred (through transmission of) shares in companies
which have yielded dividends for seven years that have not been claimed to the
Fund which then holds them as a custodian. The Court directed the Central
Government to devise appropriate procedures to enable shareholders to reclaim
their property in the shares, by an appropriate procedure.

 

For
the duration of transfer of the shares, the companies could   not  
issue  bonus shares or add
anything prohibited u/s.126.
The Rules, especially the first and second amendments, had the effect of giving
companies adequate time to notify and comply with the three month public notice
period to their shareholders about the event of transfer. The Court also
observed that the transfer of such shares is not a one-time measure but an
ongoing event given the obligation of each company to identity such shares
after the holding of every Annual General Meeting.

 

12. 
Mobilox Innovations Pvt. Ltd. vs. Kirusa Software Pvt. Ltd. CIVIL APPEAL
NO. 9405 OF 2017

 

Section 8 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – Definition
of ‘dispute’ is an inclusive definition – Word ‘bonafide’ cannot be
imported before the word ‘dispute’ – Adjudicating Authority is only required to
ascertain if the dispute in fact exists and is not a patently feeble legal
argument or an assertion of fact unsupported by evidence – Meaning of ‘dispute’
and ‘existence’ decoded.

 

FACTS

K Co
rendered certain services to M Co, the payment for which was to be made by M
Co. There was a non-disclosure agreement signed between K Co and M Co in
respect of these services; the terms of which were allegedly breached by K Co.
Since the services were rendered, K Co raised the invoices to M Co. M Co
refused to make these payments as there was a breach of terms contained in the
NDA K Co filed a petition in NCLT Mumbai initiating insolvency resolution
process against M Co. The Tribunal dismissed the application citing that there
existed a dispute and the case was hit by section 9(5)(ii)(d) of the Insolvency
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (the Act).

 

K Co
filed an appeal before the NCLAT Mumbai which held that NCLT should have
considered what constituted ‘dispute’ and in the facts of this case, defence
claiming dispute was not a bonafide one. Accordingly, it directed NCLT to
consider the application if it was a complete one.

 

M Co
filed a statutory appeal before the Supreme Court against the order of
Appellate Tribunal.

 

HELD

The
Supreme Court examined the history of the legislation as also the existing
framework of the legislation. The Supreme Court also went on to observe the
evolution in language of definition of the word ‘dispute’ as used in draft of
the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code submitted by the Bankruptcy Law Reform
Committee in November 2015 (the “BLRC Draft”) vis-a-vis the definition
placed on record of the statute. The original definition of “dispute” has now
become an inclusive definition and the word “bona fide” before “suit or
arbitration proceedings” stands deleted.

 

The
Supreme Court examined the scheme of Act. Under section 8(1) of the Act, an
operational creditor, may, on the occurrence of a default (i.e., on non-payment
of a debt, any part whereof has become due and payable and has not been
repaid), deliver a demand notice of such unpaid operational debt or deliver the
copy of an invoice demanding payment of such amount to the corporate debtor in
certain specified form. Under section 8(2)(a), the corporate debtor, within a
period of 10 days of the aforesaid receipt must bring to the notice of the
operational creditor the existence of a dispute and/or the record of the
pendency of a suit or arbitration proceeding filed before the receipt of such
notice or invoice in relation to such dispute. It was observed that the
existence of the dispute and/or the suit or arbitration proceeding must be
pre-existing – i.e. it must exist before the receipt of the demand notice or
invoice, as the case may be.

 

The
Supreme Court, taking into account the importance of the term ‘existence’
occurring before the word ‘dispute’ under sections 8(2)(a) and 9(5)(ii)(d) of
the Act, laid down a checklist for the adjudicating authority to consider
admission or rejection of application u/s. 9 of the Act for initiating the
insolvency resolution process. It proceeded to state that the word ‘and’ used
in section 8(2) was to be read as ‘or’.

 

The
Court held that word ‘bonafide’ could not be read into the present framework.
All that the adjudicating authority is to consider is whether there is a
plausible contention which requires further investigation and that the
“dispute” is not a patently feeble legal argument or an assertion of fact
unsupported by evidence. Principles laid down in Madhusudan Gordhandas vs.
Madhu Woollen Industries Pvt. Ltd.
[(1972) 2 SCR 201] are inapplicable to
the Act.

 

Examining
the contentions raised by the counsels, the Supreme Court came to a conclusion
that the dispute in relation to the NDA did in fact exist and therefore,
Appellate Tribunal was incorrect in characterising the defense as vague, got-up
and motivated to evade liability.

 

The order
passed by NCLAT was thus set aside. _


Allied Laws

16. 
Foreign Decree – Execution in India. [Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
Sections 13, 44].

 

In the present
case, the primary contention raised is that the parties are foreign nationals
and the direction by the Canada Court can only be executed at Canada and not in
India.

 

Hanifa
Kalangattu vs. Shaista Khan AIR 2017 KERALA 217

 

It was contended that, as per section 44A of
the Code of Civil Procedure, a decree of the foreign Court can be executed only
if the certified copy of decree of any of the Superior Courts of any
reciprocating territory has been filed before the District Court. However,
there was no material to indicate that Canada is a reciprocating territory which
would enable the said foreign judgment to be enforced and executed by this
Court.

 

It was held by the High Court of Kerela that
since no materials were produced either before the Family Court or before this
Court to indicate that Canada is a reciprocating territory as far as Government
of India is concerned, in the absence of any such material, there is a clear
bar of jurisdiction for entertaining the execution petition which has been
totally ignored by the Court below.

 

17.  Hindu female dying intestate – Inheritance
after death of her second husband – Devolution of Property – To go back to
husband’s heirs when not self acquired [Hindu Succession Act, 1956; Sections
14, 15, 16]

 

Suldeep (Through Legal heir) vs. Hira Lal
and Ors. AIR 2017 CHHATTISGARH 164

 

The only issue which was to be adjudicated
here was whether the property in question would devolve upon the heirs of the
deceased second wife or upon the heirs of the deceased husband, who was the
owner of the property.

 

The facts of the case are that the plaintiff
instituted a suit for declaration of title and vacant possession of the suit
property (house and hotel) by submitting, inter alia, that his father
was the owner of it and after his death, it was inherited by him. It is pleaded
that defendant No.1, the second wife of the deceased father (since deceased,
now represented by her legal representatives) was his father’s servant as she
was working as such in his hotel business and used to take care of him whenever
he fell ill. It was pleaded in the plaint that defendant was put in  possession over the suit property only for
its proper care where she was
residing with her son, the defendant No. 2, who has thrown his bag and baggage from the suit property.
Therefore, the plaintiff has been constrained in filing the suit in the instant
nature.

 

The Supreme
Court held that the Source of acquisition of such property was supposed to be
seen before the general rules of succession would apply. Since in the present
case, the defendant no.2(Son) was outside the wedlock of the defendant no.1 and
the deceased father, in such a situation, the interest of defendant
no.1(deceased wife), who expired intestate, shall be reverted to her deceased
husband’s heirs by virtue of clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 15 of the
Act of 1956. The property in question is admittedly not the self-acquired
property of the said defendant no.1(deceased wife), and therefore, the general
rules of succession defined in sub-section (1) of section 15 of the Act of 1956
would not be attracted. Consequently, her interest would be devolved upon her
deceased husband’s heirs, i.e., the plaintiff and his sister and, not from
heirs of the deceased wife’s first husband, i.e., the present appellant
Son(Defendant No.1), as per the provisions prescribed u/s. 15(2)(b) of the Act
of 1956.

 

18.  Land – Valuation of part of the building can
be made without the land attached to such building. [Land Acquisition Act,
1894; Sections 3, 23, 49]

 

State of Maharashtra and Ors. vs.
Reliance Industries Ltd. and Ors. AIR 2017 SUPREME COURT 4490

 

The question which arose for consideration
was whether, under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 (the ‘Act’), acquisition of
Part of the building can be made without acquiring land underneath such
building.

 

The Supreme Court, while deciding the issue
of whether acquisition of any building or part thereof de hors the
underlying land or not, held that when land and building once married becomes
one unit, neither land nor building can thereafter be valued separately. The
expression “land” includes benefits to arise out of land and, things
attached to the earth or permanently fastened to anything attached to the
earth. But this would not come in the way of determining the valuation of a
particular floor, all the aspects of the owner’s interest and the bundle of
other rights can be taken into consideration including support provided by the
land and value of the land in the locality etc. Value of the part of the
building can also be accordingly assessed.

 

19.  Tenancy – Tenancy not to automatically get
terminated even though the property is forfeited [Smugglers And Foreign
Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture Of Property) Act, 1976; Section 3]

 

Domnic Alex Fernandes (D) through L.Rs.
and Ors. vs. Union of India (UOI) and Ors. AIR 2017 SUPREME COURT 4007

 

The question for consideration was whether
tenancy of a property, ownership of which is acquired by a person to whom the
Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976
(SAFEMA) applied, would be treated as “illegally acquired property”
within the meaning of section 3(1)(c) of SAFEMA and can be subjected to
forfeiture under the provisions thereof, due to which the said tenancy would be
terminated.

 

The Supreme Court held that rights of a bona
fide
tenant, not having any relation with the person to whom the provisions
of SAFEMA apply, will not stand automatically terminated by forfeiture of
property and vesting thereof in the Central Government. Such forfeiture will
extinguish the rights of the person to whom the Act applies i.e. the owner of
the property or his/her relative or associate having nexus with him/her in
relation to the said property.

 

20.  Will – Licence cannot be granted merely on
the basis of will, without being legal heir of manufacturer or partner in firm
– Legal Successor – Construed to be read in a restricted sense [Succession Act,
(39 of 1925) Section  63 ]

 

Dharam Chand vs. Dharam Paul and Ors. AIR
2017 JAMMU AND KASHMIR 138

 

The issue in the appeal was whether a
person’s name can be incorporated as a co-licensee since the person had
acquired the status of a legal successor-in-interest of the deceased licensee,
based on a will followed by a Probate and letter of administration, as granted
in his favour by a competent Court.

 

It was observed that a subsequent Circular,
dated 27.03.1971, provided that in case of an existing manufacturer or a
surviving partner of a licenced unit, besides his son(s), wife or wives may
also be admitted as additional partners. It was further decided that where a
manufacturer or a partner of the firm has no son(s) or wife, only his legal
successor(s) would be entitled to be admitted as partner(s) or additional
partner(s), as the case may be.

 

The Supreme Court held that the subsequent
Circular was to regulate the entry of other persons in the existing licensed
units so as to safeguard the legitimate interest of the successor-members of
the family of the existing manufacturers and to prevent mala fide
trading in such licences or their transfer to outsiders.

 

On the basis of the principle of ejusdem
generi
, the word ‘legal successor’ had to be given a restricted meaning
bearing in mind the objective/basic policy behind issuance of the subsequent
communication to safeguard the legitimate interest of the successor-members of
the family of the existing manufacturer and to prevent mala fide trading in
such licences or their transfer to outsiders through backdoor methods, to mean
that person who is in some way related to the licensee and would succeed in the
absence of wife or son.
_

From Published Accounts

Accounting
for Demerger in the books of demerged company and resulting company (both
companies following Ind AS)

 

Sterlite Technologies Ltd. (31-3-2017) (demerged company)

 

From
Notes to Accounts

 

54G  Demerger
of Power Business

        The
Board of directors of the Company on 18th May 2015 approved the
Scheme of Arrangement under sections 391 – 394 of the Companies Act, 1956 (“the
Scheme’) between Sterlite Technologies Limited (‘STL’ of Demerged company),
Sterlite Power Transmission Limited (‘SPTL’ or Resulting company’) and their respective
shareholders and creditors for the demerger of power products and solutions
business (including the investments of STL in power transmission infrastructure
subsidiaries i.e. Sterlite Power Grid Ventures Limited and East North
interconnection Company Limited into SPTL with the appointed date of 1st
April 2015. The Scheme was approved by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court vide
Order dated 22nd April 2016 and it became effective from 23rd
May 2016 (being the date of filing with Registrar of Companies).

 

        As
a result of the demerger, the opening balance sheet as at 1st  April 2015 and the financial  statements of the Company as at and for the
year ended 31st March 2016, do not include the operations of the
demerged undertaking.

 

        As per the Scheme, STL shall reduce the book
values of assets and liabilities pertaining to the demerged undertaking (i.e.
Power Business) as on the appointed date from its books of account.
Accordingly, the following assets and liabilities pertaining to Power Business
have been reduced from the books of account of STL as on April 1st
2015.

 

Particulars

( Rs in crores)

Assets

 

Non-current
assets

 

Property,
plant & equipment

238.94

Capital
work-in-progress

2.98

Other
intangible assets

0.07

Investment
in subsidiaries

1,198.11

Financial
assets

 

   Loans

9.20

   Other non-current financial assets

1.47

Other
non-current assets

1.10

 

1,451.87

Current
assets

 

Inventories

236.65

Financial
assets

 

   Trade receivables

413.06

   Cash and cash equivalents

0.51

   Other current financial assets

76.50

Other
current assets

23.01

 

749.73

Total
(A)

2,201.60

Liabilities

 

Non-current
liabilities

 

Financial
Liabilities

 

Borrowings

562.84

Employee
benefit obligations

2.28

Deferred
tax liabilities (net)

5.75

 

570.86

Current
liabilities

 

Financial
liabilities

 

   Borrowings

228.25

   Trade payables

586.09

   Other financial liabilities

160.39

Net
employee defined benefit liabilities

1.41

 

1,064.95

Total
(B)

1,635.82

Excess
of book value of assets over the book value of liabilities (A-B)

565.78

 

 

Further, as per the Scheme,
the excess of book value of assets over the book value of liabilities of the
demerged undertaking shall be adjusted against the securities premium account
and balance, if any, shall be first adjusted against the general reserve account
and thereafter against profit and loss account of the demerged company. Also,
the investment of STL in SPTL of Rs. 0.05 crore has been cancelled and adjusted
against surplus in the statement of profit and loss as per the Scheme,
Accordingly, the following adjustments have been made in the opening reserves
as at 1st April 2015:

 

Particulars

 Rs. in
crores

Excess
of book value of assets over the book value of liabilities

565.78

Adjusted
against:

 

Securities
premium

197.26

General
reserve

99.97

Surplus
in the statement of profit and loss

268.55

Total

565.78

 

 

The resulting company shall
reimburse the demerged company for all liabilities incurred by the demerged
company in so far as such liabilities relate to period prior to the appointed
date i.e. 1st April 2015 in respect of the demerged undertaking as
per the Scheme.

 

Sterlite Power Transmission Ltd. (31-3-2017) (resulting company)

 

From
Notes to Accounts

 

NOTE 45:
DEMERGER OF POWER BUSINESS FROM STERLITE TECHNOLOGIES LIMITED

 

A.    The
Board of directors of the Sterlite Technologies Limited on 18th May,
2015 approved the Scheme of Arrangement under sections 391 – 394 of the
Companies Act, 1956 (‘the Scheme’) between Sterlite Technologies Limited (‘STL’
or ‘Demerged company’), Sterlite Power Transmission Limited (‘SPTL’ or
‘Resulting company’ or ‘Company’) and their respective shareholders &
creditors for the demerger of power products and solutions business (including
the investments of STL in power transmission infrastructure subsidiaries i.e.
Sterlite Power Grid Ventures Limited and East North Interconnection Company
Limited) into the Company with the appointed date of 1st April,
2015. The Scheme was approved by the Hon’ble Bombay High Court vide
Order dated 22nd April, 2016 and it became effective from 23rd
May, 2016 (being the date of filing with Registrar of Companies).

 

        The
Company was incorporated on 5th May, 2015 with the object of
carrying out business of power products and solutions under the name Sterlite
Power Transmission Limited. As per the Scheme, power products and solutions
business (including the investments of STL in power transmission infrastructure
subsidiaries i.e. Sterlite Power Grid Ventures Limited and East North
Interconnection Company Limited) has been transferred into the Company with the
appointed date of 1st April, 2015.

 

B.    The
Scheme inter alia provides for issue by SPTL, at the option of the
shareholder of STL, of either one equity share of face value of INR 2 or one
redeemable preference share of face value of INR 2 issued at a premium of INR
110.30 per share for every 5 fully paid up equity shares of INR 2 each of the
Demerged company and redeemable on expiry of eighteen months from the date of
allotment at a premium of INR 123.55 per share for eligible members other than
non-residents. In case of non-residents, one equity share of face value of INR
2 for every 5 fully paid up equity shares of INR 2 each of the Demerged company
and all such equity shares shall be purchased by the promoters of the Demerged
Company and/or their affiliates or any other person and/or entity identified by
them, in accordance with the scheme.

 

C.    As
per the option exercised by the shareholders of STL 61.18 million equity shares
and 17.09 million redeemable preference shares were issued on 22nd
August, 2016.

 

D.    Further,
as per the Scheme, the investment of STL in SPTL of INR 0.05 crore has been
cancelled w.e.f. 1st April, 2015.

 

E.    As
per the Scheme, the following assets and liabilities pertaining to Power Business
were transferred from STL to SPTL w.e.f. 1st April, 2015:

 

Particulars

INR in millions*

ASSETS

 

Non-current
assets

 

Fixed
assets

 

   Tangible assets

2,389.36

   Intangible Assets

0.73

   Capital work-in-progress

29.81

 

2,419.90

Non-current
investments

11,981.08

Long-term
loans and advances

117.75

Other
non-current assets

4.20

 

14,522.93

Current
assets

 

Inventories

2,366.52

Trade
receivables

4,130.64

Cash
and bank balances

5.10

Short-term
loans and advances

981.05

Other
current assets

17.98

 

7,501.30

TOTAL
(A)

22,024.23

LIABILITIES

 

Non-current
liabilities

 

Long-term
borrowings

5,632.50

Deferred
tax liabilities (net)

57.50

Long-term
provisions

22.75

 

5,712.75

Current
liabilities

 

Short-term
borrowings

2,286.54

Trade
payables

5,860.98

Other
current liabilities

2,492.04

Short-term
provisions

14.12

 

10,653.68

TOTAL
(B)

16,366.43

Excess
of book value of assets over the book value of liabilities (A – B)

5,657.79

Total
consideration payable by the Company to equity share holders of STL

8,880.92

Goodwill

3,223.09

 

*These figures are as per Indian GAAP.

 

        As
per the Scheme, difference between total consideration payable by the Company
to equity share holders of Sterlite Technologies Limited and excess of book
value of assets over the book value of liabilities transferred from Sterlite
Technologies Limited is recognised as Goodwill and amortised over a period of
five years as required under the Scheme.

 

F.     As
per the Scheme, the resulting company shall reimburse the demerged company for
all liabilities incurred by the demerged company in so far as such liabilities
relate to period prior to the appointed date i.e. 1st April, 2015 in
respect of the demerged undertaking. The management does not expect any cash
outflow in respect of the above.

 

From
Auditors’ Report

 

Emphasis
of Matter

 

        We
draw attention to Note 45 to the standalone Ind AS financial statements which
describes the accounting for merger which has been done as per the Scheme of
arrangement approved by the High Court. Our opinion is not qualified in respect
of this matter. _

 

 

Glimpses Of Supreme Court Rulings

10.  Co-operative Society – Deduction u/s. 80P –
If the income of a society is falling within any one head of exemption, it has
to be exempted from tax notwithstanding that the condition of other heads of
exemption are not satisfied – A deduction would however not be admissible to a
co-operative bank – Also, where the activities of the society are in violation
of the Co-operative Societies Act, deduction cannot be allowed.

 

The Citizen
Co-operative Society Limited vs. ACIT (2017) 397 ITR 1 (SC)

 

The Assessee as
Co-operative Society had filed return of income for the Assessment Year
2009-10, for the year ending March 31, 2009 on September 30, 2009 declaring NIL
income. In the return filed, the Assessee claimed a sum of Rs. 4,26,37,081/- as
deduction u/s. 80P of the Act.

 

The Assessing
Officer held that deduction in respect of income of co-operative societies u/s.
80P of the Act was not admissible to the Appellant as the benefit of deduction,
as contemplated under the said provision was, inter alia, admissible to
those co-operative societies which carried on business of banking or providing
credit facilities to its members. On the contrary, the Appellant society was
carrying on the banking business for public at large and for all practical
purposes, it was acting like a co-operative bank governed by the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949, and its operation was not confined to its members but
outsiders as well.

 

Insofar as
disallowance of deduction claimed u/s. 80P of the Act was concerned, the CIT
(A) rejected the claim for deduction thereby upheld the order of the Assessing
Officer. While doing so, the CIT (A) followed the order of the Income Tax
Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) in the case of the Appellant itself in respect of
Assessment Years 2007-08 and 2008-09.

 

Further, appeal
to the ITAT met the same fate as ITAT also referred to its aforesaid order and
dismissed the appeal of the Appellant.

 

Undeterred, the
Appellant approached the High Court in the form of appeal u/s. 260A of the Act.
This appeal was dismissed by the High Court with the observations that there
was no illegality or infirmity in the order passed by the ITAT.

 

The Supreme
Court noted that section 80P of the Act provides for certain deduction in
respect of incomes of the co-operative societies. A co-operative society is
defined by section 2(19) of the Act. Where the gross total income of such
co-operative societies includes any income referred to in sub-section (2) of
section 80P, the sums specified in s/s. (2) are allowed as deduction in
accordance with and subject to the provisions of the said section, while
computing the total income of the Assessee. The profit exempted is the net
profit included in the total income and not the gross profit of the business.
Sub-section (2) enlists those sums which are allowed as deductions. Clause (a)
of s/s. (2) includes seven kinds of co-operative societies which are entitled
to this benefit, and in respect of the co-operative societies engaged in the
activities mentioned in those seven classes, the whole of the amount of profits
and gains of business attributable to anyone or more of such activities is
exempted from income by allowing the said income as deduction.

 

The Supreme
Court observed that in the present petition it was concerned with sub-clause
(i) of Clause (a) of sub-section (2) of section 80P, which enlisted a
co-operative society engaged in carrying on the business of banking or
providing credit facilities to its members.

 

The Supreme
Court observed that there could not be any dispute to the proposition that
section 80P of the Act was a benevolent provision which was enacted by the
Parliament in order to encourage and promote growth of co-operative sector in
the economic life of the country. It was done pursuant to declared policy of
the Government. Therefore, such a provision had to be read liberally,
reasonably and in favour of the Assessee (See-Bajaj Tempo Limited, Bombay
vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Bombay City-III, Bombay
(1992) 3 SCC 78).
It was also trite that such a provision had to be construed as to effectuate
the object of the Legislature and not to defeat it (See-Commissioner of
Income Tax, Bombay and Ors. vs. Mahindra and Mahindra Limited and Ors.

(1983) 4 SCC 392). Therefore, all those co-operative societies which fall
within the purview of section 80P of the Act are entitled to deduction in
respect of any income referred to in s/s. (2) thereof. Clause (a) of s/s. (2)
gives exemption of whole of the amount of profits and gains of business
attributable to anyone or more of such activities which are mentioned in s/s.
(2).

 

The Supreme
Court held that sub-section (i) of Clause (a) of sub-section (2), with which it
was concerned, recognised two kinds of co-operative societies, namely: (i)
those carrying on the business of banking and; (ii) those providing credit
facilities to its members.

 

The Supreme
Court referring to its decisions in the case of Kerala State Cooperative
Marketing Federation Limited and Ors. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax
(1998)
5 SCC 48, and of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in the case of Commissioner
of Income Tax vs. Punjab State Co-operative Bank Ltd
. (2008) 300 ITR 24
(Punjab & Haryana H.C.), observed that if the income of a society is
falling within any one head of exemption, it has to be exempted from tax
notwithstanding that the condition of other heads of exemption are not
satisfied.

 

The Supreme
Court noted that with the insertion of s/s. (4) by the Finance Act, 2006, which
was in the nature of a proviso to the aforesaid provision, it was made clear
that such a deduction would not be admissible to a co-operative bank. However,
if it was a primary agriculture credit society or a primary co-operative
agriculture and rural development bank, the deduction would still be provided.
Thus, co-operative banks were specifically excluded from the ambit of section
80P of the Act.

 

According to
the Supreme Court, if one had to go by the aforesaid definition of
‘co-operative bank’, the Appellant did not get covered thereby. It was also a
matter of common knowledge that in order to do the business of a co-operative
bank, it was imperative to have a licence from the Reserve Bank of India, which
the Appellant did not possess. The Reserve Bank of India itself had clarified
that the business of the Appellant did not amount to that of a co-operative
bank. The Appellant, therefore, would not come within the mischief of
sub-section (4) of section 80P.

 

However,
according to the Supreme Court, the main reason for disentitling the Appellant
from getting the deduction provided u/s. 80P of the Act was not s/s. (4)
thereof. What has been noticed by the Assessing Officer, after discussing in
detail the activities of the Appellant, was that the activities of the
Appellant were in violations of the provisions of the Mutually Aided Co-op
Societies Act, 1995 (MACSA) under which it is registered. It was pointed out by
the Assessing Officer that the Assessee was catering to two distinct categories
of people. The first category was that of resident members or ordinary members.
In the opinion of the Supreme Court, there may not be any difficulty as far as
this category was concerned. However, the Assessee had carved out another
category of ‘nominal members’. These were those members who were making
deposits with the Assessee for the purpose of obtaining loans, etc. and,
in fact, they are not members in real sense. Most of the business of the
Appellant was with this second category of persons who had given deposits which
were kept in Fixed Deposits with a motive to earn maximum returns. A portion of
these deposits was utilised to advance gold loans, etc. to the members
of the first category. It was found, as a matter of fact, that the depositors
and borrowers were quiet distinct. In reality, such activity of the Appellant
was that of finance business and could not be termed as co-operative society.
It was also found that the Appellant was engaged in the activity of granting
loans to general public as well. All this was done without any approval from
the Registrar of the Societies. With indulgence in such kind of activity by the
Appellant, it was remarked by the Assessing Officer that the activity of the
Appellant was in violation of the Co-operative Societies Act. Moreover, it was
a co-operative credit society which was not entitled to deduction u/s. 80P
(2)(a)(i) of the Act.

 

The Supreme
Court noted that a specific finding was also rendered that the principle of
mutuality was missing in the instant case.

 

According to
the Supreme Court, these were the findings of fact which had remained unshaken
till the stage of the High Court. Once the aforesaid aspects were taken into
consideration, the conclusion was obvious, namely, the Appellant could not be
treated as a co-operative society meant only for its members and providing
credit facilities to its members.

 

The Supreme
Court held that such a society could not claim the benefit of section 80P of
the Act. The appeal, therefore, was dismissed with costs.

 

11.  Offences and Prosecution – If there is an
attempt to evade tax of the amount less than the monetary limit prescribed in
the Circular, no prosecution should be launched.

 

Suresh
Sholapurmath and Ors. vs. Income Tax Department and Ors. (2017) 397 ITR 145
(SC)

 

The assessee
was liable to pay Rs.1465. Rs. 465 was paid but, the document was tampered with
by showing it as Rs.1465.

 

The Karnataka
High Court refused to quash the prosecution proceedings against the Appellants.
The High Court declined to follow the Circular which provided that if there is
an attempt to evade tax of less than Rs.25,000, no prosecution could be
launched. According to the High Court, this was not a case of evasion of tax
but of furnishing of false declaration and hence circular would not be of any
assistance to the assessee.

 

The Supreme
Court noted that the amount involved is small, and was paid with interest long
ago. According to the Supreme Court, the Circular dated February 7, 1992
squarely applied and, therefore, no proceedings should have been filed as the
amount was below Rs. 25,000. In view of this, the Supreme Court set aside the
judgement of the High Court and quashed the proceeding against the appellants.

 

12.  Interest on Refund – Whether an assessee is
entitled to interest u/s. 244A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on excess self
assessment tax – The High Court could not have disagreed with the decision of a
co-ordinate Bench – Appropriate course of action would have been to refer the
matter to a larger Bench

 

Engineers
India Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Income Tax (2017) 397 ITR 16 (SC)

 

The issue
before the Supreme Court pertained to grant of interest u/s. 244A of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 for the Assessment Year 2006-07.

 

The impugned
judgment of the High Court revealed that another judgment of the Co-ordinate
Bench of the same High Court in the case of CIT vs. Sutlej Industries Ltd.
[2010] 325 ITR 331 (Delhi) was cited wherein the view taken was that in such
circumstances the Assessee would be entitled to interest u/s. 244A of the Income-tax
Act on the refund of the self-assessment tax. The High Court however did not
agree with the aforesaid view and made the following observation:

 

Having
found the position of law as indicated above, we express, with respect, our
inability to subscribe to, or follow, the view taken by the other Division
Bench of this Court in the case of CIT vs. Sutlej Industries Ltd.”

 

The Supreme
Court held that in the impugned judgment, the Bench had differed with the
earlier view expressed by the Co-ordinate Bench. In the circumstances,
according to the Supreme Court, the appropriate course of action would have
been to refer the matter to the larger Bench.

 

The Supreme
Court noted that subsequently in the case of Sutlej Industries Ltd. vs. CIT
(I.T.A. Nos. 493 of 2003 and 120 of 2004) [2005] 272 ITR 180 (Delhi) pending
before the High Court, the High Court had referred the matter to a larger
Bench. In these circumstances, the Supreme Court set aside the impugned
judgment of the High Court and remanded the appeal to the High Court for its
decision afresh along with I.T.A. Nos. 493 of 2003 and 120 of 2004 by a larger
Bench.

 

The appeal was
disposed of accordingly.

 

13.  Non-resident – Permanent Establishment – No
part of the main business and revenue earning activity of the two American
companies was carried on through a fixed business place in India put at their
disposal – The Indian company only rendered support services which enabled the
assessees in turn to render services to their clients abroad – This outsourcing
of work to India would not give rise to a fixed place or service PE

 

ADIT vs.
E-Funds IT Solution Inc. (2017) 399 ITR 34 (SC)

 

The assesses,
e-Funds Corporation, USA [e-Funds Corp] and e-Funds IT Solutions Group Inc.,
USA [e-Funds Inc] were companies incorporated in United States of America [USA]
and were residents of the said country. They were assessed and had paid taxes
on their global income in USA. e-Funds Corp was the holding company having
almost 100% shares in IDLX Corporation, another company incorporated in USA.
IDLX Corporation held almost 100% shares in IDLX International BV, incorporated
in Netherlands and later in turn held almost 100% shares in IDLX Holding BV,
which was a subsidiary again incorporated in Netherlands. IDLX Holding BV was almost
a 100% shareholder of e-Funds International India Private Limited, a company
incorporated and resident of India [e-Funds India] IDLX International BV was
also the parent/holding company having almost 100% shares in e-Funds Inc.,
which, as noticed above, was a company incorporated in USA.

 

Both e-Funds
Inc. and e-Funds Corp. had entered into international transactions with e-Funds
India. e-Funds India being a domestic company and resident in India was taxed
on the income earned in India as well as its global income in accordance with
the provisions of the Income–tax Act. The international transactions between
the assessees and e-Funds India and the income of e-Funds India, it was
accepted, were made subject matter of arms length pricing adjudication by the
Transfer Pricing Officer [TPO] and the Assessing Officer [AO] in the returns of
income filed by e-Funds India.

 

The assessing
authority for assessment years 2000-01 to 2002-03 and 2004-05 to 2007- 08 in
the case of e-Funds Corporation, USA and for assessment years 2000-01 to
2002-03 and 2005-06 to 2007- 08 in the case of e-Funds IT Solutions Group Inc.,
USA decided that the assessees had a permanent establishment [PE] as they had a
fixed place where they carried on their own business in Delhi, and that,
consequently, Article 5 of the India U.S. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
of 1990 [DTAA] was attracted. Consequently, the assessees were liable to pay
tax in respect of what they earned from the aforesaid fixed place PE in India.

 

The CIT
(Appeals) dismissed the appeals of the assessees holding that Article 5 was
attracted, not only because there was a fixed place where the assessees carried
on their business, but also because they were having “service PEs” and “agency
PEs” under Article 5.

 

In an appeal to
the ITAT, the ITAT held that the CIT (Appeals) was right in holding that a case
of “fixed place PE” and “service PE” had been made out under Article 5, but
said nothing about the “agency PE” as that was not argued by the Revenue before
the ITAT. However, the ITAT, on a calculation formula different from that of
the CIT (Appeals), arrived at a nil figure of income for all the relevant
assessment years.

 

The appeal of
the assessees to the Delhi High Court proved successful [(2014) 364 ITR 256
(Delhi)] and the High Court, by an elaborate judgment, has set aside the
findings of all the authorities referred to above, and further dismissed the
cross-appeals of the Revenue.

Consequently,
the Revenue was in appeal before the Supreme Court.

 

The Supreme
Court observed that the Income-tax Act, in particular section 90 thereof, does
not speak of the concept of a PE. This is a creation only of the DTAA. By
virtue of Article 7(1) of the DTAA, the business income of companies which are
incorporated in the US will be taxable only in the US, unless it is found that
they were having PEs in India, in which event their business income, to the
extent to which it is attributable to such PEs, would be taxable in India. The
Supreme Court noted that Article 5 of the DTAA provides for three distinct
types of PEs with which it was concerned in the present case: fixed place of
business PE under Articles 5(1) and 5(2); service PE under Article 5(2) (l) and
agency PE under Article 5(4). According to the Supreme Court, specific and
detailed criteria are set out in the aforesaid provisions in order to fulfill
the conditions of these PEs existing in India. The burden of proving the fact
that a foreign assessee has a PE in India and must, therefore, suffer tax from
the business generated from such PE is initially on the Revenue.

 

In the context
of fixed place PE, on the behalf of the Revenue, it was argued that under
Article 5(1) of the DTAA, on the facts of these cases, a case of fixed place PE
has been made out. In support of this, it was, inter-alia, pointed out
that: Most of the employees are in India (In fact, the High Court records that
40% of the employees of the entire group are in India). e-Funds Corp has call
centers and software development centers only in India. e-Funds Corp is
essentially doing marketing work only and its contracts with clients are
assigned, or sub-contracted to e-Funds India. The master services agreement
between the American and the Indian entity gives complete control to the
American entity in regard to personnel employed by the Indian entity. It is
only through the proprietary database and software of e-Funds Corp, that
e-Funds India carries out its functions for e-Funds Corp. The High Court
records that the software, intangible data etc. is provided free of cost
and then states that this is irrelevant. The Corporate office of e-Funds India
houses an ‘International Division’ comprising the President’s office and a
sales team servicing e-Funds India and eFunds group entities in the United
Kingdom, South East Asia, Australia and Venezuela. The President’s office
primarily oversees operations of e-Funds India and eFunds group entities
overseas. The sales team undertakes marketing efforts for affiliate entities
also. The Transfer Pricing [TP] Report says that e-Funds India provides
management support and marketing support services to eFunds Corp group
companies outside India. Regarding supervision of personnel rendering the
services, the TP Report states that “The President’s office manages the
operations of eFunds India and eFunds group entities in UK and Australia and
accordingly, employees of these entities report to the President. The
President’s overall reporting is to EFC. Though the personnel rendering
marketing services are employees of EFI, they report to overseas group entities
to the extent that they are engaged in rendering services to such entities.”
Heavy reliance was also placed upon the Form 10 K report dtd. 31/3/2003 filed
by the e-Fund Corp for the group with the United States Securities and Exchange
Commission.

 

The Revenue’s
counsel had further submitted that on these facts, the assessees satisfy the
requirements of fixed place PE. For this, reliance was also placed on the judgment
of the Apex Court in the case of Formula One World Championship Ltd. [(2017)
394 ITR 80 (SC)] [Formula One] and contented that physically located premises
are at the disposal of the assessees with the degree of permanence required,
viz., the entire year. It was also contended that the High Court was not right
in holding that the place of management PE under Article 5(2)(a) was prima
facie made out, but since the said provision had not been invoked and requires
factual determination, the Revenue’s argument is dismissed on this score. Heavy
reliance was also placed on the MAP settlement made for the Asst. Years 2003-04
and 2004-05 by the assessees to contend that the assessees have admitted for
those years that some income is attributable to their Indian PEs and this
admission would continue to bind the assessees in all subsequent years.

 

On the other
hand, on behalf of the assessees, it was, inter-alia, contended that the
tests for determining the existence of fixed place PE have now been settled by
the Apex Court in the case Formula One (supra). These require that the
fixed place must be at the disposal of assessees, which means that the
assessees must have a right to use the premises for the purpose of his own
business and that has not been made out in the facts of this case. The TPO has
specifically held that whatever is paid under various agreements between the
assessees and the Indian company are at arm’s length pricing and this being the
case, even if fixed place PE is found, once arm’s length price is paid, the US
companies go out of the net of Indian taxation. Referring to Article 5(6) of
the DTAA, it was further contended that mere fact that a 100 per cent
subsidiary is carrying on the business in India does not by itself means that
the holding company would have a PE in India. It was also further pointed out
that ultimately there are four businesses that the assessees are engaged in
viz., ATM Management Services, Electronic Payment Management, Decision Support
and Risk Management and Global Outsourcing and Professional Services. All these
businesses are carried on outside India and the property through they are
carried out viz., ATM networks, software solutions and other hardware networks
and information technology infrastructure were all located outside India. The
activities of e-Funds India are independent business activities on which, as
has been noticed by the High Court, independent profits are made and income is
assessed to tax in India. For this, a specific reference was also made to the report
of Deloitte Haskins and Sells dated 13/3/2009, which was produced before the
CIT (A). It was further contended that MAP settlement made for the Asst Years
2003-04 and 2004-05 cannot be considered as precedent to hold that there is a
PE in subsequent years. In fact, this settlement was without prejudice to the
assessees contention that they have no PE in India and it is also clarified in
the follow-up letters that the same is not binding on subsequent years.

 

Since the
Revenue originally relied on fixed place of business PE, the Supreme Court
tackled it first. The Supreme Court observed that under Article 5(1), a PE
means a fixed place of business through which the business of an enterprise is
wholly or partly carried on. According to the Supreme Court, what is a “fixed
place of business” was no longer res integra. In Formula One’s case (supra),
it had after setting out Article 5 of the DTAA, held that the principal test,
in order to ascertain as to whether an establishment has a fixed place of
business or not, is that such physically located premises have to be ‘at the
disposal’ of the enterprise. For this purpose, it is not necessary that the
premises are owned or even rented by the enterprise. It will be sufficient if
the premises are put at the disposal of the enterprise. However, merely giving
access to such a place to the enterprise for the purposes of the project would
not suffice. The place would be treated as ‘at the disposal’ of the enterprise
when the enterprise has right to use the said place and has control thereupon.

 

Thus, it was
clear that there must exist a fixed place of business in India, which was at
the disposal of the US companies, through which they carry on their own
business. There was, in fact, no specific finding in the assessment order or
the appellate orders that applying the aforesaid tests, any fixed place of
business had been put at the disposal of these companies. The assessing
officer, CIT (Appeals) and the ITAT had essentially adopted a fundamentally
erroneous approach in saying that they were contracting with a 100% subsidiary
and were outsourcing business to such subsidiary, which resulted in the
creation of a PE. The High Court has dealt with this aspect in some detail and
the Supreme Court agreed with the findings of the High Court in this regard.

 

The Supreme
Court further held that the reliance placed by the Revenue on the United States
Securities and Exchange Commission Form 10K Report, as had been correctly
pointed out by the High Court, is also misplaced. It is clear that this report
evidently speaks of the e- Funds group of companies worldwide as a whole.

 

According to
the Supreme Court, the Deloitte’s report dated 31/03/2009 [which was produced
before the CIT(Appeals)] showed that no part of the main business and revenue
earning activity of the two American companies was carried on through a fixed
business place in India which had been put at their disposal. It was clear from
the report that the Indian company only rendered support services which enabled
the assessees in turn to render services to their clients abroad. This
outsourcing of work to India would not give rise to a fixed place PE and the
High Court judgment was, therefore, correct on this score.

 

In the context
of existence of service PE under Article 5(2)(l) of the DTAA, in addition to
some of the facts pointed for fixed place PE [including the fact of TP report
regarding supervision of personnel rendering service], it was, inter-alia,
further pointed out by Revenue’s counsel that: The Master sub-contractor
agreement between e-Funds Corp and e-Funds India discussed in the CIT(A)’s
order provides in clause 1.1(a) that : “Subcontractors personnel assigned to
work with eFunds IT or Customers located in the United States shall be directed
by eFunds IT or by Subcontractors supervisor acting at the direction of eFunds
IT. In the event Subcontractors personnel are assigned to perform such services
in India, the Subcontractor shall supervise such work, acting at the direction
of eFunds IT. eFunds IT shall be the sole judge of performance and capability
of each of subcontractors personnel and may request the removal of one or more
of Subcontractors personnel from a project covered by any statement of work as
follows.” It is submitted that the personnel engaged in providing these
services were ostensibly the employees of e-Funds India but were de facto
working under the control and supervision of eFunds Corp. In this regard,
reference was made to relevant part of the judgement in DIT vs. Morgan
Stanley and Company Inc.
[(2007) 292 ITR 416 (SC)]. Furthermore, the AO in
the Assessment Order has observed that e-Funds Corp has seconded two employees
to e-Funds India and these employees worked as Sr. Director Technical Services and Country
Head-Business Development. The activities of the seconded employees go beyond
mere ‘stewardship activities’ in terms of Morgan Stanley’s case [supra].
The term ‘Other Personnel’ has to be seen in the context of the facts of this
case which show that e-Funds India was not an independent subsidiary.

 

In the context
of service PE, in addition to some of the points made out in connection with
non-existence of fixed place PE,  the
assessee’s counsel, inter alia, further contended that under Article
5(2)(l) of the DTAA, it is necessary that the foreign enterprises must provide
services to customers who are in India, which is not Revenue’s case as all
their customers exist only outside India. It was also pointed out that the
entire personnel engaged only by the Indian company and the facts that the US
companies may indirectly control such employees is only for the purpose of
protecting their own interest. The reliance was also placed on the judgment of
the Supreme Court in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra).

 

Insofar as a
service PE was concerned, the Supreme Court noted that the requirement of
Article 5(2)(l) of the DTAA was that an enterprise must furnish services
“within India” through employees or other personnel. In this regard, the
Supreme Court referred to its judgment in Morgan Stanley’s case (supra)
and noted that none of the customers of the assessees were located in India or
have received any services in India. This being the case, it was clear that the
very first ingredient contained in Article 5(2)(l) was not satisfied.

 

However, the
learned Attorney General, relying upon paragraph 42.31 of the OECD Commentary,
had argued that services have to be furnished within India, which does not mean
that they have to be furnished to customers in India. Para 42.31 of the OECD
Commentary states that “Whether or not the relevant services are furnished to a
resident of a state does not matter: what matters is that the services are
performed in the State through an individual present in that State.”

 

Based upon the
said paragraph, it was argued that in assessment year 2005-06, two employees of
the American company were seconded in India and that, therefore, it was clear
that management of the American company through these employees had obviously
taken place. The High Court, in dealing with this contention, had found it was
not known as to what functions they performed and to whom they reported and it
was also not known whether the services were performed related to services
provided to an associated enterprise in which case clause 5(2)(l)(ii) would be
applicable. According to the High Court, whether the seconded employees were
performing stewardship services or were directly involved with the working
operations was relevant. It was the case of the assessee that they were deputed
to look towards development of domestic work in India and cost of such
personnel was fully borne e-Funds India. They were working under the control
and supervision of e-Funds India. This factual assertion was not negated or
questioned by the AO.

 

The Supreme
Court agreed with the approach of the High Court in this regard. It held that
para 42.31 of the OECD Commentary does not mean that services need not be
rendered by the foreign assessees in India. If any customer is rendered a
service in India, whether resident in India or outside India, a “service PE”
would be established in India. As noticed hereinabove, no customer, resident or
otherwise, received any service in India from the assessees. All its customers
received services only in locations outside India. Only auxiliary operations
that facilitated such services were carried out in India. This being so, it was
not necessary to advert to the other ground namely, that “other personnel”
would cover personnel employed by the Indian company as well, and that the US
companies through such personnel were furnishing services in India. This being
the case, it was clear that as the very first part of Article 5(2)(l) was not
attracted, the question of going to any other part of the said Article did not
arise. It was perhaps for this reason that the AO did not give any finding on
this score.

 

The Supreme
Court agreed with the assessee’s counsel that the “agency PE” aspect of the
case need not be gone into as it was given up before the ITAT. However, the
Supreme Court was of the view that for the sake of completeness, it was
necessary to agree with the High Court, that it had never been the case of
Revenue that e-Funds India was authorised to or exercised any authority to
conclude contracts on behalf of the US company, nor was any factual foundation
laid to attract any of the said clauses contained in Article 5(4) of the DTAA.

 

Dealing with
the issue of effect of MAP settlement for the Asst. Years 2003-04 and 2004-05,
the Supreme Court referred to the relevant paras of OECD Manual on MAP and, in
particular, Best Practice No.3, relied on by the Revenue’s counsel and noted
that this would show that a competent authority should engage in discussion
with the other competent authority in a principled, fair and objective manner,
with each case being decided on its own merits. It is also specifically
observed that, where an agreement is not otherwise achievable, then both
parties should look for appropriate opportunities for compromise in order to
eliminate double taxation on the facts of the case, even though a principled
approach is important. The learned Attorney General also relied upon Best
Practice No. 1 of the said OECD Manual, which requires the publication of
mutual agreements reached that may apply to a general category of taxpayers
which would then improve guidance for the future. According to the Supreme
Court, the Best Practice No. 1 has no application on the facts of the present
case, as the agreement reached applies only to the respondent companies, and not
to any general category of taxpayers. It is clear, therefore, that the
assessee’s counsel Shri Ganesh is right in replying upon para 3.6 of the OECD
Manual, which deals with settlements which are often case and time specific and
they are not considered as precedents for the tax-payers or the tax
administration. It is very clear, therefore, that such agreement cannot be
considered as a precedent for subsequent year, and the High Court’s conclusion
on this aspect is also correct.

Note: In the above case, in the context of fixed place PE, the Court has followed internationally accepted tests confirmed by the Supreme Court in the case of Formula One (supra) and applied the same to the facts found by the High Court in this case. The judgement in Formula One’s case is digested in this column in the last month and since this case, in this respect, follows the same, it is thought fit to consider in this column in this month, which is now also reported in ITR. In the context of service PE, primarily it has relied on its earlier judgment in the case of Morgan Stanley (supra), which has been analysed in greater detail by us in this journal in the column Closements in the months of September/October, 2007. The above judgement is also primarily based on the factual findings of the High Court and also based on certain lack of findings of facts at the lower level. As such, this judgement should be read, understood and applied accordingly. For the purpose of deciding the issues raised in this case, the Court has also referred to and considered the relevant part of OECD commentaries on OECD Model as well as by learned authors Klaus Vogel & Arvind A. Skaar (on PE) and also the OECD Manual on MAP etc. _

 


From The President

Dear Members,

You can start over as many times as you want...seems to me one of the most simplest, yet
sensible mantras with which to leap into the New Year. The key word being
‘start’, for all too often we stay in a rut of complacency or indifference,
severely harming our well being. So let’s start making our dreams happen, by
changing the old ways that keep pulling us down. Let’s make resolutions…and
even if we break them…let’s start again! Let’s fly higher on the wings of our
intuition and imagination…and should we falter, we can always start again!

 

As we work for a better New India, let us all try to be part of the
solution. Let’s earnestly remove the blinkers of prejudice and hate and start
building bridges with people of all strata, religion and region. Let us
cultivate a sense of integrity and responsibility that we may enhance the world
around us. In doing this, I truly believe that we will be better equipped to
work together and grow our economy much faster. And more importantly, we will
be able to enjoy the fruits of the economic growth, much better. Can we start
now…and start again…and again?

 

GST was successfully launched this year but now is facing some
implementation hiccups. It was basically designed to streamline the tax
systems, while raising revenue, but now after five months it appears to be
falling short on the revenue side. GST tax returns filed for the July to
September 2017 period by around six lakh assessees under the ‘composition’
scheme show a meagre tax payment of around Rs. 250 crore thereby hinting at a
massive tax evasion by these smaller taxpayers. The composition scheme is a
special one to make GST filing easier for small firms; apart from simpler tax
procedures, the returns have to be filed once a quarter. To that extent, the
government’s plan to bring in the e-way bill and other ways to plug tax theft
are quite justified.

 

The focus of the Council is clearly now on boosting revenue collection.
The Council has already decided to do a nation-wide roll-out of the electronic
way bill from June 1 to enhance enforcement and eliminate any leakages. The
roll-out of the bill for inter-state movement of goods is being advanced to
February 1. Only after revenue collections stabilise and compliance increases,
will the Council consider any further streamlining of rates or merging of
slabs.

 

During the entire year 2017, BCAS also played a significant role in GST
by educating its members and the public through its various lectures, seminars,
workshops and conferences. More than 5K people benefited from these initiatives
of the Society. 

 

The year is on its last legs but there’s plenty of enthusiasm in the
stock markets, with the Sensex crossing the 34K mark. The Nifty on the NSE too
spiralled up closing at a record high of 10K plus. The buoyancy reflects the
widespread optimism that prevails in the markets. With SEBI paving the way for
Universal Exchanges, investors will soon be able to trade both securities and
commodities on a single platform, which will further catalyse growth.

 

And there’s more good news in the making…the Centre for Economics and
Business Research in its recent report has said that India is set to become the
fifth largest economy in the World in 2018, overtaking France and UK. The 9th
edition of the World Economic League table that tracks economies and forecasts
changes, believes that India will witness robust growth having got over the
effects of demonetisation and GST roll-out issues. The IMF too re-echoes this
projection, estimating a growth of 7.2% this year and 7.7% in 2018-19.

 

2017 was a year filled with some notable achievements for Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO). Our scientists set a world record with the launch
of the largest number of satellites in a single launch, and a rocket launch
(GSLV Mark III) with the heaviest payload. Providing a reliable, low cost
option, it launched a whopping 130 customer satellites in this year alone! And
not just the numbers, ISRO launched satellites ranging from 3136 kg to a meagre
4g! ISRO has now recognized its ability to launch satellites on a commercial
scale with multiple multi-satellite launches. Continuing with its tradition to
encourage student participation, ISRO also launched another student satellite
this year.

 

Today India is the toast and envy of many nations. One of its biggest
assets is its youth which is estimated to be around 968 million (people above
15 years). According to a survey conducted by BSE-CMIE, the number of employed
people in the country is around 405 million. Every year around 26 million join
the workforce, but only about 1.5 million get employment. A leading newspaper
put it very appropriately saying, “… if the pace of job creation is not
accelerated, the demographic bonus could become a demographic onus”.

 

Niti Aayog, the government’s premier think-tank is clearly on the job.
Its Vice Chairman Rajiv Kumar, who is working on the vision document of New
India@2022 says the new focus is on agricultural transformation, malnutrition,
higher education and employment generation. One of the priorities for 2018 is
to push India’s exports as out-bound shipments play a critical role in creating
high quality jobs.

 

The Society’s various Committees are putting in lots of efforts to
organise quality programs for the benefit of its members. However, it is really
alarming that many of these programs are not finding the right number of member
audience planned to make them effective both in terms of costs and also
inviting top notch speakers. The organisers get disheartened when these are
curtailed or even at times cancelled. I sincerely appeal to all members to take
benefit and enrol themselves to such top-quality programs for which BCAS is
known for across the country.

 

I would like to end with an inspiring quote delivered recently by
Mukesh Ambani to the Reliance Family, “…achieving your potential is the quest
of the ordinary…conquering the impossible is your destiny.” The new year is
here…let’s make the best of it…even if we have to keep starting again…and
again! All the very best, Dear Members!

 

Wishing you a happy Makar Sankranti, Pongal and of course our 68th
Republic Day!!

 

Feel free to write to me on president@bcasonline.org

 

With kind regards

CA. Narayan Pasari

President

Indirect Taxes

Service Tax Updates

81.  Jurisdiction for
online services from non taxable territory

Notification No. 50/2016 – ST
dated 22.11.2016

This Notification seeks to amend
notification No. 20/2014-ST dated 16th September, 2014 so as to
provide exclusive jurisdiction to LTU-Bangalore with respect to online
information and database access or retrieval services provided or agreed to be
provided by a person located in non-taxable territory and received by a
‘non-assessee online recipient’.

82.  Online information
and database access or retrieval services excluded from the definition of
“telecommunication Services”

Notification No. 51/2016 – ST
dated 30.11.2016

This Notification seeks to amend
Place of Provision of Services Rules, 2012 so as to exclude ‘online information
and database access or retrieval services’ from the definition of
‘telecommunication services’. 

83.  No service tax on
card transactions of upto Rs. 2,000/-

Notification No. 52/2016 -ST
dated 08.12.2016

This Notification seeks to amend
exemption notification No. 25/2012-ST dated 20.06.2012 so as to exempt services
by an acquiring bank, to any person in relation to settlement of an amount upto
two thousand rupees in a single transaction transacted through credit card,
debit card, charge card or other payment card service.

MVAT UPDATES

84.  Computerisation
Desk Audit (CDA) for the period 2013-14

Trade Circular 37T of 2016 Dated
25.11.2016

The MVAT Department has generated
Computer Desk Audit Report for the period 2013-14 which is accessible to dealer
on website www.mahavat.gov.in and dealer can submit compliance electronically
before 20.12.2016. Detailed procedure is explained in this circular.

Direct Taxes

67.  Sub-rule (3)
inserted in rule 8AA to determine the date of acquisition of capital asset
declared under the Income Declaration Scheme, 2016. – Income–tax (34th  Amendment) Rules, 2016 


Notification No. 108 dated 29th November 2016

68.  Revenue subsidies
received from the Government towards reimbursement of cost of
production/manufacture or for sale of the manufactured goods are part of
profits and gains of business derived from the Industrial Undertaking/eligible
business, and are thus, admissible for applicable deduction under Chapter VI-A
of the Act


 Circular No. 39 dated 29th
November 2016

69.  Clarifications
with respect to the permissible quantity of Gold Jewellery held by an
individual

Press Release dated 1st December 2016

70.  Procedure for the
purposes of furnishing and verification of Form 26A for removing of default of
Short Deduction and/or Non Deduction of Tax at Source

 Notification No. 11
dated 2nd December 2016

71.  Procedure for the
purposes of furnishing and verification of Form 27BA for removing of default of
Short Collection and/or Non Collection of Tax at Source

Notification No. 12 dated 8th December 2016

72.  Reopening u/s. 147
of the Act is feasible only when the Assessing Officer “has reason to
believe that any income chargeable to tax has escaped assessment” and not
merely on the basis of any reason to suspect. Mere increase in turnover,
because of use of digital means of payment or otherwise, in a particular year
cannot be a sole reason to believe that income has escaped assessment in
earlier years. Hence, Assessing Officers are advised not to reopen past assessments
merely on the ground that the current year’s turnover has increased

Circular No. 40 dated 9th December 2016

73.  Return of income
can be revised u/s. 139(5) of the Act for rectifying any omission or wrong
statement made in the original return of income and not for resorting to make
changes in the income initially declared so as to drastically alter the form,
substance and quantum of the earlier disclosed income. Any instance coming to
the notice of Income-tax Department which reflects manipulation in the amount
of income, cash-in-hand, profits etc. and fudging of accounts may necessitate
scrutiny of such cases so as to ascertain the correct income of the year and
may also attract penalty/prosecution in appropriate cases as per provision of
law. –

Press Release dated 14th December 2016

74.  Pradhan Mantri
Garib Kalyan Deposit Scheme, 2016 notified

Notification No. S.O.4061 (E) dated 16th December 2016

75.  Taxation and
Investment Regime for Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana Rules, 2016 notified

Notification No. 116 dated 16th December 2016

76.  Rate of deemed
profit provided u/s 44AD of 8% of Total turnover or gross reduced to  6% in respect of the amount of total turnover
or gross receipts received through banking channel/digital means for the
financial year 2016-17. Legislative amendment in this regard shall be carried
out through the Finance Bill, 2017

Announcement by the Government on 19th December,
2016

77.  Clarifications on
Indirect Transfer provisions under the 
Act-

Circular No. 41 dated 21st December 2016

78.  Up to 30 December
2016 payment towards tax, surcharge, penalty and deposit under the Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana can be made in old Bank Notes of Rupees 500 and
Rupees 1000 denomination 

Press Release dated 22nd December 2016.

79.  Reporting of
transaction  for  serial no. 11 of Rule 114E(2) is required
only if  cash payment is received  for sale of goods or services in excess
of  Rupees two lakh per transaction

Press release dated 22nd December, 2016

80.  Certain
clarifications have been issued on Direct Tax Dispute Resolution Scheme, 2016-

Circular no. 42 dated 23rd December 2016

Direct Taxes

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Rule 127 inserted to provide that service of notice, summons, requisition, order and other communication may be done by email. The Rule further provides the address at which the same can be served –

Notification No. 89 dated 2nd December 2015- Income-tax (18th Amendment) Rules, 2015

TDS on Salaries for Financial year 2015-16:

Circular No. 20 dated 2nd December 2015

CBDT increases the monetary limits for filing of appeals by the department before the ITAT and High Courts and SLP before the Supreme Court. CBDT has directed that the said instruction shall apply retrospectively to pending appeals and that all appeals below the specified tax limits should be withdrawn/ not pressed. However, appeals before the Supreme Court are to be governed by the limits operative at the time that the appeal was filed –

Circular 21 dated 10th December 2015

DTAA between India and Thailand notified-

Notification No. 88 dated 1st December 2015

The Government of India and the Government of Japan sign a Protocol for amending the existing DTAA –

PIB Press Release dated 11th December 2015

Rule 10D, 10THA, 10THB, 10THC, 10THD and Form 3CEFB amended to amend the safe harbour rules and to specify the information and documents required to be maintained by an eligible assessee. –

Notification No. 90 dated 8th December 2015- Income-tax (19th Amendment) Rules, 2015

Rule 12CB inserted and Form 64C prescribed , which is required to be furnished by the investment fund to the Income tax authorities.-

Notification No. 92 dated 11th December 2015- Income-tax (20th Amendment) Rules, 2015

Amendments to section 43B of the Act to be given effect to retrospectively in light of the Apex Court judgment in case of Alom Extrusions –

Circular no. 22/2015 dated 17.12.15

Rule 37BB amended and information for payment to non residents in Forms 15CA / 15CB and 15CC modified and simplified – Income tax (21st Amendment) Rules, 2015 dated 16.12.15 –

From The President

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Dear Members,

A Happy New Year 2016!

Time changes everything. Time is insurmountable, incomprehensible. Time is short and Time is infinite. Time cannot be owned, it is that which we cannot hoard. Our relationship with time changes our relationship with life itself. Time is the sphere in which all that we know appears and vanishes. New beginnings appear in time and endings seem to stop time.

On the Christmas Eve we lost a person to whom BCAS meant a lot. Shri Narayan Varma, our president in 1978- 79, was a bedrock of support and a fountainhead of inspiration to the Society. He contributed to the activities of the Society in every way possible, for BCAS was so dear to his heart. He carvednew pathways, innovative events and programs and was a living example of what dedication meant. I remember, one day he came to a BCAS committee meeting after being discharged from the hospital the same day or a day before, after a long and serious condition he had undergone treatment for. In spite of his age, experience and seniority he was always approachable and happy to help. Each time I met him, he had a new idea about what we can do at the Society. But he never stopped at giving suggestions alone, he would make things happen. He was relentless, offering voluntary services to several institutions through his time, ideas and money, to initiatives that could result in larger well being of all. We all know him for his remarkable contribution to RTI activities, Shri Narayan Varma authored books, arranged events, ran free RTI clinic, and joined hands with other likeminded institution to foster RTI . BCAS salutes his generous and active voluntary service of more than 5 decades in several roles – as office bearer, president, publisher of BCA Journal, trustee of BCAS Foundation, a member of the managing committee for the longest ever and as someone who was there always, and in all ways.

South India floods & Climate Change
Our hearts go out to people in Tamil Nadu, where several hundred people lost their lives. BCAS launched its fund raising drive to support relief efforts. Many people responded instantly and contributed generously. We are grateful for your support.

Such catastrophe brings into focus the issue of climate change that is likely to affect more than 800 million people in India. A more common sense, urgent and simple solution is what we need. It is said that nearly 2/3 of permissible emission target for the 21st century is already crossed and Homo sapiens continue to poison the roots of its own survival. There is a lot of talk about saving our planet. However, earth does not really need us. Earth has survived millions of years and is more intelligent than our species which has evolved from it. What is needed is – for us to save ourselves.

As I write, December 2015 witnessed devastating floods in the UK too, estimated to have caused damages of more than £ 1.5b. Texas was hit by a tornado during the Christmas weekend. This Christmas has been one of the warmest ever in several parts of the world. Blizzards, storms, floods, tornadoes, forest fires, are some common words we read in news. Our obsession with the word economy and careless disregard for ecology has brought us to the edge not far from a chasm that is deep and dangerous. Although, etymologically, both words come from the root ECO (Oikos, in greek) which means home. Today’s economists still ‘manage’ our home without understanding what ‘home’ is. Unfortunately, all this is making a large number of people walk on the knife’s edge, making us believe we can dodge warning signs that are loud, visible and eloquent. Gaylord Nelson, founder of Earth Day wrote, “The wealth of the nation is its air, water, soil, forests, minerals, rivers, lakes, oceans andbiodiversity. That’s all there is. That’s the whole economy. These biological systems are the sustaining wealth of the world.” Money as the sole measure of growth seems like a silly, absurd and bizarre proposition. Until we end the rule of money, we are stuck in the reverse gear. Like Pope Francis told the World Economic Forum in 2014 – “I ask you to ensure that humanity is served by wealth and not ruled by it”

Many paradigms of ‘growth’ are redundant to the extent that they are misleading. The theme of more and more money, as the pre dominant measure of ‘success’, is leading our species towards the edge of its own destruction. The paradigms of development propounded by the ‘developed’ world have become sure pathways to trouble. In the coming years, India will have to work towards paving a road that is simple and straight. Recent news about one Mr. Manoj Bhargav, bringing out a solution where through cycling one can generate enough power to light a rural household is heartening. India has several innovations that can be quickly implemented and are affordable, and we hope this can be one such solution that will serve our rural brethren. When asked, what he considered as important attributes of such innovations, Manoj said – common sense and a sense of urgency.

A new year is a time to reflect, refresh and re-chart the course of life. It is that time, a threshold that is filled with opportunity, anticipation and fresh perspectives to be explored. I hope we can take up at least three things, one to work on ourselves, one to work for our fellow men and one to improve our personal and family’s environmental record. May the New Year bring peace, love and joy and may you be its mascot in your circle of influence

As I write, December 2015 witnessed devastating floods in the UK too, estimated to have caused damages of more than £ 1.5b. Texas was hit by a tornado during the Christmas weekend. This Christmas has been one of the warmest ever in several parts of the world. Blizzards, storms, floods, tornadoes, forest fires, are some common words we read in news. Our obsession with the word economy and careless disregard for ecology has brought us to the edge not far from a chasm that is deep and dangerous. Although, etymologically, both words come from the root ECO (Oikos, in greek) which means home. Today’s economists still ‘manage’ our home without understanding what ‘home’ is. Unfortunately, all this is making a large number of people walk on the knife’s edge, making us believe we can dodge warning signs that are loud, visible and eloquent. Gaylord Nelson, founder of Earth Day wrote, “The wealth of the nation is its air, water, soil, forests, minerals, rivers, lakes, oceans and biodiversity. That’s all there is. That’s the whole economy. These biological systems are the sustaining wealth of the world.” Money as the sole measure of growth seems like a silly, absurd and bizarre proposition. Until we end the rule of money, we are stuck in the reverse gear. Like Pope Francis told the World Economic Forum in 2014 – “I ask you to ensure that humanity is served by wealth and not ruled by it”

Many paradigms of ‘growth’ are redundant to the extent that they are misleading. The theme of more and more money, as the pre dominant measure of ‘success’, is leading our species towards the edge of its own destruction. The paradigms of development propounded by the ‘developed’ world have become sure pathways to trouble. In the coming years, India will have to work towards paving a road that is simple and straight. Recent news about one Mr. Manoj Bhargav, bringing out a solution where through cycling one can generate enough power to light a rural household is heartening. India has several innovations that can be quickly implemented and are affordable, and we hope this can be one such solution that will serve our rural brethren. When asked, what he considered as important attributes of such innovations,
Manoj said – common sense and a sense of urgency.

A new year is a time to reflect, refresh and re-chart the course of life. It is that time, a threshold that is filled with opportunity, anticipation and fresh perspectives to be explored. I hope we can take up at least three things, one to work on ourselves, one to work for our fellow men and one to improve our personal and family’s environmental record. May the New Year bring peace, love and joy and may you be its mascot in your circle of influence.

Ethics and U

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Arjun (A) — O’Lord, I am very much disturbed today.

Shrikrishna (S) —Why? What happened?

A — I really wonder how to protect myself in the profession!

S — I have been telling you what precautions you need to take. Eternal vigilance, dear Arjuna, eternal vigilance!

A    — I have lost my sleep!

S — Your motto is Ya Esha Supteshu Jagarti. He who is awake when the world around is asleep.

A    — That I know. So long as I am physically awake, I have to be alert, do everything diligently with open eyes. That I understand.

S — Right. Speak the truth; do your duties religiously and never commit default in continuous studies. Not merely for CPE hours, but also for real updation of knowledge.

A — I agree. But now that much is not enough.

S — You need to be disciplined, pro-active and wellorganised! Follow the rules of ethics that we have been discussing all along.

A    — Hey Bhagwan, my worry is absolutely different. Nothing to do with what is in our hands! It is beyond all precautions that one can take!

S — What do you mean? If you follow all these tips, then what is the problem?

A    — Somebody has forged my CA friend’s signature on the balance sheet; and while uploading the returns, put my friend’s name as auditor!

S — How did he come to know about it?

A    — The Banker to whom the client submitted the balance sheet rang him up to confirm whether the CA had really signed it.

S — And the signature tallies?

A — Largely, yes. Very difficult to say that it is not his signature. So skilfully forged!

S — And the seal?

A    — There, fortunately, there is some variation. But there was another case reported in the press. Out of 20 companies in the same group, the promoters forged the signatures of a few auditors. Now the promoter is behind the bars.

S — O h! This is dangerous.

A    — There is already a disciplinary case going on against another friend of mine where balance sheets with his forged signatures were filed with a nationalised bank – in a branch in a totally remote place. This CA has never ever handled any client’s work from that place!

S — Then who filed the complaint?

A    — Obviously, the banker. The borrowers’ accounts became NPAs.

S — I am sure; the borrowers were in collusion with the banker.

A    — That is obvious. That branch manager is facing a departmental enquiry for such malpractices.

S — Then what is the problem?

A    — See, problems are many. Firstly, all our disciplinary proceedings last for not less than 3 to 4 years! So carry that tension. Then, whatever diligence you may have, such things are beyond your control. So, constant fear. Further, your image with the bank unnecessarily gets spoilt.

S — I know one such case. A CA in Kolhapur received some accounts for submission to the bank. He saw that it was apparently signed by a CA in Mumbai who happened to be his friend. Immediately, he called up his friend and asked whether he had really signed it.

A    — Good. That’s how a CA should act. And then what happened? I guess he denied having signed it.

S — You are right! So a lot of trouble was saved. The client destroyed the papers.

A    — But I wonder what one should do in such a situation.

S — I feel, one should inform the police authorities about the forgery.

A    — But in our country, approaching the police is also risky and not easy! They only harass you.

S — Then one should also inform the Institute; so that if at all any complaint comes, this will prove one’s bonafides.

A    — But what will the Institute do?

S — Frankly, at that stage nothing can be done. But at least it is on record.

A    — I think one should write to the bank as well.

S — Bankers should be advised to verify such things as a matter of routine, so that malpractices will be exposed before any damage is caused to anyone.

A — Yes; and it is in the interest of the banker as well. But the unfortunate part is that quite often bankers also could be doing it knowingly.

S — The real solution would perhaps be the digitalisation of signatures.

A — True. But it will take a little more time for that culture to develop fully in our country.

S — But then, you people do not even handle the digital signatures carefully! DSCs are lying anywhere in your offices, indiscreetly.

A    — I know. There are situations where CAs have misplaced clients’ DSCs. Very embarrassing!

S — You must study the provisions of the I.T.

Act – Not merely Income Tax; but Information Technology. DSCs should be preserved with utmost care and security.

Otherwise, even God will find it difficult to save you! And there should be very careful documentation.

A    — Yes, Lord! I fully agree. Prevention is better than cure. We simply can’t afford to handle such things loosely.

S — Remember, today if the manual signature is forged, perhaps the forensic studies will help you. But if it is misuse of digital signature, then don’t even approach ME for help.

A    — Sure, Lord! I will keep it in mind always. Om shanti !!!!!

Note

This dialogue is based on the general principles of diligence in unforeseen situations. _

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

5. Pr. CIT vs. NRA Iron and Steel Pvt. Ltd. (2019) 418 ITR 449 (SC)

 

Notice – Service of notice – Application for recall of ex parte
order – Service of notice on authorised representative – Section 2(35) defines
‘principal officer’ which includes agent of the company and the term ‘agent’
would certainly include a power of attorney holder – No ground for recall of
judgment

 

An application was filed for recall of the judgment for the A.Y. 2009-10
passed by the Supreme Court on the ground that the applicant company was not
served with the notice of the SLP at its registered office, nor was a copy of
the SLP served on the applicant company.

 

The applicants submitted that the court notices
were sent to the earlier registered office address of the company, i.e., at
310, 3rd Floor, B-Block, International Trade Tower, Nehru Place, New Delhi.
However, on 19th May, 2014, the company had changed its registered
office to 211, Somdutt Chambers II, 9, Bhikaji Cama Place, New Delhi 110066.

 

Thereafter, on 23rd January, 2019, the registered office was
again changed to 1205, Cabin No. 1, 89 Hemkunt Chambers, Nehru Place, New
Delhi.

 

The applicants submitted that they learnt of the judgment dated 5th
March, 2019 passed by the Court from a news clipping published in The
Economic Times
on 7th March, 2019. Subsequently, the application
for recall was filed on 12th March, 2019.

 

The company submitted that on an inspection of the court record it
learnt that the affidavit of dasti service filed by the Revenue
Department on 19th December, 2018 showed an acknowledgement receipt
by Mr. Sanjeev Narayan, the chartered accountant of the applicant company, on
13th December, 2018.

 

The company also placed on record the affidavit of Mr. Sanjeev Narayan
wherein he had stated that he was the authorised representative of the company
before the Income Tax authorities but was not engaged before the High Court or
the Supreme Court. He submitted that he had received service on 13th
December, 2018 from one of the Inspectors of the Income Tax Department, but he bona
fide
believed that the documents were ‘some Income Tax return documents
from Income Tax Department.’ He further submitted that he was suffering from an
advanced stage of cataract and had undergone surgery in both eyes, on 4th
January, 2019 and 23rd January, 2019, respectively.

 

The Department in its counter affidavit submitted that the dasti
notice was duly served on Mr. Narayan at his office address, in his capacity as
the authorised representative of the company who was holding a power of
attorney of the company for the A.Y. 2009-10. The POA appointed all four
partners of the firm, i.e., Mr. Mohan Lal, Advocate, Mr. Ashwani Kumar,
Chartered Accountant, Mr. Sanjeev Narayan, Chartered Accountant, and Mr.
Surender Kumar, FCA, as their counsel and authorised them to represent the
company at all stages of the proceedings. The POA executed by the company in
favour of Mr. Sanjeev Narayan was placed on record.

 

It was further submitted on behalf of the Revenue that even though Mr.
Narayan had stated that he underwent the cataract surgery on 4th
January, 2019 and 23rd January, 2019, this was much after the notice
had been served on 13th December, 2018. Further, Mr. Narayan had
appeared before the tax authorities after the date of service on 13th December,
2018, and prior to his surgery, to represent the company and its sister
concerns on the 14th, 21st, 28th and 29th
of December, 2018. In these circumstances, it was pointed out, there was no
merit in the contention raised by the company, and hence no ground was made out
to recall the judgment passed by the Supreme Court.

 

During oral hearing on the recall application, a submission was made by
the counsel for the company that Mr. Sanjeev Narayan was not the ‘principal
officer’ of the company and hence service could not have been effected upon
him.

* The Supreme Court noted that section 2(35) defines ‘principal
officer’, which includes agent of the company and the term ‘agent’ would
certainly include a power of attorney holder {State of Rajasthan vs.
Basant Nehata [2005 (12) SCC 77]}
.

* It held that Mr. Narayan admittedly being the power of attorney holder
of the applicant (M/s. NRA Iron & Steel Pvt. Ltd.) for the A.Y. 2009-10,
was the agent of the company and hence notice could be served on him as the
agent of the company in this case.

* The Supreme Court observed that the ground taken by Mr. Narayan that
even though notice was served on 13th December, 2018, he assumed
that they were ‘some Income Tax return documents’ lacked credibility. It was
difficult to accept that the envelope containing the dasti notice from
this Court was considered to be ‘some Income Tax return documents’. Also, the
deponent had not disclosed as to whether the envelope containing the dasti notice
was ever opened. Further, the ground urged that the chartered accountant was
suffering from an advanced stage of cataract and hence was constrained from
informing his clients, was again not worthy of credence. The dasti notice
was served on him at his office on 13th December, 2018 which was
much prior to his surgery which took place on 4th January, 2019.
Furthermore, Mr. Narayan appeared before the Income Tax authorities to
represent the company and its sister concerns on various dates prior to his
surgery, i.e., on 14th, 21st, 28th and 29th
December, 2018.

 

The Supreme Court stated that keeping in view the above-mentioned facts
and circumstances, it was satisfied that the applicant company was duly served
through its authorised representative and was provided sufficient opportunities
to appear before the Court and contest the matter. The company chose to let the
matter proceed ex parte. The grounds for recall of the judgment were
therefore devoid of any merit whatsoever.

 

The Supreme Court dismissed the application for recall.

 

6. Pr CIT vs. I-Ven Interactive Limited (2019) 418 ITR 662 (SC)

 

Assessment – Change of address – Notice – In absence of any application
for change in address and/or change in the name of the assessee in the
Permanent Account Number database, the assessing officer would be justified in
sending the notice at the available address mentioned in the PAN database of
the assessee, more particularly when the return has been filed under e-module
scheme – Mere mentioning the new address in the return of income is not enough
– The change of address in the database of the PAN is a must

 

The assessee filed return of income for the A.Y.
2006-07 on 28th November, 2006 declaring total income of Rs.
3,38,71,716. The said return was filed under the e-module scheme and thereafter
a hard copy of the same was filed on 5th December, 2006. The return
of income was accompanied with the balance sheet and profit and loss account.
The return was processed u/s 143(1) of the Act. A notice u/s 143(2) of the Act
was issued to the assessee on 5th October, 2007. The notice was sent
at the assessee’s address available as per the PAN database. A further
opportunity was provided to the assessee vide notice u/s 143(2) on 25th
July, 2008. This notice was also issued at the available address as per the PAN
database. Thereafter, further notices u/s 142(1) were issued to the assessee on
23rd January, 2008, 25th July, 2008 and 5th
October, 2008 along with questionnaires calling for various details and were
duly served on the assessee company.

 

In response to the said notice, the representative
of the company appeared on 28th November, 2008 and 4th
December, 2008. The assessee participated in the proceedings before the AO.
However, the assessee challenged the notice under sections 143(2) and 142(1) on
the ground that the said notices were not served upon the assessee as the assessee
never received those notices and the subsequent notices served and received by
the assessee were beyond the period of limitation prescribed under proviso to
section 143(2) of the Act.

 

The AO vide assessment order dated 24th
December, 2008 completed the assessment u/s 143(3) by making disallowance of
Rs. 8,91,17,643 u/s 14A, read with Rule 8 of the Rules, and computed the total
income at Rs. 5,52,45,930.

 

Being aggrieved by the assessment order dated 24th
December, 2008, the assessee preferred an appeal before the learned C.I.T.
(Appeals). The C.I.T. (Appeals) allowed the appeal vide order dated 23rd
December, 2010 holding, inter alia, that the AO completed the assessment
u/s 143(3) without assuming valid jurisdiction u/s 143(2), and therefore the
assessment framed u/s 143(3) was invalid. The C.I.T. (Appeals) observed that as
the subsequent service of notice u/s 143(2) was beyond the period of limitation
prescribed under the proviso to section 143(2) and earlier no notices
were served upon the assessee and / or received by the assessee as the same
were sent at the old address, and in the meantime the assessee changed its
address, therefore the assessment order was bad in law. The Revenue preferred
an appeal before the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal which came to be dismissed
by the I.T.A.T. vide order dated 19th January, 2015. The orders
passed by the C.I.T. (Appeals) as well as the I.T.A.T. were confirmed by the
High Court.

 

Hence, the Revenue preferred an appeal before the
Supreme Court.

 

The Supreme Court noted at the outset that the
notice u/s 143(2) was sent by the AO to the assessee at the address as
mentioned in the PAN database on 5th October, 2007 and the same was
within the time limit prescribed in the proviso to section 143(2) of the
Act.

 

It recorded, however, that it was the case of the
assessee that the said notice was not served as the assessee had changed its
name and address and shifted to a new address prior thereto and therefore the
said notice was not served upon the assessee, and by the time when subsequent
notices were served, notice u/s 143(2) was barred by the period prescribed in proviso
to section 143(2). Therefore, the assessment order was bad in law. It was the
case on behalf of the assessee that vide communication dated 6th
December, 2005 the assessee had intimated to the AO about the new address and
despite this, the AO sent the notice at the old address.

 

The Supreme Court observed that the alleged
communication dated 6th December, 2005 was not forthcoming. Neither
was it produced before the AO nor before the Supreme Court. In the affidavit,
too, filed in compliance with the order dated 21st August, 2019, the
assessee has stated that the alleged communication dated 6th
December, 2005 was not available. Thus, the assessee had failed to prove the
alleged communication of that date. The only document available was Form No. 18
filed with the ROC.

 

The Supreme Court held that the filing of Form-18
with the ROC could not be said to be intimation to the AO with respect to
intimation of change in address. According to the Court, it appeared that no
application was made by the assessee to change the address in the PAN database
and in the PAN database the old address continued. Therefore, in absence of any
intimation to the AO with respect to change in address, the AO was justified in
issuing the notice at the address available as per the PAN database. Hence, the
AO could not be said to have committed any error; in fact, the AO was justified
in sending the notice at the address as per the PAN database. If that was so,
the notice dated 5th October, 2007 could be said to be within the
period prescribed in proviso to section 143(2) of the Act. Once the
notice is issued within the period prescribed as per the said proviso,
the same can be said to be sufficient compliance of section 143(2) of the Act.
And once the notice is sent within the period prescribed in the proviso
to section 143(2), in that case, the actual service of the notice upon the
assessee thereafter would be immaterial.

 

In a given case it may happen that though the
notice is sent within the period prescribed, the assessee may avoid actual
service of the notice till the period prescribed expired. Even in the case
relied upon by the Assessee [Asst. CIT vs. Hotel Blue Moon (2010) 321 ITR
362 (SC)],
it was observed that the AO must necessarily issue notice
u/s 143(2) within the time prescribed in the proviso to section 143(2)
of the Act.

 

The Supreme Court, therefore, in the facts and
circumstances of the case, held that the High Court was not justified in
dismissing the appeal and confirming the orders passed by the C.I.T. (Appeals)
and the I.T.A.T. setting aside the assessment order solely on the ground that
the assessment order was bad in law on the ground that subsequent service of
notice upon the assessee u/s 143(2) was beyond the time prescribed in the
proviso
to section 143(2) of the 1961 Act.

 

The Supreme Court, in the context of the
observations made by the High Court while concurring with the view of the
Tribunal that merely by filing of return of income with the new address it
shall be enough for the assessee to discharge its legal responsibility for
observing proper procedural steps as per the Companies Act and the Income Tax
Act is concerned, held that mere mentioning of the new address in the return of
income without specifically intimating the AO with respect to change of address
and without getting the PAN database changed, is not enough and sufficient.

 

In the absence of any specific intimation to the AO
with respect to change in address and / or change in the name of the assessee,
the AO would be justified in sending the notice at the available address
mentioned in the PAN database, more particularly when the return has been filed
under the e-module scheme. It is required to be noted that notices u/s 143(2)
are issued on selection of cases generated under the automated system of the
Department which picks up the address of the assessee from the database of the
PAN. Therefore, the change of address in the database of PAN is a must; in case
of change in the name of the company and / or any change in the registered
office or the corporate office, the same has to be intimated to the Registrar
of Companies in the prescribed format (Form 18) and after completing the said
requirement, the assessee is required to approach the Department with the copy
of the said document and the assessee is also required to make an application
for change of address in the Departmental database of PAN, which in the present case the assessee had failed to do.

 

Accordingly, the appeal was allowed by the Supreme
Court. The impugned judgment and order passed by the High Court, as well as the
orders passed by the C.I.T. (Appeals) and the I.T.A.T., were quashed and set
aside. The matter was remanded to the C.I.T. (Appeals) to consider the appeal
on merits on other grounds, in accordance with the law.

 

 

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear Members,


Wishing you and your loved ones a very
Happy, Healthy and Prosperous New Year!


It’s New Year, friends! As the New Year
stands before us, it’s another 366 days of opportunities and reasons to be
happy. It’s like a new chapter waiting to be written in the book called LIFE.
So let’s all of us resolve to seize this opportunity and promise ourselves that
we will strive towards happiness and make this world a better place to live in
for ourselves and others around us.


I hope 2020 will mark the beginning of a new
decade of hope, trust and well-being of our profession. As I communicate with you
for the first time at the beginning of this decade, I would like to emphasise
certain recent developments in our profession that will have a great impact on
the way we discharge our professional responsibilities and obligations.


ICAI Code of Ethics: The Code of Ethics issued by the ICAI was aligned with the
International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA) Code of Ethics
2005 for the first time in 2009. Now, after a gap of ten years, the ICAI has
decided to revise the Code of Ethics applicable to the profession with effect
from 1st April, 2020. As in the case of the code issued in 2009,
this edition, too, is divided into two parts, Part A representing provisions of
the IESBA Code of Ethics as suitably incorporated after modification, and Part B
representing the domestic provisions of India governing the Chartered
Accountants’ Act, 1949.


Part A of the Code of Ethics was revised in
2018 on the basis of the IESBA Code of Ethics, 2018 edition; and now the ICAI
has proposed a revision of Part B of the Code of Ethics, 2019.


Since the past decade (when this code was
last revised), multiple changes have taken place in the domestic rules and
regulations governing our profession. Changes in the CA Act, 1949, ICAI Council guidelines and decisions and clarifications
of the Ethical Standards Board have been incorporated in the new code. Further,
other developments and contemporary requirements like New Companies Act, 2013,
revision of Accounting Standards (AS) and Standards of Auditing (SA) also
mandated compilatory updating and upgrading Part B of the code.


Various new provisions, clauses, sections
have been proposed to be inserted in Part B such as: Responding to
Non-Compliance of Laws and Regulations; provision of taxation services to the
audit clients; prohibition on management responsibilities to the audit clients;
restrictions on total fees from a client; duty of accountant in case of breach
of Independence Standards; advertisement guidelines; guidelines on website and
social networking sites; affiliations with networks; long association with
firms and so on.


The ICAI will carry out mass awareness and
educational programmes but it is important for us to be aware of the changes to
maintain the inclusive and ethical culture of our profession and ensure that
none of us is caught unaware of these changes.


Report on Audit Quality Review (2018-19): Cases of financial irregularities continue to haunt the corporate
world, both domestically and internationally, bringing to the forefront
concerns on the need to improve the quality of audit services carried out by
auditors. Last year, the Financial Reporting Council of the UK expressed
concern over falling audit quality and partly attributed this deterioration to
a failure to challenge management and show appropriate professional scepticism.
So far, the Quality Review Board (QRB) of ICAI has being carrying out reviews
of listed and other public interest entities and issuing a report on the
observations from the Audit Quality Review carried out by them annually. This report
of the QRB for reviews carried out during financial year 2018-19 was issued in
October, 2019. It highlights the key findings and observations from reviews
carried out on audit quality of 51 entities (which included 51 audit firms, 64
audit files and 22 industries) indicating the QRB’s approach, key trends, their
expectations and other focus areas.


Though the reported observations are from
reviews carried out on the said 51 entities, these deficiencies can act as
check-points for others to improve their audit quality. The report highlights
in detail non-compliance of SA, AS (standard wise) and other relevant
regulatory requirements. Out of the total observations, 66% required
improvements, 33% were generally acceptable and 1% required significant improvement.
I am sure this will make for interesting reading and help in improving the
quality of audit services rendered by us.


Audit Quality Review (AQR) by NFRA: More recently, the NFRA carried out its first AQR on the statutory
audit of IL&FS Financial Services Limited for F.Y. 2017-18. NFRA has
verified the compliance of SA, assessing the audit quality control system of
the audit firm and the extent to which the same was complied with in the
performance of the audit. This report has made some startling observations and
comments on the compliance of independence requirements, role of engagement
partner, communication with those charged with governance, evaluation of risk
of material misstatement, management’s written representations, evaluation of
going concern assumptions and documentation of the audit quality control
system. A reading of this report will also go a long way in overall improvement
in the quality of services rendered by us.


‘Professionalism: It’s NOT the job you
DO, It’s HOW you DO the job.’


With Best Regards,

 

 

 

CA Manish Sampat

President

 

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

REPORTING AND DISCLOSURES IN QUARTERLY CONSOLIDATED
RESULTS FOR A MATERIAL EVENT OCCURRING AFTER THE END OF THE QUARTER (PERIOD AND
QUARTER ENDED 30
th SEPTEMBER, 2019)

 

BHARTI AIRTEL LTD.

 

From: Notes below statement of audited consolidated
results

 

(A)       Details of the specific
event and implications of these on these financial results

On October 24, 2019, the Honourable Supreme Court of India delivered a
judgment in relation to a long outstanding industry-wide case upholding the
view considered by Department of Telecommunications (‘DoT’) in respect of the
definition of Adjusted Gross Revenue (‘AGR’) (‘Court Judgment’). The Hon’ble
Supreme Court has allowed a period of three months to the affected parties to
pay the amounts due to DoT. This Court Judgment has significant financial
implications on the group.

 

The management is reviewing its options and remedies available,
including but not limited to filing petitions before the Supreme Court and
seeking other reliefs, with others affected in the industry, from the
government. As on the date, the management understands that the government has
formed a high-level Committee of Secretaries across Ministries to assess the
stress in the industry and recommend suitable measures.

 

In the absence of available reliefs, the group has, in these financial
results, provided for an additional amount of Rs. 168,150 million (comprising
of principal of Rs. 32,070 million, interest of Rs. 70,000 million, penalty of
Rs. 24,920 million, and interest on penalty of Rs. 41,160 million) as a charge
to the statement of profit and loss, with respect to the license fee payable as
estimated based on the Court Judgment. In addition, an amount of Rs. 116,350
million (comprising of principal of Rs. 29,570 million, interest of Rs. 52,190
million, penalty of Rs. 12,680 million, and interest on penalty of Rs. 21,910
million) with respect to spectrum usage charges (‘SUC’), based on the
definition of AGR, has further been provided as a charge to the statement of
profit and loss as estimated, albeit the group believes SUC is a charge
related to use of spectrum and should be levied only on the AGR earned from
wireless access subscribers / services. These provisions have been made without
prejudice to the group’s right to
contest DoT’s demands on facts as well as on rights available in law.

 

Accordingly, in the absence of available reliefs, with respect to the
operations of the group, the liabilities / provisions as at September 30, 2019
aggregate Rs. 342,600 million (comprising of principal of Rs. 87,470 million,
interest of Rs. 154,460 million, penalty of Rs. 37,600 million, and interest on
penalty of Rs. 63,070 million).

 

Management plan
to deal with this event and the material uncertainty related to the event

The group will require significant additional financing to discharge its
obligations under the Court Judgment… the management’s actions include, inter
alia
, accessing diversified sources of finance. The group has an
established track record of accessing diversified sources of finance across
markets and currencies. However, there can be no assurance of the success of
management’s plans to access additional sources of finance to the extent
required, on terms acceptable to the group, and to raise these amounts in a
timely manner. This represents a material uncertainty whereby it may be unable
to realise its assets and discharge its liabilities in the normal course of
business, and accordingly may cast significant doubt on the group’s ability to
continue as a going concern.

 

From: Independent auditors’ report on audit of
interim consolidated financial results

 

Material
uncertainty related to going concern

The accompanying Consolidated Financial Results have been prepared
assuming that the group will continue as a going concern. As discussed in Note
3 to the Consolidated Financial Results, the company has referred to a judgment
delivered by the Honourable Supreme Court of India on October 24, 2019 in
relation to a long outstanding industry-wide case upholding the view considered
by the Department of Telecommunications in respect of definition of Adjusted
Gross Revenue which, along with other matters as stated in the said Note,
indicates that a material uncertainty exists that may cast significant doubt
about its ability to continue as a going concern. Management evaluation of the
events and conditions and management’s plans regarding these matters are also
described in Note 3.

 

Our opinion on the Statement is not modified in respect of this matter.

 

Emphasis of matter

(i)         …………..

(ii)        …………..

 

Our opinion on the Statement is not modified in respect of these
matters.

 

VODAFONE IDEA LTD.

 

From: Notes below statement of unaudited
consolidated results

 

(A) Subsequent to the quarter end, the Hon’ble Supreme
Court on 24th October, 2019 passed the judgment (SC AGR Judgment) on
cross appeals against the Hon’ble TDSAT judgment dated 23rd April, 2015
wherein it has held that the definition of Gross Revenue under Clause 19 of the
UASL is all-encompassing and comprehensive. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has
further held that the gross revenue definition shall prevail over the
accounting standards and is binding on the parties to the contract / license
agreement. The Hon’ble Supreme Court has then dealt with different heads of
revenue / inflow and has held that these will fall within the definition of
adjusted gross revenue. Further, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has upheld the levy
of interest, penalty and interest on penalty stating that the levy is as per
the terms and conditions of the license agreement.

 

Consequent to the above, the company has estimated license fee of Rs.
276,100 million and Spectrum Usage Charges (SUC) of Rs. 165,400 million
(including interest, penalty and interest thereon of Rs. 330,050 million) (‘AGR
liability’) based on the DoT demands received till date and estimation for
periods for which demands have not been raised by DoT, together with interest
and penalty, all taken for periods up to 30th September, 2019 and
adjusted for certain computational errors. Whilst the company has provided for
SUC, considering that no spectrum is used for generating non-telecom income,
the company is evaluating the levy of SUC on such income. Accordingly, during
the quarter, the company has recognised a charge of Rs. 256,779 million as an
exceptional item after adjusting the available provisions and adjustments for
potential payments under a mechanism on satisfaction of contractual conditions
as per the implementation agreement dated 20th March, 2017 entered
on merger of erstwhile VInL and ICL in relation to the crystallisation of
certain contingent liabilities which existed at the time of merger. Also, the
company has informed the lenders and bond holders about the SC AGR judgment, as
required under the financing agreements entered with them and also notified the
stock exchanges.

 

The Hon’ble Supreme Court has directed the telecom operators to pay the
dues within 90 days from the date of the SC AGR Judgment. By its letter of 13th
November, 2019, the DoT has directed the company to make payment in
accordance with SC AGR judgment based on its own assessment with requisite
documents. The company would complete its assessment, reconcile / validate the
DoT demands and true up the estimates considered in accordance with SC AGR
judgment.

 

The company is in the process of filing a review petition with the
Hon’ble Supreme Court. Further, the company through Cellular Operators
Association of India (‘COAI’) has made representations to the government to
provide relief to the telecom sector, including but not limited to requesting
to not press for the AGR liability payment and grant waivers, not levy spectrum
usage charges on non-licensed revenue / income, reduction of licence fee and
SUC rates, use of GST credit for payment of government levies and allow payment
to be made in instalments after some moratorium and grant a moratorium of two
years for the payment of spectrum dues beyond 1st April, 2020 up to
31st March, 2022. The Government has taken cognisance of these
representations and has recently set up a Committee of Secretaries (‘COS’) to
evaluate the telecom operator’s plea and suggest measures to mitigate the financial
stress.

 

(B) During the year ended 31st
March, 2019, the company had classified Rs. 102,062 million from non-current
borrowings to current maturities of long-term debt for not meeting certain
covenant clauses under the financial agreements for specified financial ratios
as at 31st March, 2019. The company had exchanged correspondence /
been in discussions with these lenders for the next steps / waivers.

 

Based on the above waiver and / or grant of deferred payment terms for
the AGR liability by the government, reduction of license fee and / or SUC
rates and a moratorium on payment of DoT spectrum instalments are essential to
meet the funding requirement for the aforesaid payments. The above factors
indicate that material uncertainty exists that casts significant doubt on the
company’s ability to continue as a going concern and its ability to generate
the cash flow that it needs to settle, or refinance its liabilities and
guarantees as they fall due, including those relating to the SC AGR judgment. The
company’s ability to continue as going concern is dependent on obtaining the
reliefs from the government, as discussed in Note 5(A) above and positive
outcome of the proposed legal remedy. Pending the outcome of the above matters,
these financial results have been prepared on a going concern basis.

From: Independent auditors’ review report on
unaudited consolidated financial results

 

We draw attention to Note 5 to the financial results regarding the
Hon’ble Supreme Court judgment dated 24th October, 2019 on the
definition of gross revenue as per the UASL agreement and the liability on
licence fee and spectrum usage charges of Rs. 441,500 million payable within 90
days from the Supreme Court judgment and breach of debt covenants, its ability
to generate the cash flow that it needs to settle, or refinance its liabilities
and guarantees as they fall due resulting in a material uncertainty that casts
significant doubt on the holding company’s ability to make the payments
mentioned therein and continue as a going concern.

 

The said assumption of going concern is dependent upon the holding
company obtaining the reliefs from the government as discussed in Note 5,
positive outcome of the proposed legal remedy. Our conclusion is not modified
in respect of this matter.

 


 

ETHICS AND U

Shrikrishna: Yes, my dear
Arjun, you seem to be in a relaxed mood today. All tension over?

 

Arjun: Hmm! I wish I could be
really relaxed. But in our profession there is no room for relaxation. It is
not in a CA’s destiny at all.

 

Shrikrishna: Why are you so
sceptical? All professions, or rather, all people are sailing in the same boat
today.

 

Arjun: That is true. But almost
all practising CAs I know are fed up with practise. Many are giving up their
COP. Their next generation is keeping itself away from traditional practice.

 

Shrikrishna: I am told even
the large firms are shying away from assurance function. Then who will do the
audits?

 

Arjun: That is really a problem.
Government should think about it seriously. Many of us feel that all small and
medium entities should be exempted from audit. That the turnover limit should
be respectably high. Other criteria also should be liberal.

 

Shrikrishna: Arjun, you
feel so because you are staying in a metro city. Have you thought of your
professional brothers staying upcountry? They will literally starve if audit
work is gone.

 

Arjun: Yes. That’s a point. But
then, what’s the solution? We slog so much even for a small audit and take so
much tension, but there is no proportionate remuneration. The regulations are
too strict for a small entity to comply.

 

Shrikrishna: I agree. For
this I feel you should be more serious about collective thinking and action
among your members. In your study circles, you brainstorm only on academics.
Instead, you should devote more time to think about how to tackle this chronic
issue. Think of the fate of the profession.

 

Arjun: True. And on the top of it,
the sword of disciplinary action is always hanging on our heads. I don’t see
any ray of hope. Everything is gloomy.


Shrikrishna: That’s another
problem. You people are very keen to learn all other laws that you are dealing
with in the practice but you are not that serious about knowing and updating
yourself about your own CA Act!

 

Arjun: Why? What happened? Is
there any change?

 

Shrikrishna: Yes. There is
a change in both the parts of your Code of Ethics.

 

Arjun: Both the parts? I didn’t
even know that there are two parts! I only know that COE is very frightening.

 

Shrikrishna: Ha! Ha! Ha! Arey,
Arjun, Part A is more about principles applicable internationally. New
concepts, new thinking, new principles which are universally recognised. Our
Indian Code is expected to be in tune with this international thinking. That’s
in Part B.

 

Arjun: Ahh! Who is bothered about
such philosophy? Let them change Part A as many times as they like. Tell me
what matters to me.

 

Shrikrishna: That’s the
problem! You are not awakened enough about your profession. Part A has already
been changed and your Institute has already published it a few months ago. Now,
they are changing Part B – i.e., your Indian Code of Ethics.

 

Arjun: Where is that new thing?
When is it applicable?

 

Shrikrishna: They have
already circulated the Exposure Draft for your comments. The Institute cannot
change the provisions of law or the schedules. That is to be done by
Parliament. The Institute expresses its views and interpretations in its
commentary. That is sought to be changed.

 

Arjun: I will see when it becomes
applicable.

 

Shrikrishna: Arjun,
this approach is wrong. You are sleeping over such things. Not awakened about
the proposed changes. And then you keep
crying after it becom-es applicable – when it is too late! You need to be
proactive.

 

Arjun: I agree.
So what should we do?

 

Shrikrishna: You
should sit in a group and study the proposed changes and their impact. And send
representations to the Institute.

 

Arjun: Let me
first study it for myself. I’m sure none of my friends would know about it. But
next time we will discuss the changes so that I can take more care.


Shrikrishna: Sure.


Om Shanti.


(This dialogue is based on the need to study
the exposure draft on changes in the Code of Ethics – Part B. Details will be
discussed in the next write-up)
 

 

 

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

9. Neena Somani vs. Jaiprakash Associates Ltd.[2019] 111 taxmann.com 293 (NCLT, All.) Date of order: 13th September, 2019

 

Petition filed by depositors u/s 73 of the
Companies Act 2013 (CA 2013) for recovery of interest due is maintainable in
case of deposits accepted by company even prior to 1st April, 2014,
i.e., date on which section 73 of CA 2013 is notified – Depositors entitled to
interest payment from the date of maturity till actual payment is made

 

FACTS

‘N’ had invested her money in the company J
in different fixed deposit receipts (FDRs). However, company J had not repaid
the FDRs on the date of maturity and also not paid the interest for additional
time period for which the money of the investors was kept with it.

 

‘N’ had sent some claim letters to
company J about non-payment of due interest after maturity period of FDRs and
approached company J several times, but had not received any satisfactory
response.

 

‘N’ filed petition u/s 73(4) of CA 2013
seeking direction to company J to make repayment of the interest due from the
date of maturity till the date actual payment was released.

 

Company J contended that the deposits in
respect of which the present petition had been filed were accepted by the
company before the commencement of the Companies Act, 2013, i.e., prior to 1st
April, 2014. It was also submitted that the repayment of these deposits,
after the enforcement of CA 2013, was now governed by section 74 of CA 2013 and
not by section 73 of CA 2013 under which the present petition had been filed.

 

HELD

It was observed that NCLT has held in the
past that it is not the intention of the legislature to differentiate between
depositors prior to or after 1st April, 2014. The remedies cannot be
any different nor can they be categorised into two separate groups. Rule 19 of
the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 clarifies the applicability
of the provisions of sections 73 and 74 of CA 2013 to deposits accepted from
the public by eligible companies, prior to or after the coming into force of
the 2013 Act. The term deposit would mean and include all previous deposits
accepted by the company.      

 

In Jaiprakash Associates vs. Jainendra
Sahai Sinha
(in the matter of another depositor of company J) the
Supreme Court had held company J liable to pay interest at the rate of 12/12.5%
per annum from the date of maturity till the actual payment.           

 

As per section 74(2) of CA 2013, the
Tribunal may, on an application made by the company, after considering the
financial condition of the company, the amount of deposit or part thereof and
the interest payable thereon and such other matters, allow further time as
considered reasonable to the company to repay the deposit.          

 

A mere plain reading of the provision shows
that by exercising the power, the Tribunal allows time as it may consider
reasonable to the company to repay the deposit, and since the Tribunal simply
regularised the belated payment which was made by company J to the depositors
by extending the time to make the payment u/s 74(2) of CA 2013, the order of
the Tribunal will not debar ‘N’ from getting the interest after the maturity
till the date the actual payment is made.        

 

Therefore, the Tribunal held that in view of
the order passed by the Supreme Court in another case, the petitioners were
entitled to get the interest at the rate of 12/12.5% p.a. from the date of
maturity till the date the actual payment is released to the depositors. Hence,
‘N’ and other depositors are entitled to get the interest at the rate of
12/12.5% p.a. from the date of maturity till the date payment is released to
‘N’ and other depositors.      

 

Thus, company J was directed to make the
payment to ‘N’ at the rate of 12/12.5% p.a. from the date of maturity till the date the actual payment is released to ‘N’ and other depositors.
 

 

REPRESENTATIONS

1.  Dated: 2nd
December, 2019

     To: The
International Co-operation and Tax Administration Division Centre for Tax
policy and Administration OECD

     Subject: Comments
and Suggestions for Pillar 2-Global Anti-Base Erosion (‘GloBE’) Proposal

     Representation by:
International Taxation Committee of Bombay Chartered Accountants Society

 

2.  Dated: 19th
December, 2019

     To: Shri Pramod
Chandra Mody, Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes, New Delhi

     Subject:
Representation on Processing Returns for A.Y. 2019-20; Ref: Section 143(1)(a)
and section 139(9)

     Representation by:
International Taxation Committee of Bombay Chartered Accountants Society

 

Note: For full Text of the above
Representation, visit our website www.bcasonline.org

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I.       HIGH COURT

 

21. [2019] (29) GSTL 5 (Ker.) Hyundai Construction Equipment India Pvt.
Ltd. vs. State Tax Officer, Kasargod Date of order: 9th August, 2019

 

Bank guarantee cannot be encashed before expiry of the
time period to file the appeal is over

 

FACTS

A
writ petition was filed by the petitioner on the grounds that the respondent
had invoked extraordinary jurisdiction by not accounting for the submissions
and explanation in the records and by ordering encashment of the bank guarantee
before the period for filing the appeal expired.

 

HELD

The
Hon’ble Court perused the facts of the case and held that the respondent should
have recorded the explanations offered under any given circumstances, even in
case of any delay. Further, that the invocation of bank guarantee even before
the expiry of period of appeal can be deferred by passing appropriate orders,
and thus directed the respondent to not encash the bank guarantee for a period
of 90 days.

 

22.  [2019]
(29) GSTL 29 (Mad.)
Assistant Commr. of CGST & C. Ex. vs.
Daejung Moparts Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 23rd July, 2019

 

Interest on delayed payment of tax to be calculated on
net tax payable by cash only

 

FACTS

A
writ petition was filed by the petitioner because the AO calculated interest
amount on gross output tax liability without considering the balance in the
electronic credit ledger and the bank account was sealed for the amount
calculated by the AO. The petition was allowed by the learned Single Judge
observing that the AO was bound to hear the aforesaid objections of the
assessee in determining the correct liability of interest. Further, the Judge
directed the bank to deposit the admitted liability for interest u/s 50 of the
Act to the extent calculated by the assessee. Revenue filed an intra-court
appeal against the judgment passed by the Single Judge.

 

HELD

The
Hon’ble Chief Justice held that the judgment passed by the Single Judge was
correct. The liability of interest arises on net tax liability and the bank
account was operative with the exception of aforementioned admitted sum which
shall be paid by the bank to the Assistant Commissioner of CGST and Central
Excise.

 

23. [2019] (29) GSTL 6 (Bom.) Ashish Jain vs. Union of India Date of order: 13th July, 2019

 

Offences like issue of fake invoices without supplying
goods and fraudulent availment of input tax credit are cognisable and
non-bailable as per section 132(5) of CGST Act

 

FACTS

In
the given case, the assessee fraudulently availed input tax credit by issuing
fake invoices to fictitious companies without supplying any goods. For this the
Department issued summons under the CGST Act, 2017. The petitioner contended
that investigation cannot be commenced without following the procedure of
section 154 or 155 of the Criminal Code, i.e., the authority first has to
register an FIR and then investigate the case.

 

HELD

The
Hon’ble High Court relied on the decision of the Union of India vs. Sapna
Jain (Supreme Court)
wherein it was held that the Apex Court had
refused to entertain the special leave petition. In the present case, the order
of the Apex Court in the case of Sapna Jain (Supra) was
considered final and thus did not grant any relaxation to the assessee from the
arrest warrant.

 

24. [2019-TIOL-3411-CESTAT-CHD.] M/s Fresenius KabiOnclogy Ltd. vs. Commissioner, CGST Date of order: 6th November, 2019

 

Subsequent reversal of credit in TRAN-1 is sufficient
compliance of refund claimed under Notification No. 27/2012-ST which requires
reversal of service tax claimed as refund

 

FACTS

The
appellant availed input services for export of goods. It filed a refund claim
under Rule 5 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 read with Notification No. 27/2012-ST
dated 18th June, 2012. As per the condition of the notification, the
CENVAT credit availed on the services is required to be reversed. It is alleged
that since the credit availed on the services is not reversed, the refund is
liable for rejection. Both the authorities below have rejected the claim and
therefore the present appeal is filed.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal, relying on the decision in the case of Global Analytics India
Pvt. Ltd – Final Order No. 40942-40943/2019 dated 22nd July, 2010

holding that there was no provision in the ACES system to debit the value of
refund and also the fact that the entire credit which was carried forward in
TRAN-1 stood reversed by the appellant voluntarily in its GSTR3B filed for the
month of April, 2018, is sufficient compliance of the condition of the
Notification. The refund is accordingly allowed.

 

II. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING
[AAR]

 

25.  [2019]
(29) GSTL 778 (AAR – Mah.)
Jotun India Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 4th October, 2019

 

Recovery of insurance premium from the employees is not
an activity in the course or furtherance of business as applicant was not
involved in business of insurance

 

FACTS

The
applicant, a manufacturer, supplier and exporter of paints and powder coating,
introduced an optional parental insurance scheme for employees’ parents. It
initially paid the entire premium and then recovered 50% of the premium from
their salary in instalments. The scheme was not the business of the applicant.
The insurance was taken with the Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. Besides,
providing parental insurance cover was not mandatory under any law.
Non-provision of parental insurance would not affect the business of the
applicant by any means.

 

HELD

The
term ‘supply’ u/s 7 and ‘business’ u/s 2(17) of the CGST Act, 2017 were
referred for analysing the activity of the applicant and it was found that
provision of mediclaim policy for the employees’ parents was not mandatory
under any law. Non-provision of parental insurance would not affect the
business of applicant by any means. ARA of ‘Posco India Pune Processing
Center Private Limited-AAR 2019 (21) G.S.T.L. 351’
was confirmed
wherein it was held that ‘they are not rendering any service of health insurance
to its employees, hence there is no supply of service in instant case’. Thus,
the activity of recovery of 50% of cost of insurance premium was not treated as
an activity done in the course or furtherance of business.

 

26. [2019-TIOL-493-AAR-GST] Ex-Servicemen’s Resettlement Society Date of order: 29th November, 2019

 

GST is payable on the bonus paid by the recipient of the
service to provider of service as the persons deployed are not the employees of
the service receiver

 

FACTS

The
applicant is a registered society providing security services and scavenging
services to various hospitals under the State Government. They seek a ruling as
to whether they are liable to pay GST on the portion of the payment received on
account of the bonus paid or payable to the persons it deploys as security
personnel.

 

HELD

The
Authority noted that the security personnel engaged are at no point of time
employees of the State Government. The assessee is an employer of the security
personnel deployed and is responsible for paying all statutory dues and payment
of bonus at the Government approved rate. Since the agreement does not create a
master and servant relationship between the recipient of service and the
security personnel, payment received from recipient on account of bonus is not
guided by paragraph 1 of Schedule III. The applicant is, therefore, liable to
pay GST on the portion of the payment received on account of bonus paid or
payable to the persons it deploys as security personnel.

 

27. [2019-TIOL-448-AAR-GST] M/s Santosh Distributors Date of order: 16th September,
2019

 

Since prices are determined by the principal company, the
discounts reimbursed are liable to be added to the value of supply. Further,
input credit is not required to be reversed for commercial credit notes
received

 

FACTS

The
applicant is paying the tax due as per the invoice value issued and availing
the input credit of GST shown in the inward invoice received from the principal
company or their stockist. The question before the Authority is whether
additional discount provided by the principal company attracts GST and whether
the amount shown in the commercial credit note requires any proportionate
reversal of credit.

 

HELD

The
Authority noted that the price of the products supplied is determined by the
supplier / principal company and they have no control over the same. Therefore,
it is evident that the additional discount given by the supplier which is
reimbursed to the applicant is a special reduced price and such additional
discount is liable to be added to the consideration payable by the customer to
the distributor / applicant to arrive at the value of supply in terms of
section 15 of the Act. Further, the supplier of goods / principal company
issuing the commercial credit note is not eligible to reduce its original tax
liability and hence applicant will not be liable to reverse the input tax
credit.

 

III. APPELLATE AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING [AAAR]

 

28. [2019 (29) GSTL 773 (App. AAR – GST)] Malli Ramalingam Mothilal Date of order: 7th August, 2019

 

Payment of shortfall of statutory fees for filing appeal
before appellate authority sufficient cause for condoning the delay

 

FACTS

The
appellant filed an appeal before the Appellate Advance Ruling Authority along
with fees of Rs. 5,000 each under CGST and SGST instead of Rs. 10,000 each
under CGST & SGST. Subsequently, the appellant paid additional amount of
Rs. 5,000 each under CGST and SGST.

 

HELD

The
Appellate Authority accepted the appeal holding that deficiency was made good
within the further period of 30 days as provided in the law. Therefore, the
lacuna was condonable.
 

 

SERVICE TAX

I. TRIBUNAL

 

16. 
[2019-TIOL-3424-CESTAT-Del.]
M/s Gurnani Infra Developers Pvt. Ltd. vs. The
Commissioner, Central Goods and Services Tax
Date of order: 1st October, 2019

 

Balance sheet shows
an advance recoverable in cash as being paid towards the service tax, there is
therefore no question of unjust enrichment

 

FACTS

The appellant
received a taxable service and had been depositing the service tax under
reverse charge mechanism. Since they were not liable to discharge the liability
under reverse charge mechanism, they filed a refund claim. The claim was
acknowledged but it was held that the same was hit by unjust enrichment and
therefore the amount was to be transferred to the Consumer Welfare Fund.
Accordingly, the present appeal was filed.

 

HELD

The Tribunal, on
perusal of the balance sheet, noted that till the time of filing the impugned
refund claim, an advance recoverable in cash as being paid towards the service
tax is shown. There is, therefore, sufficient evidence otherwise on record to
falsify any charge of unjust enrichment. The order is accordingly set aside and
the appeal is allowed.

 

17.  [2019
(29) GSTL 441 (Tri.-Del.)]
IDP Education India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of
C. Ex., Delhi-IV
Date of order: 8th May, 2019

 

Conducting test does
not amount to commercial training or coaching services

 

FACTS

The present appeal
was filed by the appellant who operates the business of International English
Language Test Centres from various locations in India under license agreement with
IELTS Australia. The practice material was available on the website of the
appellant who was not engaged in training and coaching for preparation for the
said test. The test was required to be conducted in two modules, namely,
academic module and general training module. The appellant had sub-contracted
the services for conducting the tests. He received the fees for the test
directly from the students and remitted the respective share to IELTS Australia
and the sub-contractor after retaining certain amount. No service tax was paid
for the period April, 2012 to June, 2012. The Department passed an order
confirming demand of service tax treating the activity of the appellant to be
coaching and training services.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble Tribunal
held that the agreement clearly stipulated that holding of the IELTS Test by
the appellant was itself a skill and nothing in the agreement required the
appellant to coach or train the candidates. Besides, no consideration was
earmarked for such test. Conducting the test cannot be considered as imparting
skill or knowledge by any stretch of imagination. Therefore, the order was set
aside, thus allowing the appeal.

 

18. 
[2019-TIOL-3393-CESTAT-Hyd.]
M/s ArunExcello Foundation vs. Commissioner of GST
and Central Excise
Date of order: 8th November, 2019

 

Excess payment of
service tax can be adjusted in any month or quarter within a reasonable time as
per Rule 6(4A) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994

 

FACTS

The appellants made
excess payment of service tax from April, 2015 to June, 2016. This was adjusted
in the return of September, 2016. A show-cause notice was issued to them
alleging that the adjustment of the excess service tax made is against the
provisions of law and not in order. Since the appeal was rejected by Commissioner
(Appeals), the present appeal was filed.

 

HELD

The Tribunal held
that the Rule intends to adjust excess payment in order to avoid the hassles of
a refund claim. When there is already an excess amount in the hands of the
Revenue, while making such adjustment there is no revenue loss and, in fact,
the Revenue is enriched by the interest on the excess amount till the
adjustment. The word ‘immediate’ being absent in the Rule, the only
interpretation possible is that the assessee can adjust the excess payment to
any succeeding month or quarter when he has service tax liability. Further,
such adjustment should be made within reasonable time. The adjustment is in
accordance with Rule 6(4A) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 and therefore
allowed.

 

19. [2019-TIOL-3327-CESTAT-Kol.] M/s Etrans Solutions Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of
CGST and Central Excise
Date of order: 30th July, 2019

 

When credit
attributable to exempted services is reversed, Revenue cannot insist that
option (3)(i) under Rule 6 of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 of payment of 6% of
the value of exempted services should be followed by the assessee

 

FACTS

The assessee is
engaged in the provision of services as well as trading of goods. It maintains
a common balance sheet for its manufacturing as well as trading activity. The
short issue that arises for consideration is whether the assessee is required
to pay 6% of total sale value of the goods traded by it in terms of Rule
6(3)(i) of the CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 when it paid the actual credit
attributed to the quantum trading sale in terms of Rule 6(3A) along with
interest following the option available under Rule 6(3)(ii) of the Rules.

 

HELD

The
Tribunal, relying on the decision in the case of M/s Mercedes Benz India
(P) Limited vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune-I
[2015-TIOL-1550-CESTAT-Mum.],
held that the main objective of Rule 6 is
to ensure that the assessee should not avail the CENVAT Credit in respect of
input or input services which are used in or in relation to the manufacture of
the exempted goods, or for exempted services. If this is the objective, then at
the most the amount which is to be recovered shall not be in any case more than
the CENVAT Credit attributed to the input or input services used in the
exempted goods. The Tribunal noted that the appellant reversed the
proportionate common credit taken on input services used in trading of goods
along with interest thereon. Therefore, Rule 6(3)(i) will not have any
application. The appeal is accordingly allowed.

 

MISCELLANEA

I. Technology

 

10. What
are the most promising technologies for software development?

 

Software is the
driving force of the world today. With an estimated 9 trillion devices in use,
software is the glue that connects people from all around the globe. The
software developers that build and develop these software products are shaping
and building the modern technological world. The developer population had been
estimated to hit approximately 26.4 million by this year. Yet, even after the
increasing number of developers, there seems to be a talent shortage.

 

Change is the only
constant on this planet. The software industry is one of those sectors in
contemporary times that witnesses a constant change in practices due to the
ever-growing technological landscape. Software developers and professionals
need to keep themselves updated with the latest technologies and innovations in
order to compete and get the best possible position and pay.

 

In recent years, the
IT industry has seen tremendous growth. In a report by Gartner in 2018, it is
predicted that the industry will witness a growth of 8.3% in 2019 in its
spending.

 

Some of the
technologies that seem to have the most promising future are:

 

Mixed
Reality

Mixed reality is a
combination of the twin technologies of virtual reality (VR) and augmented
reality (AR). Experts predict that by 2025 the market size of mixed reality
will reach US $3.7 billion.

 

AR has seen a
tremendous amount of growth recently and the credit for this goes solely to its
applications on smartphones. The popularity of smartphones is one of the major
reasons why companies are hiring AR developers in large numbers and investing
in their own AR applications.

 

Many people assume
that the applications and the scope of VR are limited to gaming and
entertainment. But effective applications by companies and armies around the
world have proved this notion wrong. The US Army has used Microsoft’s HoloLens
mixed reality technology for military training purposes. Similarly, Walmart is
also planning to utilise VR technology to train employees in customer service
and compliance.

 

Progressive
web applications

Progressive web
applications (PWAs) are a hybrid of mobile and web applications. They differ a
lot from the regular mobile application. The service worker script is an
integral part of PWAs on which they majorly work. PWAs have a number of
features such as responsiveness, connectivity independence, safety,
linkability, etc. The main feature of PWAs includes its offline support, where
the application is supposed to be able to work without a connection. These
applications can be loaded very fast even with low internet speed. For example,
Uber’s PWA was designed to run even on 2G speeds. The core app is a mere 50KB
and takes just three seconds to load on 2G speeds. PWAs are also very good for
customer engagement. Trivago saw an increase of 150% for the people who add its
PWA on their home screen. Trivago also observed a 97% increase in hotel offer
clickouts owing to the increased customer engagement.

 

Additionally, they
are very easy to develop and maintain. This, in particular, has attracted many
mobile developer companies in the past few years.

 

Machine
Learning and Artificial Intelligence

A total of 91 machine
learning deals were carried out last year with a business value of US $16.9
billion. According to Deloitte, approximately 100,000 legal jobs will be automated
by 2036. Automation and machine learning are here to stay and are going to make
a huge difference and change the way organisations operate.

 

Machine learning
allows organisations to customise the customer experience and helps target the
company’s efforts. For example, Facebook implements statistical analysis and
predictive analytics together to find patterns based on data. It helps Facebook
to personalise the newsfeed for each individual, suggest interesting content,
posts and to improve user engagement. In addition, Facebook uses neural
networks on images to suggest members to tag in the picture.

 

Artificial
intelligence aims to be able to improvise business tasks and make them simple.
The advent and popularity of artificial intelligence has provided the web app
developers brilliant support to experiment. This has broadened the reach of AI
to sectors like healthcare, banking, education, mathematics, etc.

 

IoT

Internet of Things
(IoT) covers various categories of devices that are connected to the internet
and communicate with each other. The applications of IoT are present in both
the consumer and the industrial domains. In areas such as security and customer
experience, IoT is experiencing exponential growth and demands.

 

According to David
Evan, a former researcher at Cisco, each second about 127 devices are being
connected to the internet. This clearly signifies the constantly increasing
reach of IoT.

 

Over 90% of
automobiles are expected to be IoT-enabled by 2020. In the coming years, IoT
will continue to grow in prevalence and get more sophisticated. From smart cars
to in-store smart assistants for customer personalisation, the future holds a
lot of value for IoT. Enterprises will come closer to an intelligently
connected future by embracing real-time visibility.

 

CONCLUSION

The evolution of
software technologies provides a clear insight into the type of developments
ongoing in the information technology industry. Developers all around the world
are working to improve the convenience and comfort level of humans. With
traditional developments like Java application development, .NET development,
etc., developers need to keep themselves updated with the emerging technologies
and trends.

 

Similarly, it is
vital for organisations to adopt these new technologies in order to expand and
compete with their competitors. Consultancy companies can provide greater
insights into these new technologies and help businesses become software
leaders.

 

(Source:
International Business Times – By IBTimes Staff Reporter, 18th December,
2019)

 

11. New
mobile number portability rules kick in: All you need to know

 

The revised mobile
number portability or MNP rules issued by the telecom regulator TRAI came into
effect from December 16. The new rules are slated to make the porting process
fast and simple.

 

The revised process
comes with conditions for generation of Unique Porting Code (UPC). It entails
three working days’ timeline for port out requests within a service area, and
five working days for requests for port out from one circle to another.

 

Here are the other
details:

*For corporate mobile
connections, there is no change in the porting timelines, TRAI stated;

* Mobile users can
generate the UPC and avail the mobile number porting process;

* In the new process,
the UPC can be generated only when the subscriber is eligible to port out his /
her mobile number;

* Laying down the
rules for the new process, the Regulator said a positive validation of various
conditions will determine the generation of the UPC;

* For instance, in
case of post-paid mobile connection, the subscriber has to ensure clearance of
outstanding dues towards the existing telecom service provider for the issued
bills as per normal billing cycle;

* Some other
conditions include activation in the present operator’s network of not less
than 90 days; and no pending contractual obligations to be fulfilled by the
subscriber as per the exit clause provided in the subscriber agreement;

* Once UPC is
generated, it will be valid for four days for all ‘Licensed Service Areas
(LSAs)’ except the circles of Jammu & Kashmir, Assam and North-East, where
it will remain valid for 30 days.

* Users will need to
submit address and identity proof to the changing operator to begin the MNP
request.

 

(Source:
Times of India.com – 16th December, 2019)

 

II. Economy

 

12. Government
imposes restrictions on import of gold, silver

 

According to a
notification issued by the Directorate-General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), import
of gold in any form has been placed in ‘restricted’ category from ‘free’
category.

Amid
rising inward shipments of gold, the Government imposed restrictions on the
import of precious metals. According to a notification issued by the
Directorate-General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), import of gold in any form has
been placed in ‘restricted’ category.

 

‘Import
policy of gold in any form, other than monetary gold and silver in any form, is
amended from “Free” to “Restricted”; import is allowed only through nominated
agencies as notified by RBI (in case of banks) and DGFT (for other agencies),’
the Directorate said. However, import under advance authorisation and supply of
gold directly by foreign buyers to exporters against orders have been exempted.
The restrictions come in the backdrop of rising imports of gold, which rose by
6.59% to USD 2.94 billion in November from USD 2.76 billion a year-ago.

 

(Source: Financial
Express – By PTI, 18th December, 20

SOCIETY NEWS

Full Day Seminar on “GAAR and Anti-avoidance Provisions” held on 16th November 2018

The International Taxation Committee organised a one-day Seminar on GAAR and other Anti-Avoidance Provisions at St. Regis, Parel. The seminar was aimed at appraising the participants of the intricacies and issues coming out of these provisions through panel discussions on burning topics related to the subject.

CA. Pinakin Desai provided a thought-provoking Key Note Address which set the tone for the remainder of the day. The session was chaired by CA. Dilip Thakkar who also released the latest publication by BCAS on “GAAR (Including other Anti-Avoidance Provisions) – A Compendium”. The Compendium comprises of 30 articles spread over 2 volumes authored by some of the best minds in the profession.

The book launch was followed by a panel discussion amongst CA. Geeta Jani, CA. Padamchand Khincha and Mr. Kamlesh Varshney which was chaired by CA. Kishor Karia. The panel dealt with various issues related to GAAR, SAAR, JAAR, PPT and their interplay. Mr. Varshney made insightful remarks in to what could be the Revenue’s approach in applying these provisions.

The second panel was chaired by CA. Rashmin Sanghvi and the panellists – CA. Sushil Lakhani, CA. Yogesh Thar and CA. Karishma Phaterphekar who took up various issues surrounding recent domestic anti-avoidance provisions of POEM, Section 56(2) and Section 94B respectively.

The final panel of the day took up Case Studies on a diverse set of topics which would be impacted by GAAR. The panel was chaired by CA T P Ostwal. CA. Pranav Sayta provided insights on Structuring of inbound investments while CA. Ketal Dalal took up issues related to Holding Company Structures. CA Anup Shah provided his views on issues which would affect Restructuring of companies.

All the panellists ably brought out that GAAR and other anti-avoidance provisions are something that every professional dealing with taxation will need to reckon with; and drove home the point that a fresh look will be required – not only for new structures, but even for existing ones. The Chairman, CA. Mayur Nayak ended the day’s proceedings by thanking the faculty and encouraging the participants to take benefit from BCAS’ publication on GAAR. The meeting was a huge takeaway for the participants.

Full Day Seminar on “Burning Issues in Real Estate” held jointly with IMC Chamber of Commerce and Industry on 17th November, 2018

Corporate & Allied Laws Committee of BCAS organised a Full Day Seminar on Burning Issues in Real Estate, jointly with IMC Chamber of Commerce and Industry, on 17th November, 2018 at IMC, Churchgate wherein the key topics on Direct Tax, RERA, Issues and Opportunities in Funding, GST and JV/JD Structuring were discussed by the eminent speakers and Panellists as under:

Direct Tax: Moderated by CA. Chetan Shah and Panelists: CA. Pinakin Desai, CA. Gautam Nayak, CA Uday Ved and Mr. Yasin Virani of K Raheja Corp.

RERA: Moderated by Advocate Sudip Mullick of Khaitan & Co and Panalists: Advocate Parimal Shroff of Parimal K Shroff & Co, Rajan Bandelkar (Naredco) and Mr. Ravi Sinha (Track2Realty)

Issues and Opportunities in Funding: Moderator Amit Goenka (Nisus) and Panelists: Ram Yadav (Edelwiess), Shobhit Agrawal (Anarock) and Sharad Mittal (Motilal Oswal).

GST: Moderated by CA. Sunil Gabhawalla and Panelists: CA. Parind Mehta, Mr. Sajal Gupta (Rustomjee) and Advocate Vikram Nankani.

JV/JD Structuring: Moderator CA. Ketan Dalal and Panelists: CA. Bhairav Dalal, CA. (Dr) Anup Shah, Mr Piyush Vora (Lodha Developers) and CA. Naushad Panjwani.

The meeting was attended by 110 participants who learnt a lot from the rich experience of the speakers and panelists.

“Half Day Workshop on GST Audit” held on 23rd November, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

 

BCAS, as a NACIN accredited training partner has been in the forefront in creating awareness about GST and supported the Government in ushering this reform by organising various lecture meetings, seminars and workshops related to GST. As a part of this endeavour, Indirect Taxation Committee organised a Half Day Workshop on GST Audit on 23rd November, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall. The workshop was divided into two sessions. The 1st session on “Overview of GST Audit Process, Various Reconciliations involved in GST Audit & Overview of Annual Return and its contents” which was taken up by CA. Udayan Choksi and the 2nd session on “GSTR-9C, Audit Checklist and Issues involved in GST Audit” which was taken up by CA. Jigar Doshi.

 

On this occasion, BCAS Publication “Concept of Supply under GST Law” was also released. The workshop was very well received and the participants took benefit of the same.

Full day programme on “Accounting and Auditing in SAP – Issues in Process and Controls” held on 24th November, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

Technology Initiatives Committee conducted a full day programme on “Accounting and Auditing in SAP – Issues in Process and Controls” on 24th November, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall. The program was jointly led by CA. Jairam Motwani (who has domain experience in Novereof in solutioning, architecting, customizing, execution and coordinating SAP projects and audits) and CA. Mahesh Ahuja, having extensive experience in Internal Audits, Risk & Controls review, SAP Role based controls and GRC implementation and review.

Both the speakers dealt with the topic by providing a step by step process for Accounting and Auditing in SAP. They also discussed various issues and Control points to mitigate the issues while using the SAP.

The session was very interactive and the participants got enlightened a lot from the discussion.
Training Session for CA Article Students on “GST Annual Return’ and ‘GST Audit from Article’s Perspective” held on 30th November, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

The Students Forum under the auspices of HRD Committee organised a Training Session for CA Article Students on the above-mentioned topics on 30th November, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall.

The first session on GST Annual Return was taken by Student Speaker Ms. Neelam Soneja under the mentorship of CA. Raj Khona followed by a session on GST Audit by CA. Jigar Shah. Mr. Jason Joseph, the student co-ordinator introduced the mentor and speakers for the session. CA. Anand Kothari, the convenor of the HRD Committee spoke about various activities conducted by BCAS Students Forum.

CA. Raj Khona in his opening remarks highlighted few key areas which article students should keep in mind while filing the annual returns. Ms. Neelam Soneja then explained the entire Form GSTR-9 clause by clause and dealt with the various issues / complexities involved in the annual return form. In the 2nd session, CA. Jigar Shah gave a brief insight on various aspects of GST Audit with useful tips on how to effectively conduct GST Audit. The training session was attended by 175+ students. Both the sessions were interactive whereby the speakers answered all the queries raised by the participants.

Suburban Study Circle Meeting on “GST Annual Return – GSTR 9 – Detailed Analysis and Issues in Filing” held on 1st December, 2018

The Suburban Study Circle organised a meeting on “GST Annual Return – GSTR 9 – Detailed Analysis and Issues in Filing” on 1st December, 2018 at Bathiya & Associates, Andheri which was addressed by CA. Chirag Mehta.
The Speaker started the session with statutory background and legal provisions regarding the GST Annual Return – GSTR – 9. He explained in detail the various clauses of GSTR 1 and GSTR 3B and the specific clauses to be considered while consolidating the annual figures. He further explained the structure of GSTR – 9 Annual return and what is expected from the registered dealers in each section.

The detailed analysis of each clause of the GSTR – 9 was done along with explanation on the data to be entered under each clause. CA. Chirag Mehta raised very important issues which the dealers may face while preparing the annual return and also provided his views on the said issues. The speaker highlighted the importance of self study and practical exposure to be the key factors in successful filing of annual returns.

The participants got enlightened from the presentation shared by the speaker.

TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVES STUDY CIRCLE

Technology Initiative Study Circle on “Productivity Apps for Workplaces-Part III” held on 4th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

Technology Initiatives Committee conducted a Study Circle Meeting on Productivity Apps for Workplaces Part III on 4th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall which was led by CA. Rajesh Pabari who is an HR Consultant by Profession and aspiring management consultant by Passion.

It was the third session on Productivity Apps for Workplaces followed by sessions held on 23rd August 2018 and 21st September 2018. CA. Rajesh Pabari covered effective use of few more Google Chrome Extensions which are extremely helpful but were not covered in earlier sessions. He also demonstrated few tips for more effective Google searches syntax which will help to refine search results like search in title of pages, date wise, file type and specific website etc. He also explained some extremely useful tips for enabling to save time while using laptops/desktop shortcuts on day to day basis.

At this session, the Committee tried to experiment Live session online on Youtube for participants to go online through their Desktop and Smartphones. The video is available on Youtube.
The session was followed by Q&A session where the Speaker thoroughly addressed all the queries of the participants. The study circle was truly enthralling, and the participants appreciated the in-depth insight given by the learned speaker.

Intensive Study Course on “Data Analytics for Internal Audit” held on 7th & 8th December, 2018

The GRC subgroup of the Accounting and Auditing Committee organised a 2-day hands-on workshop on “Data Analytics for Internal Audit – using IDEA”: the workshop, anchored by CA. Deepjee Singhal, was divided into 1-day of seminar sessions, followed by 1-day of hands on training on the IDEA data analytics tool, for which each of the participants was provided a limited period IDEA licence along with data sets to get a feel of different IDEA features that can be effectively used for Internal Audit.

The workshop, inaugurated by president CA. Sunil Gabhawalla, had participants from the CA profession as also from the industry. CA. Deepjee Singhal provided a crisp overview of the Current Trends in Use of Data Analytics, with specific reference to internal Audit. A panel discussion with CA. Amit Pandit, CA. Jyotin Mehta and CA. Satish Shenoy provided insights to the participants as to the way in which data analytics has been integrated with the Governance-Risk-Compliance Advisory over the past decade and what the future may hold.

Mr Jairam Rajshekhar and Mr Saurabh Patkar demonstrated the various features of IDEA tool on day-1 and on day-2, they led the hands-on sessions where the participants got an opportunity to actually use these features on their own computers.

The case study based teaching method adopted for the workshop, with real data, enabled the participants to gain a first-hand experience of using the IDEA tool for data analytics.

The participants expressed deep appreciation for the in-depth and hands-on training provided in the upcoming field of data analytics with a special focus on Internal Audit.

INTENSIVE STUDY GROUP ON GST

Intensive Study Group Meeting on “Goods and Services Tax – Clause by Clause Study and Analysis of GST Act” held on 20th & 21st July, 24th & 25th August, 26th & 27th October, 16th November & 7th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

After the successful in-depth study and response in Batch-I held during March and April 2018, it was decided to further extend the study for few more months specially for some of the uncovered topics during Batch-I. The Batch-II was planned with 8 sessions (During July to December 2018) on Fridays and Saturdays by Bombay Chartered Accountant’s Society wherein section-wise study of the GST Act was held. There was an in-depth study and all the sessions were quite interactive. Each session was held under the guidance of 2 to 3 mentors who have a great expertise on the subject.

Each session was attended by more than 25 participants. It was highly appreciated by the members who shared their practical experience and got benefited as the coverage of the subject was detailed one.

HUMAN DEVELOPMENT AND TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVES COMMITTEE

Human Development Study Circle on the topic “Building Civic Leaders” held on 11th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

Human Development Study Circle organised a meeting on the topic “Building Civic Leaders” on 11th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall which was addressed by Ms. Sapna Karim. The Speaker explained that we generally face difficulties in the quality of life in our neighbourhoods, clean surroundings in public places, enough water supply and good roads. She explained that Janaagraha is pursuing efforts to ensure that we as citizens are able to have a good quality of life in our cities through improvements in infrastructure and city administration and importantly demonstrate active citizenship. Janaagraha lives by the principle ‘urgent patience’ which would mean – be patient for change, but make urgent efforts to affect it. Quality of citizenship is not just a means to an end, but an end in itself. She emphasised that citizens must meet regularly to see how they can contribute. ChangeMyCity.com is a site that works for this and also powers the Swachhata app for the national government under the Swachh Bharath Mission. The Speaker mentioned that we do not want sporadic solutions but systematic solutions that take time as it involves changing or evolving new laws, policies, practices within government and enabling good citizenship values and behaviours.
The meeting was very participative and was a huge takeaway for the participants.

FEMA STUDY CIRCLE

FEMA Study Circle Meeting on “Current and Capital Account Transactions-Part II” held on 13th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

A FEMA Study Circle Meeting was held on 13th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall where CA. Manoj Shah led the discussion on the topic of “Current and Capital Account Transactions-Part II”. He did an in-depth analysis of Section 3 – Dealings in Foreign Exchange and dissected clause (a), (b) and (c) of section 3. He deliberated upon the meaning of “dealing” and discussed when a resident can pay on behalf of non-resident. He also explained couple of high court judgements on the subject of payment by resident on behalf of non-resident. He also pointed out that in one compounding matter, amount of FDI proceeds were received from third party intermediary instead of Authorised Person and penalty was levied therein. The members appreciated the efforts put in by the group leader and benefitted a lot from the session.

The Sixteenth Nani A. Palkhivala Memorial Lecture on “Guardian Angel of Fundamental Rights” held by Nani A. Palkhivala Memorial Trust on 15th December, 2018

The Sixteenth Nani A. Palkhivala Memorial Lecture on the topic “Guardian Angel of Fundamental Rights” was held by Nani A. Palkhivala Memorial Trust on 15th December, 2018, in association with Bombay Bar Association, Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society, The Bombay Incorporated Law Society and Forum of Free Enterprises, at the Tata Theatre, NCPA, Nariman Point, Mumbai. The proceedings commenced with the performance by students of NCPA Special Music Training Programme. The lecture was delivered by Hon’ble Mr. Justice Rohinton F. Nariman, Judge, Supreme Court of India. The lecture meeting was presided over by Mr. Y. H. Malegam, Chairman, Board of Trustees. The Speaker talked about the achievements of Late Palkhivala in the field of legal profession as well as several publications authored by him. He also discussed about the accolades Mr. Palkhivala earned in the domestic and international sphere and his memorable stint with Tata Group and as President, Forum of Free Enterprise and Founder Chairman, The A. D. Shroff Memorial Trust.
On this occasion, The Nani A. Palkhivala Civil Liberties Awards were also presented.

The meeting was attended by over 145 participants who got inspired and enthused with the well explained facts by the learned Speaker. The meeting concluded with a vote of thanks by the Trustee Mr. Deepak S. Parekh.

Lecture Meeting on “Right to Information vs Privacy” held on 17th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

A Samvad was organised at the Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society under auspices of BCAS Foundation on the subject ‘Right to Information (RTI) vs. Privacy’ on 17th December, 2018. Panellists invited were Shri Shailesh Gandhi, Former Central Chief RTI Commissioner, Justice Shri Abhay Thipsay (Retired Judge, Bombay High Court) and Shri V. A. Thorat, former Advocate General Maharashtra. Past President CA. Raman Jokhakar acted as a moderator.

President CA. Sunil Gabhawalla in his opening remarks stressed the need to have such debates and dialogue to bring clarity and consensus on the matters relating to the RTI. This he said was needed to bring transparency in the dealings between government and people to achieve true spirit of democracy.

Shri Shailesh Gandhi said that Right to Information is a fundamental right of citizens under Article 8(1) (a) of the constitution which guarantees freedom of speech and expression subject to Article 19 (2) which restricts it only in the interest of sovereignty, integrity and security of the state, public order, decency or morality, friendly relations with foreign state or in relation to contempt of court or defamation.

He further said that there is an adequate safeguard also prescribed under Section 8 (1) (j) of the RTI Act which exempts only that information which relates to personal information, the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest and which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the individual unless the information officer is satisfied that larger public interest justifies disclosure of such information. However, the proviso under the section amply clarifies the intent that only the information which cannot be denied to Parliament or the State Legislature shall not be denied to any person. “Despite this, information is often denied to people mistakenly classifying it as personal information” said Shailesh Gandhi. He lamented that increasingly some Supreme Court judgments were being cited to call every information as private and having no public interest and thus being denied. Among them were details related to service records and asset records labelling them as information between the employers and employees. “This has effect of completely diluting the fundamental right of RTI given to citizens of India under the constitution by misinterpretation of Section 8(1) (j) of the RTI Act, because they could always qualify for disclosure to the Parliament or State Legislature” he concluded.

Justice Thipsay said that when it comes to assets and service records of public servants, they should be provided under the RTI Act. He however cautioned that one needs to maintain a delicate balance to harmonise the conflict between the RTI and Privacy. He said that good society is not guaranteed by the information alone; one also has to keep check on whether this right is exploited to settle personal score. He opined that this was not a fight to finish but a process of evolution.

Shri V. A. Thorat said that information should be given on case-to-case basis when it comes to assets and details of service records. “Even if the provision for disclosing information exists, it cannot be applied universally without applying mind as to whether it will qualify under Article 19)(2). One has to draw the line between information that is necessary having regard to the facts and one what could be abused for personal gain with no public interest. However, he also said that judgements can’t be read as statutes and one needs to distinguish between public information sought in public interest and use of RTI for frivolous queries.

The two speakers while disagreeing with Shri Shailesh Gandhi about disclosure of information opined that use of discretion on the facts and circumstances of each case was necessary in protecting the right of privacy. However, all agreed that constitution is sovereign and not the provision of legislation. It would be ideal that within the ambit of restrictions laid down by Article 19 (2), the spirit of RTI is truly observed.

The debate was mind churning and intellectually enlightening. CA. Raman Jokhakar asked some poignant questions on the tendency of government officers to shirk their obligation cast under RTI Act and questioned logic of creating controversy. These were appropriately answered by the panellists. A lot many questions from enlightened audience augmented the ethos. Widely attended by cross section of people, it engaged the audience completely and prompted lot of spontaneous responses from them sharing their experiences.

Joint Secretary CA. Mihir Sheth gave a deserving vote of thanks to the panellists.

ITF STUDY CIRCLE

Study Circle Meeting on “Taxation of Profits from Shipping and Aircraft (for Non Residents) under DTAA (Part 2)” held on 18th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

ITF Study Circle organised a meeting on the captioned subject on 18th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall. The Study circle was led by CA. Sonia Agrawal who explained briefly about Part 1 where the Shipping Business Taxation comes under the purview of Domestic Tax Laws. Various issues with regards to Inland Waterways and Water Transport on the coastal ways, inside India and outside India, High Sea Shipping Cargo were also discussed.

There was a detailed discussion on Article 8 of the Treaty. Case laws on recent amendments were also taken up. The participants could resolve their queries with the group leader. The members of the Study Circle shared their experiences on above mentioned issues and all participants benefitted from the discussion on the subject.

Study Circle Meeting on “Contentious Issues under GST “held on 19th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall

A study circle meeting on the topic Contentious Issues under GST was held under the aegis of Indirect Taxation Committee on 19th December, 2018 at BCAS Conference Hall which was addressed by Sr. Advocate P. K. Sahu, who delivered an in-depth analysis of the issues with reasoning. The meeting was very interactive and the learned speaker dealt with all the issues posted before him in detail.

The meeting was a huge takeaway for the participants.

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

PART A  DECISION OF SUPREME COURT

 

u Supreme
Court slams centre for keeping names of applicants for Information
Commissioners’ post secret; asks it to make them public

The Supreme Court (SC) has directed the Centre to publish names,
criteria and other details of search committee’s work so far for appointments
to the Central Information Commission, under the Right to Information (RTI)
Act.

 

The case pertained to the inordinate delay in filling up the vacancies
of crucial posts of Central Information Commissioners (CICs) and Information
Commissioners (ICs), the SC order is a big boost for activists, who have
campaigned tirelessly for transparency in selection of information
commissioners.

 

The SC directive follows an affidavit submitted by the central
government in court today. The Government had earlier committed to decide on
vacancies even before a public interest litigation (PIL) for appointment of
Commissioners was filed. It told the SC today that it had received 65
applications for the post of the Chief Central Information Commissioner and 280
applications for the four posts of Information Commissioners. The affidavit
states that the government has shortlisted names for the post of CIC. However,
after the latest SC directive, the government will have to publish these names
on its website, before it selects the chief information commissioner.

 

As for the eight other States that were also asked to file an affidavit,
the Telangana government has said that it was busy with elections so the SC has
given it two more weeks to file its affidavit. The petitioners bought it to the
notice of the court that there were 10,000 second appeals pending with this
State Commission. The Odisha government’s affidavit states that a selection
committee has been formed to fill up four vacancies for ICs.

 

It may be recalled that a writ petition was filed by activists Anjali
Bharadwaj, Amrita Johri and Commodore Lokesh Batra (retd). The reason for this
petition was that “under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, the Central
Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SIC) have been
created as statutory bodies to decide appeals and complaints against public
authorities, for non-compliance with the RTI law. The proper functioning of
these institutions is essential for effective implementation of the RTI Act.
The RTI law provides that the CIC must consist of a Chief Information
Commissioner and ten information commissioners.”

 

In an earlier hearing on 27th July, 2018, the SC had directed
the central government to file an affidavit stating how many posts it proposed
to fill, based on the advertisement issued, the time schedule for filling the
posts, why appointments were not made subsequent to a 2016 advertisement and
measures to ensure transparency in the process of appointment – all this was
highlighted in the PIL. In addition, eight state governments, who are
respondents in the case, were also directed to file affidavits enumerating the
steps they are taking for filling up vacancies, the time frame within which
these will be filled and the procedure of appointment.

 

Incidentally, Chief
Information Commissioner Radha Krishna Mathur, and three Central Information
Commissioners – Prof. M Sridhar Acharyulu, Yashovardhan Azad and A
Bhattacharyya, retired in the last week of November 2018. That makes for eight
vacancies in the Commission.

 

Besides the legal intervention sought, former Central Information
Commissioner, Prof Acharyulu too kept up the pressure on government by writing
a letter to the President of India, Ram Nath Kovind, last week regarding the
inordinate delay in appointing information commissioners.

 

Prof. Acharyulu in his letter stated: “…the Government of India should have
completed process of appointing the Chief Information Commissioner before the
retirement of Shri Radha Krishna Mathur, to be ready to take over the
administration of the Commission without any gap, because the RTI Act has not
envisaged any vacancy in that high position at any point of the time. The
Commission has experienced absence of administration for several months as the
Government did not appoint Chief Information Commissioner, three years ago,
after retirement of the then Chief. Unfortunately now also that position is
left vacant since 22nd November, 2018. Similarly leaving seven
positions of CICs also will lead to increase in the pendency of second
appeals/complaints. The delay in information amounts to denial of information
and delay in information justice also means its denial.”

 

During the hearing on the 3rd December, the petitioners had
pointed out that at present there were vacancies in the Central Information
Commission, including that of the Chief and the backlog of appeals/complaints
had risen to more than 26,000. They also pointed out that the advertisement
issued by the central government for the posts of Information Commissioners and
the Chief Information Commissioner did not specify the salary and tenure, even
though these are specifically defined in the RTI Act & therefore, the
advertisements were not in keeping with the RTI law. All previous
advertisements for the posts specified the salary and tenure. Upon being
questioned about the anomaly in the advertisements, the counsel for the central
government stated that the government was intending to amend the RTI Act.

 

Prof Acharyulu, former Central Information Commissioner has appealed to
President of India for appointment of eminent persons from fields other than
Administration to the CIC. His letter says:

 

“I would like produce the text of Section 12(5) of RTI Act 2005 for
ready reference, at this juncture:

 

The Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners shall
be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in
law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media
or administration and governance.”

 

“In this context, as a person who worked as Central Information
Commissioner for five years till recently, I request your Excellency to
consider following suggestions:

 

1.    As the Chief Information
Commissioner in all these 13 years was selected from the field of
Administration only, at least, this time an eminent person from the field other
than Administration may be selected; and if for any reason, the Government
decides to select a retired bureaucrat once again, it should ensure that he had
credentials of integrity, commitment towards transparency and has never
supported or promoted any kind of secrecy in administration. The people have a
right to know this kind of background of the Chief and other Commissioners. The
Government should also commit itself to appoint next Chief Information
Commission from other than bureaucrats.

2.   As mandated by section 12(5) of the RTI Act,
the Government of India has a statutory duty to select at least one person of
eminence each in public life with wide knowledge and experience from the fields
of (1) law, (2) science, (3) technology, (4) social service, (5) management,
(6) journalism, and (7) mass media. As the Government has already appointed
three eminent persons with experience in administration, who are working now,
the Committee, as a principle, should not consider the persons from this field
for this time. 

 3.        Whenever
the Selection Committee convenes, from now onwards, it shall select one eminent
person of experience each from these fields necessarily for making the Central
Information Commission representative of multiple fields of public activity and
truly democratic. With experts from various fields, there will be no scope for
bureaucratic majority or domination in its administration besides accommodating
different view-points. If the Government selects more number of former
bureaucrats for these posts, it will in breach of letter and spirit of
transparency law and more particularly that of Section 12(5) of RTI Act, which
may not stand the scrutiny by the Judiciary.

 4.        The Selection Committee should also ensure
that the new Commissioners appointed shall have the complete independence with
regard to the term, status and salary as provided by the RTI Act. Their term,
status and salary shall not be ‘as
prescribed’ by the Central Government’ as contemplated by the present
Government in the proposed Amendment to RTI Act.

 5. The
Government shall ensure that it will not interfere in the functioning of
Central Information Commission and also to insulate the office of Chief
Information Commissioner or individual commissioner from direct or indirect
pressures or interferences from any of its offices such as PMO or the Ministry
of DoPT.

 6. The
Government shall not introduce the RTI (Amendment) Bill, 2018 and shelve it
permanently, in the interest of transparency of administration and good
governance.

 7.  Hereafter, the Government shall fill every vacancy promptly so that
a new Chief/Commissioner takes over the charge from the retiring Commissioner
without any gap.

(Source:https://www.moneylife.in/article/sc-slams-centre-for-keeping-names-of-applicants-for-information-commissioners-post-secret-asks-it-to-make-them-public/55914.html
)

 

 

PART B RTI ACT, 2005

u
Maharashtra facilitates inspection of files. Here is how to do file inspection
under RTI

Recently, the Maharashtra government took an
important step towards transparency through a government resolution (GR) which
directs every public authority in the state to provide two hours, once a week,
for citizens to walk into the government offices, for inspection of files u/s.
4 of the RTI Act. However, even though citizens can demand to see documents
under this provision, not many know how to go about it.

 

In order that such a useful and
citizen-friendly initiative is not lost due to citizens’ inhibition or
ignorance, here are some tips on how to be on top of the board.

 

Just to
reiterate, inspection of files was pioneered in Pune way back in 2005 and
followed thereafter by the Pune Municipal Corporation (PMC) in 2009, directing
its public authorities to keep every Monday, between 3pm and 5pm, open for
citizens to inspect files. At that time, even public information officers
(PIOs) or heads of public authorities were not aware that it is not necessary
for a citizen to write an application for inspection of files u/s. 4 of the RTI
Act.

 

In fact, I remember when I met the
secretary, environment in the Mantralaya to inspect files regarding Dow
Chemicals in 2010, despite my having sent him an email and an SMS (as I was
coming to Mumbai from Pune), he asked me to write an application.

 

I convinced him that I was not required to
do so and the following note made by the late Prakash Kardaley and Vijay
Kumbhar came in handy for me. (The secretary, environment then spoke to his
legal cell about this provision in front of me and then asked his executive
director to show me all the files pertaining to Dow Chemicals and directed him
to give me any photo copies that I wanted).


Thus, when any citizen goes for file
inspection, I would suggest you carry the following note which will be an
eye-opener to the PIO, besides arming you with the required ammunition. Here it
is:


1. Your kind attention is drawn to section 4
of the Right to Information Act, 2005 under Chapter II on `Right to Information
and Obligation of Public Authorities’.


 2. As
per the provision, it is obligatory for every public authority (including
xxxxxx name the office you would be visiting) to publish certain
categories of documents so as to make voluntary disclosure of information so
that citizens have “minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain
information.”


3. Information
covered by section 4, in fact, should have been published on 12th
May, 2005 and disseminated widely in such form and manner which is easily
accessible to the public and should have been updated at regular intervals
later.


 4. It
is further explained in the provision that ‘disseminated’ means making known
or communicated the information to the public through
notice boards,
newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts, the internet or any other
means, including “inspection of offices of any public authority. “
I am enclosing here the full text of section 4 as adopted by the Parliament of
India for your reference.


 5. I
regret to bring to your notice that no information covered under this section 4
has been disseminated yet by you, a public authority under the state
government, through notice boards, newspapers, public announcements, media
broadcasts and Internet.


 6.
Nevertheless, citizens have a right to inspect these documents in the office of
the public authority, including the (xxxx name the office), as
explicitly mentioned in the provision u/s. 4.


 7. It
may be noticed that a citizen desiring to inspect the documents containing
information covered u/s. 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005, need not make
any formal requisition u/s. 6 of the Act because these documents should have
already been published by the public authority (including xxx name the office)
so that citizens have “minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain
information.”


 8.
Implementation of this provision of the Act (u/s. 4) is the direct
responsibility of the head of the public authority. In this specific instance,
it is your direct responsibility as the municipal commissioner and the
administrative head of the Pune Municipal Corporation. Hence this letter is
addressed to you and not to any public information officer (PIO) since no
formal requisition is needed to be filed, please note.

 

In case the public authority insists on a
formal letter, then write it this way, says RTI activist Vijay Kumbhar:

 

VERY IMPORTANT NOTE: Intimation of inspection u/s. 4 should be addressed to the top
authority of the government department (meaning the municipal commissioner, if
it is a municipal corporation) unlike an application u/s. 6 which is addressed
to the public information officer (PIO).

 

Draft of intimation

 

To

 

The Head of the Department

 

Subject – Intimation for inspection of files
related to  xxxxxxxxxx

 

Dear Mr. Head of the Department

 

As per the circular sankirn2018/ pra.kra.
45/ karya 6, dated 26/11/2018, the government of Maharashtra has allowed
inspection of files in every department. Please note that as per section 4 of
the RTI act and as per the said circular there is no need to give any
intimation for inspection of files in any public authority. However, being
responsible citizens, we thought it preferable to intimate you beforehand.

 

I intend to exercise my right as a citizen
to inspect documents related to xxxxxx. I will visit your office on Monday
xx/xx/2018.

 

Thanking you

With Regards

Citizens must remember they are the
custodian of most government files, except the ones u/s. 8 of the RTI Act, says
Kumbhar and, therefore:

 

  As these files belongs to citizens and
citizens are owners of these files they should not to feel awkward, guilty or
hesitate to demand a file for inspection

  Remember, once a citizen gives them the
intimation, the citizen should not have to wait for a reply from the
officer,  simply because a citizen has
the right to inspect files during the designated working hours of the public
authority. The intimation is just for the purpose of convenience and to avoid
excuses by officials.

  Once citizens have gone through the documents
they can ask for the copies of the inspected documents. To obtain such copies,
u/s. 6 of the RTI Act, one need not give an application. Merely giving a list
of document on plain paper is enough. However, they need to pay the fees
required for photocopying.

 

 Text
of Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005

 

4. (1)   
Every public authority shall

 (a) 
maintain all its records duly catalogued and indexed in a manner and
form which facilitates the right to information under this Act and ensure that
all records that are appropriate to be computerised are, within a reasonable
time and subject to availability of resources, computerised and connected
through a network all over the country on different systems so that access to
such records is facilitated;

 (b) 
publish within one hundred and twenty days from the enactment of this
Act,-


(i) the particulars of its organisation,
functions and duties;


(ii) the powers and duties of its officers
and employees;


(iii) the procedure followed in the decision
making process, including channels of supervision and accountability;


(iv) the norms set by it for the discharge
of its functions;


(v) the rules, regulations, instructions,
manuals and records, held by it or under its control or used by its employees
for discharging its functions;


(vi) a statement of the categories of
documents that are held by it or under its control;


(vii) the particulars of any arrangement
that exists for consultation with, or representation by, the members of the
public in relation to the formulation of its policy or implementation thereof;


(viii) a statement of the boards, councils,
committees and other bodies consisting of two or more persons constituted as
its part or for the purpose of its advise, and as to whether meetings of those
boards, councils, committees and other bodies are open to the public, or the
minutes ‘of such meetings are accessible for public;


(ix) a directory of its officers and
employees;


(x) the monthly remuneration received by
each of its officers and employees, including the system of compensation as
provided in its regulations;


(xi) the budget allocated to each of its
agency, indicating the particulars of all plans, proposed expenditures and
reports on disbursements made;


(xii) the manner of execution of subsidy
programmes, including the amounts allocated and the details of beneficiaries of
such programmes;


(xiii) particulars of recipients of
concessions, permits or authorisations granted by it;


(xiv) details in respect of the information,
available to or held by it, reduced in an electronic form;


(xv) the particulars of facilities available
to citizens for obtaining information, including the working hours of a library
or reading room, if maintained for public use;


(xvi) the names, designations and other
particulars of the public information officers;


(xvii) such other information as may be
prescribed; and thereafter update these publications every year;


 (c) 
publish all relevant facts while formulating important policies or
announcing the decisions which affect public;


 (d) 
provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to
affected persons;


(2) 
It shall be a constant endeavour of every public authority to take steps
in accordance with the requirements of clause (b) of s/s. (1) to provide as
much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various
means of communications, including the internet, so that the public have
minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain information.


(3) 
For the purpose of s/s. (1), every piece of information shall be
disseminated widely and in such form and manner which is easily accessible to
the public.


(4) 
All materials shall be disseminated taking into consideration the cost,
effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in
that local area and the information should be easily accessible, to the extent
possible in electronic format with the central public information officer, or
state public information officer, as the case may be, available fee or at such
cost of the medium or the print cost price as may be prescribed.

 

Explanation: For the purposes of s/s. (3)
and (4), “disseminated” means making known or communicated the
information to the public through
notice boards,
newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts, the internet or any other
means, including inspection of offices of any public authority.

(Source:https://www.moneylife.in/article/maharashtra-facilitates-inspection-of-files-here-is-how-to-do-file-inspection-under-rti/55946.html )

 

PART C INFORMATION ON & AROUND

 

u  384 tigers killed
in India in last 10 years, reveals RTI

A total of 384 tigers have been killed by
poachers across the country in the last ten years, which translates to over
three a month, a reply under the Right to Information has revealed.

 

Between 2008 and 2018 (till November), 961
persons have also been arrested for allegedly poaching tigers, it said. The
information was given by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau or WCCB in response
to a Right to Information (RTI) query filed by Noida-based advocate Ranjan
Tomar.

 

Tomar also an RTI activist, had asked the
WCCB the number of tigers killed by poachers in the last ten years and the
people arrested and convicted for the same. “As per the data available in
records of the Bureau based on the information received from the State Forest
and Police authorities the total number of tigers killed by poachers in the
last 10 years is 384 and 961 number of poachers arrested in the tiger
cases,” the reply stated. However, the bureau said that no information was
available with it regarding conviction of the accused in these cases.

 

“The data makes it clear that
successive governments have not been able to check killing of tigers by
poachers and therefore there is a need for a special initiative to conserve
this wild species or make changes in current laws to make them more effective else,”
Tomar said.

 

For conservation of the country’s national
animal, the government had launched ‘Project Tiger’ in 1973. As per a 2014
assessment, India has the highest number of tigers in the world at 2,226,
according to the website of the Ministry of Environment, Wildlife and Climate
Change.

 

(Source:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/384-tigers-killed-in-india-in-last-10-years-reveals-rti/articleshow/66984490.cms
)

 

u Mumbai
University examinations in question after they receive 76,828 revaluation
applications

Mumbai University has been infamous for its
mismanagement and inability to cope up with the examinations. In an addition to
the list, Mumbai University has seen a sudden spike in the number of
revaluation applications for the academic year 2017-18. The information was
received after a Right To Information (RTI) application was filed for the same
and therefore, it raises questions against the paper checking process.  Revaluation is a facility introduced by the
University for students who are dissatisfied with their score in an examination
or for students who have failed in an examination. However, in order to receive
the benefit of the procedure, the students are obliged to pay a specific amount
of money to the University as ‘Revaluation Fees’, after which the answer sheet
is re-checked by the University. Shoumitkumar Salunkhe had asked for
information of the number of revaluation applications received between June,
2017 and November, 2018. After which, he learned that as compared to the
applications that were received during October, 2017 (60,712 applications), the
applications received during May, 2018 (76,828 applications) had exponentially
increased. And it was crystal clear that the number of applications was growing
every day. However, clarifying on the matter, a University official stated that
the increase in the number of revaluation applications is a result of
University’s decision to reduce the fee to Rs.

250 from Rs. 500. He stated that due to this, the students have been active in
demanding revaluation as the prices are low.

(Source:https://www.mumbailive.com/en/education/more-than-75-thousand-answer-sheet-submitted-for-rechecking-in-mumbai-university-31378 )

 

u Jammu
& Kashmir (J & K Bank) is now under Right to Information Act

J & K Bank (Jammu & Kashmir Bank)
has been brought under the ambit of the Right to Information Act (RTI) Act,
Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) and the Legislature of the State in Jammu
and Kashmir. The official said on Friday that on Thursday evening under the
chairmanship of Governor of Jammu and Kashmir, Satyapal Malik and State
Administrative Council (SAC), in which the proposal to recognise ‘J & K
Bank’ as Public Sector Undertakings (PSU) has been passed. The SAC approved the
proposal that the Jammu and Kashmir Right to Information Act, 2009 will now be
applied to the Jammu and Kashmir Bank, just like the other banks under the PSU.
He told that besides this, the bank will now have to accept the guidelines of
the CVC.

 

He said that like the other PSUs of the
state, ‘J & K Bank’ will also be accountable to the state assembly. The
bank’s annual report will be presented in the assembly by the State Finance
Department.

 

However, Former Chief Minister Mehbooba
Mufti demanded to cancel the decision of the Governor to include Jammu and
Kashmir Bank in the category of PSUs. She said that the involvement of the
Jammu and Kashmir Bank in the category of PSU is a part of the conspiracy to
end the state’s special status.

 

The state administration has clarified that
there is no intention of interfering in the banking system. The Board of
Director of the Bank is the best and it is his autonomous. RBI will work to
regulate RBI as before. The purpose of the decision of the State
Administrative Council is to bring better governance and transparency in the
functioning of the bank
. Applying the Jammu and Kashmir Bank to RTI and
implementing the guidelines of the CVC is just to bring transparency.

 

The bank will be accountable to the state
assembly and its annual report will be present in the state assembly itself.
The right transparency in the bank will come from the RTI Act. All
administrative and recruitment rules are related to it. Union Minister of
State, Dr. Jitendra Singh
said that some families living in the state’s
power have been misusing their bank to understand their estate. The governor’s
decision is in line with the Center’s decision to increase transparency in
financial institutions.

(Source:https://www.newsfolo.com/india/jammu-kashmir-j-k-bank-now-right-information-act/156659/)

 

u CIC brings
BCCI under Right to Information Act

The worst fears
of an Indian cricket selector are about to come true. BCCI has been brought
under the ambit of the Right to Information Act and faces the direct prospect
of being answerable to the country and its public in the near future. The
Central Information Commission (CIC) — the top appellate body in all matters
related to this 2005 Act of the Parliament of India — has directed the BCCI to
be brought under the RTI Act and put in place, within two weeks starting
Tuesday, online and offline mechanisms to receive applications for information
under the RTI Act. Will a selection committee meeting now be public info? “The
BCCI should be listed as a National Sports Federation (NSF) covered under the
RTI Act. The RTI Act should be made applicable to the BCCI along with its
entire constituent member cricketing associations, provided they fulfil the
criteria applicable to the BCCI, as discussed in the Law Commission’s report,”
CIC Commissioner Sridhar Acharyulu said. Those who oversee the day-today
functioning of the BCCI say they are least bit surprised with the development.
“But there are massive pitfalls associated with this too. All hell will break
loose if details of selection committee meetings are now made available to the
public. Who will want to speak his mind then? Every decision taken inside a
selection committee meeting will become a matter of national debate, leading to
tamasha on prime time television news,” said a senior BCCI member.


Recently, the national women’s team coach was sacked by the BCCI because he —
sources say — was asked to jot down details of team meetings and the cricketers
rejected the idea the moment it was proposed.

(Source:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/sports/cricket/news/cic-brings-bcci-under-right-to-information-act/articleshow/66036808.cms)

 

u Indian
students rushing abroad to study medicine, reveals RTI

There has been an increase in the number of
students willing to study medicine abroad, reveals the reply to an RTI query. The
RTI query was sent to the Medical Council of India (MCI) in October 2018 and
the reply reveals that the number of students who applied for the mandatory
eligibility certificate from MCI to study abroad almost doubled in 2017-18 as
compared to 2016-17.

 

As per RTI no. MCI- 201 (E-RTI)/ 2018-
Eligi./, the number of applications received was18,383 in 2017-18 as against
10,555 in 2016-17.

 

Dr. Sylvia Karpagam, a public health doctor
and researcher, said, “The mass migration of doctors has been happening for a
long time and it is not surprising. The entire medical education system, right
from the selection process, the fees and the curriculum are set up as a
commercialised structure, rather than a social commitment. The curriculum
doesn’t focus on the disease that is prevalent in the country. Medical students
are also trained in tertiary care rather than primary healthcare. They are
therefore ill-prepared to work in a primary care setting and definitely not in
a rural care setting.”

 

As per the information provided in the RTI
communication, MCI issued 8,737 eligibility certificates in 2016-2017 and
14,118 certificates in 2017-18. The eligibility certificates issued also
include pending from previous years, the RTI reply suggested.

 

Dr. Karpagam said that there is a need to
change the social structure of medical students who get admission to medical
colleges. Investments should be made into government medical colleges to focus
on training students on health issues concerning the country, with the
particular focus on social determinants of health.

 

The key reason for student migration is the
lack of medical seats in the country, said Mr Saju Bhaskar, president and
founder of an overseas MCI-recognised medical university, Texila American
University. “Information provided in the RTI speaks volumes on the shift in
medical education trends. There are a mere 60,000 medical seats being offered
by both government and private colleges for medical aspirants, who are in
millions.

 



Apart from this, higher awareness levels of
the overseas colleges, affordable fees compared to Indian private colleges,
curriculum aligned to international standards, better global growth
opportunities etc. are the other reasons why students prefer to study MBBS
abroad,” he said.

 

(Source:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/current-affairs/201218/indian-students-rushing-abroad-to-study-medicine-reveals-rti.html)

 

 

PART D RTI ARTICLE

 

u  India: Copyright and the Right To Information

Can a request for information under the
Right to Information Act, 2005 (“RTI Act”) be denied on grounds of
being the copyright of a third party? This was one of the questions that a two
Judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India recently dealt with. The case related
to the issue of disclosure under the RTI Act, where a person sought information
regarding the plans submitted to public authorities by a real estate developer.

BACKGROUND

The origins of the suit, Ferani Hotels
Pvt. Ltd. vs The State Information Commission, Greater Mumbai (Civil Appeal
Nos.9064-9065 of 2018, decision dated 27th September, 2018, Supreme
Court of India
), lie in a private commercial dispute between a real estate
developer, Ferani Hotels, and Mr Nusli Neville Wadia (see).

 

In brief, Mr Wadia administered certain
plots of land as the owner of that land, and granted Ferani Hotels the
authority to develop the land through a Power of Attorney. It came to pass that
Mr Wadia wanted information about the building plans. When the developer failed
to provide the information through other means, Mr Wadia applied to the Public
Information Officer (“PIO”), Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai,
for this information, which included certified copies of plans, layouts,
development plans (and amendments), submitted by Ferani Hotels, its divisions
or architect.

 

The request for this information was
declined on various grounds by the PIO, including that no public interest had
been demonstrated in seeking this information, and that it was the copyright of
Ferani Hotels. The latter ground was based on two arguments put forward by
Ferani Hotels: firstly, that the information-seeker was a business competitor
and the disclosure of the information would harm and injure its competitive
position, as well as its intellectual property rights; secondly, that all
rights in respect of the plans, designs, drawings, etc., including intellectual
property rights and in particular copyright, were reserved and vested
exclusively with the developer.

After winding its way through the corridors
of the information commission architecture set up under the RTI Act, the suit
found itself before the Supreme Court. The Court, in this order, dealt with
multiple questions relating to the RTI application, such as what constitutes
public interest, but this note is restricted to understanding the court’s views
on copyright and the RTI Act.

 

THE RTI ACT AND COPYRIGHT

It is useful to discuss some relevant
provisions of the law at this stage. The RTI Act was created in 2005 to
increase the accountability of government authorities towards the public by
facilitating greater and more effective access to information. Section 6(2) of
the RTI Act says that an applicant does not have to provide any reasons for
requesting the information. In other words, anyone can obtain the information
as long as it is part of the public record of a public authority. The Court
additionally observed that even private documents submitted to public
authorities may, under certain situations, form part of public record.

 

The right to information is subject to
certain restrictions contained in the law. For example, section 8(1)(d) allows
for information to be denied if it includes “commercial confidence, trade
secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the
competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is
satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such
information”. Similarly, section 9 allows a competent authority to
“reject a request for information where such a request for providing access
would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than
the State.”

In the present case, the information sought
for were, in fact, plans relating to the property in question. These plans are
ordinarily required to be submitted by any person proposing to construct on a
property, to the Commissioner of the Corporation. The general principle, which
the Court has reiterated in multiple pronouncements, is that the “fate of
[the] purchase of land development and investments is a matter of public knowledge
and debate.”

 

To highlight this principle, the Court made
reference to provisions of the Maharashtra Ownership Flats (Regulation of the
Promotion of Construction, Sale, Management and Transfer) Act, 1963, which
empower purchasers of flats (which are being built by a developer) to obtain
full information of the sanctioned plans. (This law, although relevant for this
case, has since been repealed by Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act,
2016, which retains the same spirit of positive information disclosure). The
Court made two pertinent observations in this context: firstly, that this right
to obtain information about sanctioned building plans should not be restricted
to flat-buyers, but should also be available to persons who administer the land
as owner, and grant authority for its development. Secondly, the Court noted
that the disclosure of plans, which are already required to be in public domain
under law, cannot possibly be matters of commercial confidence or trade
secrets.

 

THE COURT’S CONLUSIONS

On the issue of intellectual property and copyright, the Court noted
that even though the preparation of the plan and its designs may give rise to
the copyright in favour of a particular person, the disclosure of that work
would not amount to an infringement. Towards this, it cited section 52(1)(f) of
the Copyright Act, 1957, which specifically provides that there would be no
such infringement if there is reproduction of any work in a certified copy made
or supplied in accordance with any law for the time being in force. This is
what was sought for in the present case.

The other relevant observation pertained to
the implications of the overriding effect clause contained in section 22 of the
RTI Act, which provides for an overriding effect with a notwithstanding clause
with regard to any inconsistency with any other Act. The Court clarified that
this would not imply that a disclosure permissible under the Copyright Act,
1957 is taken away under the provisions of the RTI Act, but rather, if a
disclosure is prescribed under any other Act, the provisions of the RTI Act
would have an overriding effect.

 

A LEGAL MISADVENTURE

While tackling this case, the Court also
made plain-spoken observations about the nature of the dispute, calling it
“a legal misadventure”, emerging “clearly [from] the private
dispute, rather than any objective consideration qua the issue of
disclosure of information”, and where “the issue in question was ….
really innocuous”. Costs of Rs 2.50 lakhs were imposed on the appellant,
Ferani Hotels, payable to the information-seeker, although the court also noted
that these were hardly the actual expenses!

 

Article by Sumathi Chandrashekaran

 

(Source:http://www.mondaq.com/india/x/759832/Trade+Secrets/Copyright+And+The+Right+To+Information )

 

RTI Clinic in January 2019: 2nd,
3rd Saturday, i.e. 12th, 19th and February 2nd
11.00 to 13.00 at BCAS premises
 

 

GOODS AND SERVICEs TAX (GST)

I.    HIGH COURT

 

14.   2018
[17] G.S.T.L. 191 (All.) VSL Alloys (India) Pvt. Ltd. vs. State of U.P. and
Ors. Date of Order 13th April, 2018

 

Mere
non-disclosure of vehicle No. in Part-B of E-way Bill cannot be a ground for
seizure of the goods as well as vehicle.

 

FACTS

 

 

During
the movement of the goods from petitioner’s factory upto the transporter’s
premise for further transportation, the vehicle was intercepted. On perusing
the documents produced, it was found that Part-B of the E-way bill was
incomplete. On finding such irregularity, Order was passed u/s. 129 (1)
detaining the vehicle as well as goods and levying tax liability and penalty.
The Petitioner relying on third proviso of Rule 138(3) of CGST Rules, 2017
contested that the filing of Part B of E-way bill was optional where goods are
transported from place of business of consignor to the place of business of the
transporter for further transportation. The Respondent (Department) though
admitted that all the requisite documents were accompanied the goods when the
vehicle has been intercepted. Aggrieved Petitioner filed writ petition before
the Hon’ble High Court.

 

HELD

 

 

Hon’ble
High Court held that there was no ill intention of the petitioner nor the
petitioner was supposed to fill up Part-B of E-way Bill in light of Rule 138
(3) of CGST Rules, 2017. The order was held illegal and once the Petitioner has
placed the evidence with regard to its claim, it was obligatory on the part of
the Department to consider and pass an appropriate reasoned order. The show
cause notice and impugned seizure order were quashed directing to release goods
as well as vehicle.

 

15.  2018 (99) Taxmann.Com 218 (Kerala) Saji S vs.
Commissioner, State gst Department (Kerala High Court) Decided on 12th November, 2018

 

GST
paid under wrong head by mistake can be adjusted with another head

 

FACTS

 

 

The
petitioner purchased goods from Chennai and transported to Kerala. During
transit, for reasons not germane here, the goods were detained by the Assistant
State Tax Officer (‘ASTO’) thereby demanding applicable tax and penalty by way
of notice. The petitioner paid the same on the directions of ASTO.

 

The
department then denied to release the goods because the payment so made was
remitted under the head ‘SGST’ instead the head ‘IGST’. The petitioner
contended that statue empowers the authorities to transfer the deposit from one
head to another, i.e. from SGST to IGST. The Respondent submitted that the
petitioner could as well pay the amount under ‘IGST’ and them claim a refund of
‘SGST’ because if authorities goes for an adjustment, it will take more than a
couple of months. Hence, the writ.

 

HELD

 

 

The Hon’ble Kerala High Court while
deciding the matter held that the facts are not in dispute. Further, section 77
of GST Act, 2017 provides for the refund of the tax paid mistakenly taken under
one head instead of another. However, Rule 4 of GST Rules, 2017 provides for
adjustments where the amount of refund is completely adjusted against
outstanding demand under the Act and an order giving details of the adjustment
to be issued in Part A of Form GST RFD – 07. Under these circumstances, there
seemed no difficulty for the authorities to transfer the amount from head
‘SGST’ to ‘IGST’. It may, as the Respondent has submitted, take some time, but
it was inequitable for the authorities to let the Petitioner suffer.  Hence, the Hon’ble Court directed Respondent
to release the goods along with vehicle and, then ensure that the tax and
penalty are accordingly transferred from the head ‘SGST’ to ‘IGST’. The writ
petition was accordingly disposed.

 

16.  [2018-TIOL-176-HC-MUM-GST] A-1 Cuisines Pvt.
Ltd vs. Union of India dated
28th
November, 2018

 

Shops
located at a domestic Airport or Domestic Security hold area, which are
beforeeven the immigration clearance where the transaction cannot be said to have
taken place in any area beyond the customs frontiers of India or outside India
cannot be considered as a non-taxable supply

 

FACTS

 

 

The Present petition seeks direction to the respondents to
exempt the applicable taxes on sale of cosmetic products, perfumes etc. to the
International passengers and claim refund of any input tax paid on input
supplies and input services from the retail shop which the petitioner intends
to set up at the Domestic Security in the International Airport. It was
submitted that sale of similar products to international passengers are
permitted without levy of Customs duty and applicable taxes under the
CGST/IGST/SGST from the duty free shops located in the arrival and departure
halls of International Airports in India.

 

HELD

 

 

The Court noted that exemption is applicable only in respect
of supplies to or from the duty free shops situated after the passenger crosses
the immigration counter beyond the Customs frontiers, at arrival or departure
hall of International Airport terminals, where the transaction would be said to
have taken place outside India as the same would be a “non-taxable”
supply u/s. 2(78) of the Act and such duty free shops located at the
International Airports would be in “non-taxable” territory as defined
in section 2(79) of the Act. However, to shops located at a domestic Airport or
Domestic Security hold area, which are before even the immigration clearance by
a passenger, where the transaction cannot be said to have taken place in any
area beyond the customs frontiers of India or outside India, no exemption can
apply. It was also noted that a passenger travelling on a domestic flight from
Nagpur may or may not travel abroad and the Customs Authorities would not be
able to have effective check and control to verify whether the goods purchased
from Domestic Airport at Nagpur are actually taken abroad by the passenger.
Accordingly, the petition is dismissed.

 

II.      AUTHORITY OF ADVANCE RULING (AAR)

 

17.  [2018-TIOL-290-AAR-GST] NForce Infrastructure
India Pvt. Ltd dated 28th
November, 2018

 

Construction
service of building/civil structure to supplier of development rights (the land
owner) against consideration in the form of transfer of development rights is
liable for GST.

 

FACTS

 

 

Applicant
entered into an agreement for construction and to hand over residential
apartment area, and 8 car parkings on the land belonging to the six persons.
Project was completed post 01.07.2017. Advance ruling was sought on the
question as to whether they were liable to pay GST on the value of building
constructed and handed over to the land owner in terms of the Joint Development
Agreement since there is no monetary consideration involved. Further, whether
the applicant is liable to pay service tax up to 30.06.2017 and GST thereafter.

 

HELD

 

The authority noted that the Applicant supplied
construction service of building/civil structure to supplier of development
rights (the land owner) against consideration in the form of transfer of
development rights. Supplier of construction service to the supplier of
development rights is liable to pay GST for the service provided in terms of
notification 4/2018-Central Tax (Rate). Further, value is to be determined in
terms of para 2 of notification 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate). Insofar as
liability to pay service tax up to 30.06.2017 is concerned, it is clearly
evident from section 142(11)(b) that the service tax is liable to be paid,
which is liable under the Finance Act, 1994, on the services provided up to
30.06.2017 and on the services provided after 01.07.2017, GST is liable to be
paid.

 

18.  [2018-TIOL-286-AAR-GST] Ina Bearing India
Pvt. Ltd dated 9th July, 2018

 

Sale of goods which are located outside India is not
liable to tax in India u/s. 7(5)(a) of the IGST Act, 2017

 

FACTS

 

 

Sale
of goods which are located outside India to a place outside India i.e. out and
out sale, is a transaction not liable for GST.

 

HELD

 

 

The
Authority held that in case of goods supplied on out and out basis, there is no
levy till the time of their customs clearance in compliance with section 12 of
the Customs       Act and section 3 of the
Customs Tariff Act. Imported goods sold from and to a non-taxable territory,
though they are clearly in the nature of inter-state supply would             come in the category of ‘exempt
supply’ as no duty is leviable on them except in accordance with proviso to
section 5(1) of the IGST Act. It was further noted that the legal position is
reiterated and confirmed by CBIC Circular 3/1/2018-IGST dated 25.05.2018. Thus
Sale of goods which are located outside India is not liable to tax in India u/s. 7(5)(a) of the IGST Act,
2017.
 

 

 

 

Service Tax

I. 
TRIBUNAL

 

25.  2018 (18) G.S.T.L 438 (Tri. Mumbai) Matheson
K. Air India Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central Ex. & S.T., Pune 
Date of Order: 29th March, 2017

 

Service
tax liability under reverse charge mechanism not to arise on rent paid towards
transportation of helium gas by supplier of helium gas from abroad.

 

FACTS

Issue regarding applicability of service tax arose on the rent paid
towards helium gas tankers used for transportation of helium gas by the
suppliers abroad. Demand was raised on reverse charge basis and later
confirmed. Hence appealed before the Tribunal mentioning that in the identical
issue in their own case, the matter was decided (in citation 2017 (4) G.S.T.L.
379 (Tribunal)) holding in favour of the Appellant that the service tax
liability under reverse charge mechanism would not arise in the case of rent
paid for helium gas tankers for transportation of helium under the category of
‘supply of tangible goods for use’.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
Tribunal found that issue arose earlier was identical to the other, and so
respectfully following the same and allowed the appeal. 

 

26.  2018 (18) G.S.T.L 439 (Tri. Chennai)
Microcredit Foundation of India Ltd. vs. Commr. Of S.T., Chennai Date of Order:
9th November, 2017

 

Levy of Business Auxiliary Service non sustainable prior to May, 2006 on
Company registered as non-profit organisation, not being a commercial concern.

 

FACTS

The
liability of service tax under “Business Auxiliary Service” on the appellant, a
company registered u/s. 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 as a non-profit
organisation was made. The definition of ‘Business Auxiliary Service’ as it
stood during the relevant period included only a ‘commercial concern’. The
definition was amended w.e.f. 1.5.2006 to substitute the words “commercial
concern” with “any person”. Since the period involved is prior
to the said date, it was outside the purview of the amended definition.
Decision in the case of Raja Charity Trust vs. CCE & ST Tirunelveli 2017
(4) G.S.T.L. 77 (Tri.-Chennai)
was relied upon.

 

HELD

Tribunal appreciated that prior to 01.05.2006 services rendered to a
client by a commercial concern would only qualify as Business Auxiliary Service
and service rendered to any person would not fall in the ambit of the same. As
clear from the records, the appellant could not be considered as a commercial
concern. Following Raja Charity Trust (supra) allows the appeal the
demand was set aside. 

 

27.  2018 (18) G.S.T.L 460 (Tri. Del.)
Commissioner of Service Tax, Delhi vs. SGC Services P. Ltd. Date of Order: 21st
January, 2018

 

FACTS

Respondent
entered into an agreement with Discount City Hotels Ltd., UK (DCH) for
facilitating the working of its back office in India with respect to running
and maintaining online hotel booking. The Respondent also entered into an
Agreement with with Celergo, USA for performing various activities. Department
brought said services under the Business Auxiliary Services, which was
considered as export of services by the Appellate Authority and dropped the
demand. Consequently, the department filed the appeal.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
Tribunal held that the issue was squarely covered by the ratio laid down by
Larger Bench in the case of Paul Merchants Ltd. vs. Commissioner – 2013 (29)
S.T.R. 257 (Tri. – Del.)
as well as Microsoft Corporation IP Ltd. vs.
Commissioner 2009 (15) S.T.R. 680 (Tri.-Del.)
and observed that the Order
was reasonable and required no 
interference. Hence, Department’s appeal was rejected.

 

28.  [2018-TIOL-3722-CESTAT-MUM] Pallonji and Co.
Pvt. Ltd vs. Commissioner of CGST & CX, Mumbai  Date of Order: 20th
November, 2018

 

Excess
payment of service tax consequent upon reduction in rate of contract and
issuance of credit notes thereof, refund claim rejected on the ground of time
bar – however, assessee was entitled to avail CENVAT credit of the excess tax
paid in terms of Rule 6(3) of STR, 1994

 

FACTS:

Appellant executed certain maintenance, repair and construction through
a work contract agreement.  After
completion of the work, the rate was reduced on renegotiation by both the
parties and against which credit notes were raised to the customers for
differential rate in the value of services and service tax component. The
refund claim for excess service tax paid between the period April 2013 to March
2014 was filed on 30.07.2015 and the adjudicating authority rejected the refund
claim filed u/s. 11B on the ground that the same was not filed within the
stipulated time. Time bar issue was not challenged, however a claim to avail
CENVAT credit as per Rule 6(3) of the Service Tax Rules, 1994 was put forth.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble Tribunal noted that a request for adjustment of excess
payment was made before the Commissioner (Appeals), however the same was
refused as it was not the subject matter of appeal. As per the Tribunal,
section 35A(3) of the Central Excise Act, which is equally applicable to
service tax matters provides that the Commissioner (Appeals) shall make such
further enquiry as may be necessary, pass such order as he thinks just and
proper in confirming, modifying or annulling the decision or order appealed
against. Reliance was placed on the decision of the Apex Court in MIL India
Ltd. vs. CCE 2007 (260) ELT 188 (SC)
where it was held that Commissioner
(Appeals) could also act as an adjudicating authority. Tribunal, further
invoked order 7 Rule 7 of the Civil Procedure Code, which empowers a court to
grant such other relief which may always be given, as a court may think just,
to the same extent as if it has been asked for. Thus the Appeal was allowed and
the Appellant was held entitled to avail CENVAT credit for the refused refund
claim.

 

29.  [2018-TIOL-3703-CESTAT-MAD] Hyundai Motor
India Ltd vs. Commissioner of GST & Central Excise Date of Order: 17th
September, 2018

 

Only
intellectual property recognised under the Indian law is taxable under the
service category of Intellectual Property Service taxable u/s. 65(105)(zzr) of
the Finance Act, 1994

 

FACTS

The
Appellant sold their spare part division vide a trademark licensing Agreement.
On audit by the department, it was noted that the buyer had carried out
valuation of their goodwill by an independent valuer. According to the
department, the amount received as consideration for the transfer of the
business included transfer of goodwill also and the said goodwill was an
intangible property & should be classified as intellectual property &
that the transfer of the same would fall u/s. 65(105)(zzr) of the Finance Act,
1994. Further, the Goodwill also valued to a lower amount than the original
one.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
noted that the mandate of section 65(55b) is that only transfer of intellectual
property recognised under Indian law is taxable. Further, the Karnataka High
Court in Commissioner of Income Tax vs. Associated Electronics and
Electrical Industries (Bangalore) Pvt. Ltd. [2016] 6 ITR-OL 471 (Kar.)

found that trademark & goodwill were distinct concepts. Hence goodwill of
business has no existence except in connection with the continuing business.
Accordingly, it was held that transfer of goodwill would not fall within the
definition of IPR service u/s. 65(55b) of Finance Act, 1994.

 

30.  2018 (17) GSTL 434 (Tri.-Ahmd.) Transpek
Silox Industries Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commr. Of C. Ex., Vadodara-I Date of Order: 15th
November, 2017

 

Recipient
paid 100% service tax instead of 25% under RCM on Manpower Recruitment or
Supply Agency Service, demand of 75% against service provider held not
sustainable

 

FACTS

Appellant
availed benefit of “Manpower Recruitment Agency Service”, in terms of
Notification No. 30/2012-S.T. dated 20.06.2012 (which provides for reverse
mechanism and partial reverse mechanism on certain services). But neither
Appellant paid 75% of the service tax nor supplier of service paid remaining
25% of service tax, which they were required to pay. Upon realisation from
Revenue, Appellant paid service tax and in one case the supplier itself has
paid 100% service tax instead of 25% and in that case Appellant did not pay
service tax. Therefore, demand of service tax was confirmed @ 75% of the
service tax on the value of manpower recruitment service received by them.
Aggrieved by the said order, the Appellant preferred appeal before the
Tribunal.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
Tribunal held that on pointing out by the revenue the Appellant immediately
paid service tax, therefore demand is not sustainable in this case. For another
invoice on which Appellant did not pay service tax but the service provider
paid 100% of Service Tax, the Appellant was not required to pay 75% of the
service tax in terms of said Notification. The Hon’ble Tribunal also observed
that if payment would have been made by the Appellant, the same would become
double taxation against Appellant which was not permissible in the law.
Therefore, impugned Order was not sustainable in law and therefore set aside.

 

II         HIGH COURT

 

31.  2018 (18) G.S.T.L 410 (Mad.) 3E Infotech vs.
CESTAT, Chennai
Date of Order: 28th June, 2018

 

Tax paid
in excess is liable to be returned irrespective of time limit as prescribed
u/s. 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 in light of Article 265 of the
Constitution of India

 

FACTS

Appellant engaged in the export of services, paid service tax unaware of
the fact that the same was not payable as per Rule 6A of Service Tax Rules,
1994. Upon realisation, made representation before Revenue Department
requesting to refund the excess tax paid. SCN was issued and later order
denying the refund of service tax paid was made on the ground that the said
refund is barred by limitation as per section 11B of Central Excise Act,1944.
Even CESTAT disallowed the claim holding that there was no justification for
condoning the delay in making the application. Aggrieved by the same, the  appeal to the High Court was filed. 

 

HELD

Hon’ble High
Court relying on the decision of Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of Union
of India vs. ITC Ltd. [1993 (7) TMI 75 (SC)
held that the provisions of
section 11B of the Central Excise Act, 1944 are not applicable to the claim of
refund and the general provisions under the Limitation Act, 1963 would be
applicable. Further, it was held that the denial of refund of excess amount would
go against the mandate of Article 265 of the Constitution of India, which
provides that no tax shall be levied or collected except by the authority of
law. Thus, claim of refund was decided in favour of assessee.

 

32.  2018 (18) G.S.T.L 396 (Mad.) Industrial
Mineral Company (IMC). vs. Union of India Date of Order: 22nd March,
2018

 

Notwithstanding
availability of alternative remedy, writ jurisdiction invocable when binding
precedent not followed

 

FACTS

Petitioner,
a registered 100% EOU, manufacturer and exporter had a dispute with the
Department on one customs tariff head of their export consignment. Considering
the dispute, export duty was paid under protest and later refund was applied
for by filing a writ petition. Department contested that claim of petitioner
was yet to be adjudicated and question of refund was premature. The Hon’ble
Court while deciding the writ petition, found the contention technically
correct but in order to render substantial justice, suo moto impleaded the
Adjudicating Authority and directed to pass orders. Meanwhile writ was kept
pending and later submissions were made before the adjudicating authority
relying on the decision of Tribunal in the case of V.V. Minerals vs. CC
Tuticorin Final Order No. 41412 of 2015
, similar to their case. However,
the claim was rejected on the ground that the said case was pending before the
Supreme Court, hence could not be relied upon.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble
Court while deciding the writ petition was of the view that when the order
passed by the Tribunal has not been stayed or set aside by the Hon’ble Supreme
Court, it was the bounden duty of the authority to follow the law laid down by
the Tribunal, which was not followed, so the High Court can interfere
straightaway without relegating the assessee to file an appeal. And thus the
order passed stood quashed with a direction to refund the amount in question
within a period of four weeks from the date of receipt of the copy of this
order.

 

33.  [2018-TIOL-2409-HC-DEL-ST]Vodafone Mobile
Services Ltd vs. CST, Delhi Date of Order: 31st October, 2018

 

It is a
settled principle of law that entitlement of CENVAT credit is to be determined
at the time of receipt of the goods. If the goods that are received qualify as
inputs or capital goods, the fact that they are later fixed/fastened to the
earth for use would not make them a non-excisable commodity when received

 

FACTS

In the
present case, the entire tower and shelter is fabricated in the factories of
the Manufacturers/Appellants and these are supplied in CKD condition. They are
merely fastened to the civil foundation to make it wobble free and ensure
stability. They can be unbolted and reassembled without any damage in a new
location. The larger bench of the Tribunal denied the credit on the premise
that the towers erected result in immovable property. Accordingly ,it was the
case of the Appellants that a machine or apparatus annexed to the earth without
its assimilation by fixing with nuts and bolts on a foundation to provide for
stability and wobble free operation cannot be said to be one permanently
attached to the earth and, therefore, would not constitute an immovable
property. Further it was also argued that the towers and the parts thereon and
the pre-fabricated shelters are inputs, in accordance with the provisions of
Rule 2(k) of the Credit Rules used for the provision of infra-support services.

 

HELD

The Court primarily noted that clearly goods in question have gone into
the making of such towers which in turn are used for providing infra-support
service/ telecom service. The eligibility of credit must be determined at the
time of receipt of the goods in terms of Rule 4(1) of the Credit Rules. The
fact that such goods are later on fixed/ fastened to the earth for use would
not make them a non-excisable commodity when received. Credit cannot be denied
so as long as the goods are used for the provision of the output service.
Accordingly, the Court held that conclusion of CESTAT, denying the CENVAT
credit on the premise that the towers erected result in immovable property, is
erroneous. The fact that in the intermediate stage, an immovable structure
emerged is of no consequence. It is a settled principle of law that if the
goods that are received qualify as inputs or capital goods, the fact that they
are later fixed/fastened to the earth for use would not make them a
non-excisable commodity when received. Thus, the credit is allowed.

 

Note: Readers may note that the decision
has examined various decisions inter alia including Bharti Airtel Ltd
[2014-TIOL-1452-HC-MUM-ST], Sold and Correct Engineering Works
[2010-TIOL-25-SC-CX], Vodafone India Ltd [2015-TIOL-2098-HC-MUM-ST], Mundhra
Ports and Special Economic Zone Ltd [2015-TIOL-1288-HC-AHM-ST]

 

34.  [2018-TIOL-2561-HC-AHM-CX] Sheelpa Enterprises
Pvt. Ltd vs. Union of India Date of Order: 30th November, 2018

 

Costs
incurred to maintain the factory premises in an eco-friendly matter to
discharge a statutory obligation under the Environmental laws forms a part of
the cost of the final product and is accordingly available as CENVAT credit

 

FACTS

The
Appellants under the provisions of the Water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1974 was required to maintain a green belt comprising of 1000
trees per acre land. The question was whether the assessee was entitled to
avail the benefit of CENVAT credit with respect to the said maintenance.

 

HELD

The Tribunal
relying on the decision in the case of Millipore India Pvt. Ltd [2012] STR
514
noted that when the employer spends money to maintain factory premises
in       an eco-friendly manner based upon
the directives issued by the Statutory Authorities, the tax paid on such
services would form part of the costs of the final product and the same would
fall within the ambit of ‘input services’ and thus the CENVAT credit should be
available. The appeal was thus allowed.

 

 

ALLIED LAWS

15. Advocate –A
client is not bound by a statement or admission which he or his lawyer was not
authorised to make – There is no estoppel against law [Advocates Act,
1961, S. 35]

 

Director of
Elementary Education, Odisha and Ors. vs. Pramod Kumar Sahoo; AIR 2019 SC 4755

 

The counsel for
the appellant conceded before the Tribunal that teachers having Intermediate
qualification are entitled to the scale of pay as is available to trained
Matric teachers. On the basis of such concession, the learned Tribunal allowed
the original application. The counsel for the appellant submitted that separate
pay scales are provided for untrained Matric teachers and for trained Matric
teachers. Merely because the respondent is Intermediate, that is, a higher
qualification than Matric does not make him a trained teacher. Therefore, the
concession given by the State counsel is an erroneous concession in law and
does not bind the appellant.

 

The Court
observed that generally, admissions of fact made by a counsel are binding upon
their principals as long as they are unequivocal; however, where doubt exists
as to a purported admission, the Court should be wary about accepting such
admissions until and unless the counsel or the advocate is authorised by his
principal to make such admissions. Furthermore, a client is not bound by a
statement or admission which he or his lawyer was not authorised to make. A
lawyer generally has no implied or apparent authority to make an admission or
statement which would directly surrender or conclude the substantial legal
rights of the client unless such an admission or statement is clearly a proper
step in accomplishing the purpose for which the lawyer was employed. The Court
added that neither the client nor the Court is bound by the lawyer’s statements
or admissions as to matters of law or legal conclusions.

 

Accordingly, it
was held that the concession given by the State counsel before the Tribunal was
a concession in law and contrary to the statutory rules. Such concession is not
binding on the State for the reason that there cannot be any estoppel
against law. The rules provide for a specific grade of pay; therefore, the
concession given by the learned State counsel before the Tribunal is not
binding on the appellant. The original application filed by the respondent was
dismissed on merits.

 

16. Advocate –
Legal advice – Negligence – Advocate is not liable unless guilt proved [Indian
Penal Code, S. 420, 467, 468, 471 & 120B]

 

Subha Jakkanwar W/o Arun Jakkanwar vs. State of Chhattisgarh, Criminal
Misc. petition No. 1614 of 2017; Date of order: 26th November, 2019
(CHH)(HC)

 

Ten borrowers
made an application to a bank for a loan. The bank requisitioned a
non-encumbrance certificate, which was provided by the petitioner who was the
empanelled advocate of the bank. The petitioner certified the application qua
the lands held by the borrowers for the grant of loan. The borrowers failed to
repay the loan. It was seen that the borrowers had submitted false and
fabricated documents. The question arose as to whether the advocate
(petitioner) could be incriminated for issuing a non-encumbrance certificate
negligently.

 

The High Court
observed that extending of a legal opinion for granting loan has become an
integral component of an advocate’s work in the banking sector. A lawyer on his
part has a responsibility to act to the best of his knowledge and skills and to
exhibit an unending loyalty to the interests of his clients. He has to exercise
his knowledge in a manner that would advance the interest of his clients.
However, while doing so, the advocate does not assure his client that the
opinion so rendered by him is flawless and must in all possibility act to his
benefit. Just as in any other profession, the only assurance which can be
given, and may even be implied from an advocate so acting in his professional
capacity, is that he possesses the requisite skills in his field of practice
and while undertaking the performance of a task entrusted to him, he would
exercise his skills with reasonable competence.

The only
liability that may be imputed to an advocate while so acting in his
professional capacity is that of negligence in application of legal skills, or
due exercise of such skills, or when an opining advocate is an active
participant in a plan to defraud the bank. Merely because his opinion may not
be acceptable he cannot be criminally prosecuted, particularly in the absence
of direct evidence against him.

 

It was held
that in the instant case the petitioner was neither named in the written
complaint nor in the FIR. Only in the statements of three branch managers for
the first time was the advocate’s name indicated stating that with an intention
to extend pecuniary advantage to the farmers, the non-encumbrance certificate
was issued in their favour which was found to be not acceptable by the bank and
also found to be untrue. There is no basis on record for making such a
statement except that the non-encumbrance certificate was not found proper.
There is no evidence on record to hold that the petitioner met the accused
persons at any point of time and there is no allegation that she gained any
pecuniary benefit as a result of preparing such a report; except for the
statements of three branch managers of Dena Bank that the report was false,
there is no material to show that the petitioner at any point of time was
involved in any criminal conspiracy with any of the accused persons to commit
the offence alleged against her.

 

Accordingly, even
if the allegations are taken at their face value and accepted in their
entirety, the same do not disclose any commission of offence nor do they make
out a case against the petitioner. The Honourable Court relied upon the case of
K. Narayana Rao (2012) 9 SCC 512. Accordingly, the entire
charge-sheet as framed and filed against the petitioner was quashed.

 

17. Joint
family property – Inherited property – Any conveyance or compromise regarding
inherited property by few coparceners would not affect and bind the shares of
the other coparceners who were not a party to such conveyance / compromise
[Hindu Law]

 

Doddamuniyappa
(Dead) through L.R.S. vs. Muniswamy and Ors.; (2019) 7 SCC 193

 

The property
was originally purchased by propositus (sic) of the family, namely,
Chikkanna. After the death of Chikkanna, the property devolved to his three
sons who jointly sold the property in 1950 and the sale deed contained the
clause of re-conveyance requiring the purchaser to re-convey the property in
the event of sale. After the appellant purchased the subject property in 1962,
a civil suit was instituted for the re-conveyance of the property by the sons
of Chikkanna in the first instance which was dismissed by the trial court. On
the order of the High Court, the respondents put the decree to execution and a
deed of re-conveyance was executed and possession of the property was restored
to the respondents on execution of the decree; it assumed the character of a
joint family property in the hands of the respondents.

 

At the stage of
execution appeal, which was preferred at the instance of the appellant, a
compromise was executed between the parties and accordingly, part of the
possession of the subject property was restored to the appellant. After the
restoration of possession of the subject property, the title of the property
re-assumed its original character of joint family property and created the
right of inheritance in the joint family property; all the coparceners were
neither consulted nor made parties to the said compromise.

 

The Court held
that the respondents were not parties to the compromise and the subject
property at that time was joint family property and the compromise entered into
between the parties would not bind the rights of the respondents. It would be
an ancestral property in their hands and the respondents are neither party to
the proceedings nor consented when the compromise decree was executed in the
execution appeal; admittedly, the same would not be binding upon their share of
the property. It goes without saying that the compromise would bind the share
of the respondents as they are party to the compromise which was entered into
in the execution appeal and has been rightly recorded by the High Court under its impugned judgment.
Accordingly, the order of the High Court was upheld.

 

18. Limitation
– Residuary section of Limitation Act will apply when no limitation under any
other Act provided [Hindu Succession Act, 1925, S. 263; Limitation Act, 1963,
Article 137]

 

Jethmal Soni
vs. Hariom Soni and Ors.; AIR 2019 (CHH) 172 (HC)

 

An application
under section 263 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 was filed for revoking a
probate granted by a probate court in favour of the petitioners. A preliminary
objection against the said application was filed before the trial court that
there was a delay of more than 90 days due to which the application was barred
by limitation. The trial court rejected the said preliminary objection finding
no merit in it and held that limitation for revocation of probate will be
governed by Article 137 of the Limitation Act, 1963; the date of knowledge
admittedly is 20th December, 2013, and therefore the application so
filed is within the period of limitation. A writ petition was filed challenging
the order of rejecting the preliminary objection.

 

The Court in
the present petition held that the learned District Judge while dealing with
the application in question was acting as a civil court and, therefore, the
provisions of Article 137 of the Act of 1963 clearly govern the situation. In
view of the same, in case of application u/s 263 of the Act of 1925 for
revocation of probate, which is not governed by any specific Article of the Act
of 1963, the residuary Article 137 of the Act of 1963 would apply. It was held
that the correct position was that ‘the right to apply’ accrued to the
respondents only on 20th December, 2013 and they filed an
application for revocation of probate on 27th January, 2014, well
within the period of three years when the right to apply for setting aside
accrued to them. Thus, the learned District Judge was absolutely justified in rejecting
the preliminary objection filed by the petitioner.

 

 

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear Members,


At the outset,
let me take this opportunity to wish you a Happy New Year 2019. 2018 is a year
which will be remembered in the history of accountants and finance
professionals for a variety of reasons – both good and not so good.

 

The year started
with the unravelling of a massive scam of unsubstantiated LOUs issued by the
Punjab National Bank. Though it is traditionally an off balance sheet exposure,
the role of the auditors was widely discussed and criticised. This, followed by
the recent ILFS episode, brought to forefront various systemic issues and to
some extent the inefficacy of the audit process. While the ICAI has acted fast
on such issues, one thing which is evident is that the profession of chartered
accountancy has taken a turn which needs immediate course correction.

 

Overambitious
expansion plans and / or systemic diversion of funds by corporates coupled with
bad lending decisions by banks resulted in an alarming ratio of NPAs, which to
some extent were window dressed. However, recent trends suggest a good recovery
ratio of such NPAs. It appears that the new Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code is
now deriving the desired results. Despite the same, there are lots of issues
surrounding the banking sector resulting in a virtual liquidity crisis with major
public sector banks being under the prompt corrective action plan of the
Reserve Bank of India.

 

The tiff between
the Reserve Bank of India and the Government apparently on issues ranging from
PCA and liquidity crisis to the withdrawal of reserves took an ugly turn. This
was immediately followed by a change in guard at the helm of RBI.


The year also did
not augur too well in terms of growth in the economy. Unemployment continues to
remain an issue. Farm debt and waivers became an election issue. Coupled with
many other factors, it resulted in change in Governments in a few States.
Perhaps such incidents made the Government rethink on some of the policies
surrounding GST. The GST Council in its 31st Meeting brought in a
slew of measures to simplify the burden of the businesses and also reduced the
rate of GST on many goods and services.

 

The results of
the Central and Regional Councils of the ICAI have been announced. Our
congratulations to all the winners. The task before the winners is clearly cut
out. The Regional Council members will have to strive hard to improve
administrative efficiencies and provide better member services including
disseminating knowledge to the members. The Central Council members have a much
onerous duty to perform – to provide thought leadership, ensure effective
representation and also take concrete efforts for the overall development of
the profession. The Society is always available to provide constructive
suggestions in this regard and work hand in hand with the Institute.

 

The year ended
with a series of high profile weddings – be it Bollywood or industry tycoons.
Each of these weddings entailed a lavish display of wealth. While such
expenditure is a personal choice and is also helpful in generating domestic
employment to some extent, one wonders at the disparity in the wealth which
becomes so apparent and visible and is further fuelled by social media.


As we proceed
towards 2019, all eyes will be on the General Elections. Will it be a contest
fought on the agenda of development and growth or will caste, religion and
populism take priority? It is for the nation to decide. We as professionals can
initiate an informed debate and convince our circles of influence to cast their
vote.

 

After hectic
professional season, this period is relatively relaxed in terms of professional
work. It is perhaps time to ponder on some larger issues facing the profession.
It is also time to sharpen the knowledge base. The Society has lined up a
series of events which are relevant for the membership at large. I trust the
members will take the benefit of the same.

 

Yours truly

 

CA. Sunil Gabhawalla

President

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

11. 
Mahabir Industries vs. Pr. CIT
(2018) 406 ITR 315 (SC)

 

Industrial undertaking – Deduction u/s.
80IA, 80IB and 80IC – The Assessees had started claiming and were allowed
deductions from the Assessment Years 1998-99 and 1999-2000 u/s. 80-IA and from
the Assessment Year 2000-01 to Assessment Year 2005-06 under section 80-IB of
the Act and thus were entitled to the deduction under the new provision i.e.
section 80-IC on fulfilling conditions contained in sub-section (2) of section
80-IC for the first time for the Assessment Year 2006-07

 

The Assessee
manufactured polythene for which it had its factory in Shimla, Himachal
Pradesh. The activity undertaken by the Assessee, an industrial undertaking,
qualified for exemption from income tax u/s. 80-IA of
the Act.

 

This deduction
under section 80-IA was claimed and allowed for two Assessment Years i.e.
1998-99 and 1999-2000.

 

Section 80-IA of the
Act was originally introduced in the year 1991 by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1991
w.e.f. April 1, 1991. There were amendments in the section from time to time.
This section was amended by the Finance Act, 1999 w.e.f. April 1, 2000. Along
with this provision, section 80-IB was also introduced for the first time by
the same Finance Act, 1999.

 

From the Assessment
Year 2000-01 to Assessment Year 2005-06, the Assessee claimed deduction u/s.
80-IB.

 

Another provision
in the form of section 80-IC was inserted by Finance Act, 2003 w.e.f. April 1,
2004. The provisions of section 80-IC provided deduction to manufacturing units
situated in the State of Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh and Uttaranchal and
North-Eastern States. The deduction was provided to new units established in
the aforesaid States, and also to existing units in those States if substantial
expansion was carried out.

 

The Assessee completed substantial expansion (by investing in new plant
and machinery of value more than 50% of the value of plant and machinery
already installed as on 1 April, 2005) to the manufacturing unit situated at
Baddi, Himachal Pradesh in the Assessment Year 2006-07. In view of the
substantial expansion, the Assessee claimed deduction u/s. 80-IC @100% for
Assessment Years 2006-07 and 2007-08, which was also allowed by the Assessing
Officer (AO) after passing the order u/s. 143(3) of the Act.

 

However,
thereafter, deductions for the Assessment Year 2008-09 and Assessment Year
2009-2010 were rejected by the AO on the ground that this was 11th
and 12th year of deduction and as per section 80-IC(6), total
deductions u/s. 80-IC and section 80-IB cannot exceed the total period of ten
years. Commissioner of Income Tax (Appeals) and Income Tax Appellate Tribunal
upheld the order of the AO. The High Court dismissed the appeals on the ground
that it cannot claim deduction u/s. 80-IC, 80-IB or 10C for a period exceeding
ten years.

 

The Assessee framed
the questions of law in the appeal before the Supreme Court:

 

(a)   Whether the Hon’ble High Court was justified
in holding that the Petitioner was not entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IC of the
Act by virtue of provision s/s. (6), when the same was not even applicable to
the Petitioner?

(b) Whether the Hon’ble High Court was justified in
holding that the provisions of section 80-IC(6) of the Act apply to all the
undertaking claiming deduction u/s. 80-IB(4) of the Act when 80-IC(6) refers to
only those undertakings which are covered by second proviso to section
80-IB(4)?

(c)   Whether the Hon’ble High Court was justified
in holding that the Petitioner is not eligible for deduction u/s. 80-IC for a
period of 10 assessment years when substantial expansion was carried out by the
Petitioner and a substantially new unit was claiming deduction u/s. 80-IC of
the Act?

(d) Whether the Hon’ble High Court was justified in
holding that the Petitioner was not entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IC of the Act
for assessment year 2008-09 and 2009-10 when the total period of deduction of
ten years was expiring after assessment year 2009-10?

 

The Supreme Court
noted that the High Court judgment had taken a categorical view that the moment
‘substantial expansion’ is completed as per section 80-IC(8)(ix), the statutory
definition of ‘initial assessment year’ {Section 80-IC(8)(v)} comes into play.
As a consequence, section 80-IC(3)(ii) would entitle the unit to hundred per
cent deduction for five years commencing with completion of ‘substantial
expansion’ followed by twenty-five per cent deduction for next five years i.e.
subject to maximum of ten years. According to the Supreme Court, the High
Court, thus, accepted that when the substantial expansion is done in a
particular Assessment Year and that is made during the period mentioned in
sub-section (2) of section 80-IC, not only benefit admissible u/s. 80-IC shall
get triggered, the year in which such substantial expansion is completed is to
be treated as ‘initial assessment year’. Having said so, it has put a cap of
ten years by invoking the provision of section 80-IC(6). According to the
Supreme Court, as per the provisions of sub-section (6) of section 80-IC, no
deduction is allowed to any undertaking or enterprise under that section, where
the total period of deduction inclusive of the period of deduction under that
section, or under the second proviso to sub-section (4) of section 80-IB or
u/s. 10C, as the case may be, exceeds ten assessment years. The total period of
ten years, thus, is to be counted in the following three circumstances:

 

(a) When the
deduction has been given u/s. 80-IC for a period of ten years, no further
deduction is admissible.

 

(b) When the
deduction is given under second proviso to sub-section (4) of section 80-IB.

 

The said second
proviso reads as under:

 

Provided further
that in the case of such industries in the North-Eastern Region, as may be
notified by the Central Government, the amount of deduction shall be hundred
per cent of profits and gains for a period of ten assessment years, and the
total period of deduction shall in such a case not exceed ten assessment years.

 

This provision
pertains to those industries which are in the North-Eastern Region.

(c)   When the deduction is claimed u/s. 10C.

 

It is again a
special provision in respect of certain industrial undertakings in
North-Eastern Region.

 

The Supreme Court
held that the Assessee in the instant case had not got deduction u/s. 80-IC for
a period of ten years as he started claiming deduction under this provision
w.e.f. Assessment Year 2006-07. Situation Nos. (b) and (c) mentioned above would
not apply to the Assessee as it’s undertaking/enterprise was not established in
North-Eastern Region. It was, thus, clear that the High Court had failed to
appreciate that the provisions of section 80-IC(6) of the Act state that the
total period of deduction u/s. 80-IC and section 80-IB cannot exceed ten
assessment years only if the manufacturing unit was claiming deduction under
second proviso to section 80-IB(4) of the Act i.e. units located in the
North-Eastern State.

 

According to the
Supreme Court, the matter could be looked into from another angle. U/s. 80-IA,
deduction is provided to such industrial undertakings or enterprises which are
engaged in infrastructure development etc., provided they fulfill the
conditions mentioned in s/s. (4) thereof. Section 80-IB makes provisions for
deduction in respect of those industrial undertakings, other than
infrastructure development undertakings, which are enumerated in the said
provision. On the other hand, the intention behind section 80-IC is to grant deduction
to the units making new investments in the State by establishing new
manufacturing unit or even to the existing manufacturing unit which carried out
substantial expansions. The purport behind the three types of deductions
specified in section 80-IA, section 80-IB and section 80-IC was, thus,
different. Section 80-IC stipulates the period for which hundred per cent
deduction is to be given and then deduction at reduced rates is to be given. If
the Assessee had earlier availed deduction u/s. 80-IA and section 80-IB, that
would be of no concern in as much as on carrying out substantial expansion, which
was carried out and completed in the Assessment Year 2006-07, the Assessee became entitled to deduction u/s. 80-IC from the initial
year. The term ‘initial year’ is referable to the year in which substantial
expansion has been completed, which legal position was stated by the High Court
itself and even accepted by the Department as it had not challenged that part
of the judgment.

 

The inclusion of
period for the deduction is availed u/s. 80-IA and section 80-IB, for the
purpose of counting ten years, is provided in sub-section (6) of section 80-IC
and it is limited to those industrial undertakings or enterprises which are
set-up in the North-Eastern Region. By making specific provision of this kind,
the Legislature had shown its intent, namely, where the industry is not located
in North-Eastern State, the period for which deduction is availed earlier by an
Assessee u/s. 80-IA and section 80-IB would not be reckoned for the purpose of
availing benefit of deduction u/s. 80-IC of the Act.

     

The Supreme Court
observed that insofar as the factum of substantial expansion of the
Assessee’s unit in the Assessment Year 2006-07 was concerned, the same was not
subject matter of any controversy in the instant case. It hads been accepted by
the Department that Assessee had carried out substantial expansion. Precisely,
for this reason, the AO had allowed deduction for Assessment Years 2006-07 and
2007-08. Therefore, issue was not as to whether there is a substantial
expansion or not. The issue was only as to how a period of ten years was to be
calculated, namely, whether those Assessment Years in respect of which
deduction u/s. 80-IA and section 80-IB was allowed were to be counted for the
purpose of giving deduction u/s. 80-IC.

 

The Supreme Court
was of the opinion that it was wrong on the part of the AO not to allow
deduction to the Assessee u/s. 80-IC for the Assessment Years 2008-09 and
2009-2010. As a result, the judgment of the High Court on this aspect was set
aside and the appeals were accordingly allowed.


12.  CIT vs. Classic Binding Industries
(2018) 407 ITR 429 (SC)

 

Industrial undertaking – Deduction u/s.
80IC – After availing deduction for a period of 5 years @ 100% of such profits
and gains from the ‘units’, the Assessees would be entitled to deduction for
remaining 5 Assessment Years @ 25% (or 30% where the Assessee is a company), as
the case may be, and not @ 100%.

 

The Assessee firm
derived income from manufacturing of printed embossed book binding cover
material of cotton in sheet form and security fiber of dual coloured
combination. The Assessee firm comprised of nine partners during the relevant
assessment year. The Assessee started its business activity/operation on 11th
July, 2005 and initial Assessment Year for claim of deduction u/s. 80-IC of the
Act was Assessment Year 2006-07. The Assessee had already claimed deduction
u/s. 80-IC to the extent of the 100% eligible profit for five Assessment Years
2006-07 to Assessment Year 2010-11. However, it was noticed that the Assessee
firm had again claimed 100% deduction against eligible profits in the relevant
Assessment Year 2012-13 which is seventh year of production for the firm by
claiming substantial expansion in Financial Year 2010-11.

 

The Assessee was
asked to furnish the reasons and justification for the said claim of 100% as
against the eligible norm of 25%. The Assessee submitted its reasons for claim
stating that the Assessee fulfills all the conditions for the claim of 100%
deduction.

 

The Assessing
Officer found that in view of the provisions of section 80-IC of the Act
Assessee firm had already claimed deduction u/s. 80-IC of the Act at the rate
of 100% for five years from Assessment Year 2006-07 to Assessment Year 2010-11,
i.e., from the date of setting up of the industrial undertaking and in view of
the same, it would be eligible for claim of deduction @ 25% of its eligible
business profits for the remaining five years, i.e., from Assessment Year
2011-2012 to Assessment Year 2015-2016. The Assessing Officer denied the claim
of the enhanced deduction in view of the substantial expansion was claimed by
the Assessee and, accordingly, restricted the deduction to 25% of eligible
profits for the assessment year 2012-13.

 

On appeal, the
CIT(A) following the decision of the jurisdictional Tribunal in the case of Hycron
Electronics vs. ITO
and other related cases, upheld the order of the
Assessing Officer and dismissed the appeal of the Assessee for 100% deduction.

 

Feeling aggrieved,
the Assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT. While observing that both
the parties agreed that the issue involved in appeals, was squarely covered
against the Assessee in view of the decision of the coordinate bench of ITAT in
the case of Hycron Electronics, dismissed the appeal by a composite order for
Assessment Years 2011-12 and Assessment Year 2012-13 by holding that Assessee
was eligible for deduction u/s. 80 of the Act @ 25% of the profit derived from
industrial undertaking for these years and not @ 100% of deduction claimed by
the Assessee.

 

Dissatisfied with
the aforesaid order, Assessee filed appeal u/s. 260A before the High Court of
Himachal Pradesh, Shimla raising therein substantial questions of law. The
result of other Assessees was also on almost same pattern, who filed their
respective appeals as well. The High Court decided the issue in a composite
judgment, in favour of all these Assessees. The High Court held that there was
no restriction that undertaking or enterprise established after 7th
January, 2003 could not carry out ‘Substantial Expansion’ and could not be
carried out more than once as long as period of eligibility for claiming
deduction u/s. 80-IC of the Act.

 

The Supreme Court
noted the provisions of section 80IC of the Act and observed that whereas the
exemption is provided @ 100% of such profits and gains for five assessment
years commencing with the initial assessment years and, thereafter, 25% (or 30%
where the Assessee is a company) of the profits and gains for next five years.
The deduction is limited to a period of 10 years.

 

In this backdrop,
according to the Supreme Court, the question before it was as to whether these
Assessees, who had availed deductions @ 100% for first five years on the ground
that they had set up a manufacturing unit as prescribed under s/s. (2) of the
Act, could start claiming deductions @ 100% again for next five years as they
had undertaken “substantial expansion” during the period mentioned in
s/s. (2)?

     

The Supreme Court
noted that in the instant case, it was concerned with the Assessees who had
established their undertakings in the State of Himachal Pradesh. S/s. (3),
mentions the period of 10 years commencing with the initial Assessment Year.
S/s. (6) puts a cap of 10 years, which is the maximum period for which the
deduction can be allowed to any undertaking or enterprise under this section,
starting from the initial Assessment Year. Another significant feature under
s/s. (3) is that the deduction allowable is 100% of such profits and gains from
an undertaking or an enterprise for five Assessment Years commencing with the
initial Assessment Year and thereafter the deduction is allowable at 25% (or
30% where the Assessee is a company) of the profits and gains. Cumulative
reading of these provisions brings out the following aspects:

 

(a)   Those undertakings or enterprises fulfilling
the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) of section 80-IC become entitled to
deduction under this provision.


(b) This deduction is allowable from the initial
Assessment Year. “Initial Assessment Year” is defined in section
80-IB(14)(c) of the Act.


(c)   The deduction is @ 100% of such profits and
gains for first 5 Assessment Years and thereafter a deduction is permissible @
25% (or 30% where the Assessee is a company).


(d) Total period of deduction is 10 years, which
means 100% deduction for first 5 years from the initial Assessment Year and 25%
(or 30% where the Assessee is a company) for the next 5 years.

 

According to the
Supreme Court, keeping in mind the aforesaid scheme and spirit behind this
provision, such a situation could not be countenanced where an Assessee is able
to secure deduction @ 100% for the entire period of 10 years. If that was
allowed it would amount to doing violence to the provisions of sub-section (3)
read with sub-section (6) of section 80-IC. A pragmatic and reasonable interpretation
of section 80-IC would be to hold that once the initial Assessment Year
commences and an Assessee, by virtue of fulfilling the conditions laid down in
sub-section (2) of Section 80-IC, starts enjoying deduction, there cannot be
another “Initial Assessment Year” for the purposes of section 80-IC
within the aforesaid period of 10 years, on the basis that it had carried
substantial expansion in its unit.

 

The Supreme Court
expressly stated that it was conscious of its recent judgment in Mahabir
Industries vs. Principal Commissioner of Income Tax (406 ITR 315)
. However,
a fine distinction needed to be noted between the two sets of cases. In Mahabir
Industries, the Assessees had availed the initial deduction under a different
provision, namely, section 80-IA of the Act, i.e. by fulfilling the conditions
mentioned in sub-section (4) of section 80-IA. Those conditions were altogether
different. Deduction in respect of profits and gains under the said provision
was admissible when these profits and gains are from industrial undertakings or
enterprises engaged in infrastructure development etc. Even this availment
started at a time when section 80-IC was not even on the statute book. Section
80-IC was inserted by the Finance Act, 2003 with effect from April 01, 2004.
The Assessees in those cases had started claiming and were allowed deductions
from the Assessment Years 1998-99 and 1999-2000 u/s. 80-IA and from the
Assessment Year 2000-01 to Assessment Year 2005-06 u/s. 80-IB of the Act. The
deduction was, thus, claimed by the Assessees in those appeals under the new
provision i.e. section 80-IC on fulfilling conditions contained in sub-section
(2) of section 80-IC for the first time for the Assessment Year 2006-07. Thus,
insofar as those cases were concerned, the initial Assessment Year u/s. 80-IC
started only from the Assessment Year 2006-07. In contrast, position here was
altogether different. These Assessees had availed deduction u/s. 80-IC alone.
Initially, they claimed the deduction on the ground that they had set up their
units in the State of Himachal Pradesh and after availing the deduction @ 100%
they wanted continuation of this rate of 100% for the next 5 years also under
the same provision on the ground that they had made substantial expansion. The
Supreme Court held that, as pointed out above, once the Assessees had started
claiming deduction u/s. 80-IC and the initial Assessment Year has commenced
within the aforesaid period of 10 years, there could not be another initial
Assessment Year thereby allowing 100% deduction for the next 5 years also when
s/s. (3), in no uncertain terms, provides for deduction @ 25% only for the next
5 years. Also, the Assessees accepted the legal position that they could not
claim deduction of more than 10 years in all u/s. 80-IC.

 

The Supreme Court therefore held that after
availing deduction for a period of 5 years @ 100% of such profits and gains
from the ‘units’, the Assessees would be entitled to deduction for remaining 5
Assessment Years @ 25% (or 30% where the Assessee is a company), as the case
may be, and not @ 100%. The question of law was, thus, answered in favour of
the Revenue thereby allowing all these appeals.

LETTER TO THE EDITOR

Dear Editor,


I, Mr.
Dineshkumar Sitaram Agarwal, am a member of the Bombay Chartered Accountants’
Society & also a regular reader of Bombay Chartered Accountants’ Society
Journal. With reference to the December 2018 Edition, it is my pleasure to tell
you that content in the BCAJ is very well-written and useful.

 

I would like to
make one suggestion. Case laws on Chartered Accountants who happen to be
Ordinary Directors/ Individual Directors/ Non – Executive Directors of a
Company & face criminal/ civil liability under Labour Law or any other law
can be inserted under your “ALLIED LAWS” Column.

 

For example: We
enclose herewith one case law of Kerala High Court where a Chartered Accountant
defended
himself successfully in a prosecution case launched against him under PF Act.

 

We hereby suggest
that similar case laws are included as it would be useful for members at large
& hope that you will consider my suggestion.

 

 

Thanks,

 

Mr. Dineshkumar
Sitaram Agarwal.

B. C. A. M. No.: LA – 000048.  

ETHICS AND U

Arjun (A) — O’ Lord, you have always been telling me the importance of
ethics; but ………

 

Shrikrishna — ‘But what, Arjun?

 

A — In practice, it is very difficult.  I will have to close down my practice.  Whatever I do, there is some misconduct or
the other.  Just not possible to escape.

 

S — (smiles). What you say is largely true.  But ultimately, it is in your own interest to
follow the rules of ethics.

 

A How? 
Many times it is a burden.

 

S You are mistaken.  Yours is not only a profession; but a
mission!

 

A This is very philosophical and idealistic.

 

S Listen, the very foundation of any
profession is credibility.  If that is
lost, not only that individual member but the entire profession suffers.

 

A It’s really a challenge.  Just think, we as chartered accountants are
answerable to so many authorities – MCA, SEBI, Tax authorities, Bankers, RBI,
FEMA, Labour law authorities, authorities under many economic laws and most
importantly, our client!  This is very
unfair!

 

S I appreciate this.  But often when a few members commit
misconduct, the society perceives the entire profession as unethical. Then your
professional brothers also suffer for no reason.

 

A True, we do slog in updating our
knowledge, delivering the quality.  But
one factor is beyond our control.   We
became helpless.

 

S What is that?

 

A Corruption!  Wherever we go, corruption gives frustration
to us.

 

S It is difficult to disagree with
you.  But what do you mean by corruption?

 

A Bribery! 
Even if a case is hundred per cent perfect, it does not reach finality
without some greesing. Professionals are made helpless.

 

S What if you refuse?

 

A The authorities have tremendous nuisance
value.  They can make one’s life
miserable if their demand is not ‘satisfied’, and client gets scared as his
business is disrupted.  In spite of
representing the case perfectly, the client gets an impression that the case
gets ‘settled’ by money and not by merits of our presentation!

 

S Do you feel bribery is the only form of
corruption?  Any compromise on principles
for a personal gain is corruption.

 

A What do you mean?

 

S Have there been times when you sign a accounts
without diligently verifying its correctness, or sometimes even knowing the
deficiencies in the accounts?  And you
take fees.  Is it not corruption?

 

A It is a point worth thinking about!

 

S Arjun, corruption is of thoughts
also.  Tell me, you CAs are perceived to
be those who can ‘manage’ things!  Many a
time it is perceived that, you people help find loopholes in the laws. .

 

A Yes. 
I have also experienced that.  It
is very painful as most of us are not of that sort.

 

S So, you need to introspect.  Just think, you people manage even your ‘CPE’
hours!  Some pay the seminar fees; but
often not remain present.  Even if you
are physically present, you enjoy your ‘siesta’.  Is it not ‘corruption’?

 

A Lord, now don’t give me any more
instances!  I feel more and more guilty;
if not ashamed!  We are burdened by so
much unnecessary and useless matters and are surrounded by such imperfections
of the society such as complicated legal systems. Tell me what is the solution?

 

S Unity amongst yourselves and strong
leadership.  Don’t allow it to be a
spineless profession.  You need courage
to stand up and fight.  After all you are
financial ‘police’.  You cannot help or
ignore the thieves!

 

A We also need strong leaders.

 

S How can you expect strong
leadership?  Even your elections are
fought on the basis of caste, community, language and such irrelevant factors
whereas merit and motivation to serve should be the sole criteria.  This, I say, is corruption of ‘thoughts’.

 

A I agree that we can bring about the
change only by united action with strong leadership.  It will be my ‘New Year Resolution” for 2019!

 

S New Year Resolutions are never acted
upon.  Take it as life mission!  Then only you will get ‘Divine Support and
blessings’!

 

A Yes Bhagwan.

 

Om Shanti

This dialogue is meant for reinforcing the
importance of ethics and the need for unity to achieve the triumph of
righteousness over evil.

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

Segment Reporting as per IndAS 108

Compilers’ Note:

As compared to AS 17 ‘Segment Reporting’, Ind AS 108 ‘Operating Segments’ has changed the manner in which segment identification is done and has also mandated several additional disclosures. These disclosures are required in line to be what internally the company reports to its ‘Chief Operating Decision Maker (“CODM”). Given below is a compilation of the extracts of disclosures given in the financial statements for the year ended 31st March 2018 from few companies in different industries.

 

  1. REDDY’S LABORATORIES LTD

From Significant Accounting Policies:

Segment Reporting:

Operating segments are reported in a manner consistent with the internal reporting provided to the chief operating decision maker. Refer 2.24 for segment information presented.

From Notes to Financial Statements

Segment Reporting:

The Chief Operating Decision Maker (“CODM”) evaluates the Company’s performance and allocates resources based on an analysis of various performance indicators by operating segments. The CODM reviews revenue and gross profit as the performance indicator for all of the operating segments, and does not review the total assets and liabilities of an operating segment. The Chief Executive Officer is the CODM of the Company.

The Company’s reportable operating segments are as follows:

  • Global Generics;
  • Pharmaceutical Services and Active Ingredients (“PSAI”); and
  • Proprietary Products.

Global Generics: This segment consists of the Company’s business of manufacturing and marketing prescription and over-the-counter finished pharmaceutical products ready for consumption by the patient, marketed either under a brand name (branded formulations) or as generic finished dosages with therapeutic equivalence to branded formulations (generics). This segment includes the operations of the Company’s biologics business.

Pharmaceutical Services and Active Ingredients: This segment consists of the Company’s business of manufacturing and marketing active pharmaceutical ingredients and intermediates, also known as “API” or bulk drugs, which are the principal ingredients for finished pharmaceutical products. Active pharmaceutical ingredients and intermediates become finished pharmaceutical products when the dosages are fixed in a form ready for human consumption such as a tablet, capsule or liquid using additional inactive ingredients. This segment also includes the Company’s contract research services business and the manufacture and sale of active pharmaceutical ingredients and steroids in accordance with the specific customer requirements.

Proprietary Products: This segment consists of the Company’s business that focuses on the research, development, and manufacture of differentiated formulations and new chemical entities (“NCEs”). These novel products fall within the dermatology and neurology therapeutic areas and are marketed and sold through Promius ® Pharma, LLC.

Others: This includes the operations of the Company’s wholly-owned subsidiary, Aurigene Discovery Technologies Limited, a discovery stage biotechnology company developing novel and best-in-class therapies in the fields of oncology and inflammation and which works with established pharmaceutical and biotechnology companies in early-stage collaborations, bringing drug candidates from hit generation to pre-clinical development.

The measurement of each segment’s revenues, expenses and assets is consistent with the accounting policies that are used in preparation of the Company’s consolidated financial statements.

Segment Information:

(1) Revenue for the year ended 31st March 2018 does not include inter-segment revenues from PSAI segment to Global Generics segment which amounts to Rs. 5,492 (as compared to Rs. 6,181 for the year ended 31st March 2017).

(2) Post implementation of Goods and Services Tax (“GST”) with effect from 1st July 2017, sales is disclosed net of GST. Sales for the year ended 31st March 2017 included excise duty of Rs. 939 which is now subsumed in the GST. Sales for the year ended 31 March 2018 includes excise duty of Rs. 173 up to 30th June 2017. Accordingly, sales for the year ended 31st March 2018 are not comparable with those of the previous year presented.

Analysis of revenue by geography:

The following table shows the distribution of the Company’s revenues (excluding other operating income) based on the location of the customers:

REPORTABLE SEGMENTS FOR THE YEAR ENDED 3rd MARCH 2018
  GLOBAL GENERICS PSAI PROPRIETARY PRODUCTS OTHERS TOTAL
Revenue from operations(1)(2) 114,282 22,438 4,250 1,840 142,810
Gross profit 67,190 4,477 3,799 869 76,335
Less: Selling and other unallocable expense/ (income), net         62,831
Profit before tax         13,504
Tax expense         4,380
Profit after tax         9,124
Add: Share of profit of equity accounted investees, net of tax         344
Profit for the year         9,468

 

REPORTABLE SEGMENTS FOR THE YEAR ENDED 3rd MARCH 2017
  GLOBAL GENERICS PSAI PROPRIETARY PRODUCTS OTHERS TOTAL
Revenue from operations(1) (2) 115,736 21,651 2,783 1,791 141,961
Gross profit 71,079 4,497 1,951 853 78,380
Less: Selling and other unallocable expense/(income), net         62,843
Profit before tax         15,537
Tax expense         2,965
Profit after tax         12,572
Add: Share of profit of equity accounted investees, net of tax         349
Profit for the year         12,921

 

COUNTRY FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2018

FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2017

India 25,209 24,927
United States 68,124 69,816
Russia 12,610 11,547
Others 36,085 34,519
Total 142,028 140,809

 

Analysis of revenue within the Global Generics segment:

An analysis of revenue (excluding other operating income) by therapeutic areas in the Company’s Global Generics segment is given below:

 

PARTICULARS FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2018

FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2017

Gastrointestinal 19,153 21,190
Oncology 16,999 17,054
Cardiovascular 16,501 15,553
Pain Management 12,898 14,323
Central Nervous System 12,509 12,749
Anti-Infective 6,557 7,189
Others 29,397 27,351
Total 114,014 115,409

 

Analysis of revenue within the PSAI segment:

An analysis of revenues (excluding other operating income) by therapeutic areas in the Company’s PSAI segment is given below:

 

PARTICULARS FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2018

FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2017

Cardiovascular 6,191 5,078
Pain Management 3,228 3,290
Central Nervous System 2,331 2,758
Anti-Infective 1,968 1,859
Dermatology 1,606 1,606
Oncology 1,650 1,534
Others 5,018 5,152
Total 21,992 21,277

 

Analysis of assets by geography:

The following table shows the distribution of the Company’s non-current assets (other than financial instruments and deferred tax assets) by country, based on the location of assets:

 

COUNTRY AS AT

31st MARCH 2018

AS AT

31st MARCH 2017

India 61,997 61,031
Switzerland 32,202 31,457
United States 8,483 8,233
Germany 2,968 2,560
Others 5,930 5,001
Total 111,580 108,282

 

The following table shows the distribution of the Company’s property, plant and equipment including capital work in progress and intangible assets acquired during the year (other than goodwill arising on business combination) by country, based on the location of assets:

 

COUNTRY FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2018

FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31st MARCH 2017

India 8,093 10,545
Switzerland 1,100 26,639
United States 779 2,657
Others 1,830 728
Total 11,802 40,569

 

Analysis of depreciation and amortisation, for arriving gross profit by reportable segments:

 

PARTICULARS FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31 MARCH 2018

FOR THE YEAR ENDED

31 MARCH 2017

Global Generics 3,549 3,334
PSAI 2,887 2,647
Proprietary Products
Others 94 89
Total 6,530 6,070

 

Information about major customers

Revenues from two of the customers of the Company’s Global Generics segment were Rs.13,486 and Rs.10,755 representing approximately 9% and 8% of the Company’s total revenues, respectively for the year ended 3rd March 2018.

Revenues from one of the customers of the Company’s Global Generics segment were Rs. 22,760 representing approximately 16% of the Company’s total revenues, for the year ended 31st March 2017.

INFOSYS LTD

From Notes to Financial Statements

 

Segment Reporting:

Ind AS 108 establishes standards for the way that public business enterprises report information about operating segments and related disclosures about products and services, geographic areas, and major customers. The Group’s operations predominantly relate to providing end-to-end business solutions to enable clients to enhance business performance. Based on the ‘management approach’ as defined in Ind AS 108, the Chief Operating Decision Maker (CODM) evaluates the Group’s performance and allocates resources based on an analysis of various performance indicators by business segments and geographic segments. Accordingly, information has been presented both along business segments and geographic segments. The accounting principles used in the preparation of the financial statements are consistently applied to record revenue and expenditure in individual segments, and are as set out in the significant accounting policies.

Business segments of the Group are primarily enterprises in Financial Services (FS), enterprises in Manufacturing (MFG), enterprises in Retail, Consumer packaged goods and Logistics (RCL), enterprises in the Energy & utilities, Communication and Services (ECS), enterprises in Hi-tech (Hi-tech), enterprises in Life Sciences, Healthcare and Insurance (HILIFE) and all other segments. The FS reportable segments has been aggregated to include the Financial Services operating segment and the Finacle operating segment because of the similarity of the economic characteristics. All other segments represent the operating segments of businesses in India, Japan, China and IPS. Geographic segmentation is based on business sourced from that geographic region and delivered from both onsite and offshore locations. North America comprises the United States of America, Canada and Mexico, Europe includes continental Europe (both the east and the west), Ireland and the United Kingdom, and the Rest of the World comprises all other places except those mentioned above and India.

Revenue and identifiable operating expenses in relation to segments are categorized based on items that are individually identifiable to that segment. Revenue for ‘all other segments’ represents revenue generated by IPS and revenue generated from customers located in India, Japan and China. Allocated expenses of segments include expenses incurred for rendering services from the Company’s offshore software development centres and onsite expenses, which are categorised in relation to the associated turnover of the segment. Certain expenses such as depreciation, which form a significant component of total expenses, are not specifically allocable to specific segments as the underlying assets are used interchangeably. The Management believes that it is not practical to provide segment disclosures relating to those costs and expenses, and accordingly these expenses are separately disclosed as ‘unallocated’ and adjusted against the total income of the Group.

Assets and liabilities used in the Group’s business are not identified to any of the reportable segments, as these are used interchangeably between segments. The management believes that it is currently not practicable to provide segment disclosures relating to total assets and liabilities since a meaningful segregation of the available data is onerous.

Geographical information on revenue and business segment revenue information is collated based on individual customers invoiced or in relation to which the revenue is otherwise recognised.

Business Segment

For the years ended 31st March 2018 and March 31st 2017.

 

(In Rs. Crore)
Particulars FS MFG ECS RCL HILIFE Hi-Tech All other

segments

Total
Revenue from operations 18,638 7,699 16,757 11,104 9,271 5,047 2,006 70,522
  18,555 7,507 15,430 11,225 8,437 5,122 2,208 68,484
Identifiable operating expenses 9,476 4,135 8,411 5,339 4,596 2,679 1,162 35,798
  9,271 3,922 7,430 5,378 4,178 2,659 1,406 34,244
Allocated expenses 3,955 1,745 3,796 2,516 2,100 1,144 455 15,711
  4,075 1,737 3,569 2,598 1,951 1,186 510 15,626
Segmental operating income 5,207 1,819 4,550 3,249 2,575 1,224 389 19,013
  5,209 1,848 4,431 3,249 2,308 1,277 292 18,614
Unallocable expenses               1,865
                1,713
Other income, net (Refer to Notes 2.17 and 2.25)               3,193
                3,080
Share in net profit / (loss) of associate, including impairment               (71)
                (30)
Profit before tax               20,270
                19,951
Tax expense               4,241
                5,598
Profit for the year               16,029
                14,353
Depreciation and amortisation expense               1,863
                1,703
Non-cash expenses other than depreciation and amortisation               191
                28

 

Geographic segments

For the years ended 31st March 2018 and March 2017:

 

  In Rs. crore
  Particulars North America Europe India Rest of the World Total
  Revenue from operations 42,575 16,738 2,231 8,978 70,522
    42,408 15,392 2,180 8,504 68,484
  Identifiable operating expenses 22,105 8,535 906 4,252 35,798
    21,618 7,694 1,002 3,930 34,244
  Allocated expenses 9,624 3,778 426 1,883 15,711
    9,799 3,548 442 1,837 15,626
  Segmental operating income 10,846 4,425 899 2,843 19,013
    10,991 4,150 736 2,737 18,614
  Unallocable expenses         1,865
            1,713
  Other income, net

(Refer to Notes 2.17 and 2.25)

        3,193
            3,080
  Share in net profit / (loss) of

associate, including impairment

        (71)
            (30)
  Profit before tax         20,270
            19,951
  Tax expense         4,241
In Rs. crore  
Particulars North America Europe India Rest of the World Total  
          5,598  
Profit for the year         16,029  
          14,353  
Depreciation and amortisation expense         1,863  
          1,703  
Non-cash expenses other than depreciation and amortisation         191  
          28  

 

Significant clients

No client individually accounted for more than 10% of the revenues in the years ended 31st March 2018 and 31st March 2017.

 

RELIANCE INDUSTRIES LTD

From Notes to Financial Statements

 

Segment Information

The Group’s operating segments are established on the basis of those components of the Group that are evaluated regularly by the Executive Committee (the ‘Chief Operating Decision Maker’ as defined in Ind AS 108 – ‘Operating Segments’), in deciding how to allocate resources and in assessing performance. These have been identified taking into account nature of products and services, the different risks and returns and the internal business reporting systems.

The Group has five principal operating and reporting segments; viz; Refining, Petrochemicals, Oil and Gas, Organised Retail and Digital Services.

The accounting policies adopted for segment reporting are in line with the accounting policy of the Company with following additional policies for segment reporting.

  1. Revenue and Expenses have been identified to a segment on the basis of relationship to operating activities of the segment. Revenue and Expenses which relate to enterprise as a whole and are not allocable to a segment on reasonable basis have been disclosed as “Unallocable”.
  2. Segment Assets and Segment Liabilities represent Assets and Liabilities in respective segments. Investments, tax related assets and other assets and liabilities that cannot be allocated to a segment on a reasonable basis have been disclosed as “Unallocable”.

 

(i)  Primary Segment Information

Not reproduced…..

(ii)  Inter segment pricing are at Arm’s length basis.

(iii) As per Indian Accounting Standard 108 – Operating Segments, the Company has reported segment information on consolidated basis including business conducted through its subsidiaries.

(iv) The reportable segments are further described below:

–    The Refining segment includes production and marketing operations of the petroleum products.

–    The Petrochemicals segment includes production and marketing operations of petrochemicals products namely. High density Polythylene, Low density Polyethylene, Linear Low density Polyethylene, Polypropylene, Polyvinyl Chloride, Polyester Yarn, Polyester Fibres, Purified Terephthalic Acid, Paraxylene, Ethylene Glycol, Olefins, Aromatics, Linear Alkyl Benzene, Butadienc, Acrylonitrile, Poly Butadiene Rubber, Styrene Butadiene Rubber, Caustic Soda and Polyethylene Terephthalate.

–    The Oil and Gas segment includes exploration, development and production of crude oil and natural gas.

–    The organised Retail segment includes organise retail business in India.

–    The Digital Services segment includes range of digital services in India.

–    The business, which were not reportable segments during the year, have been grouped under the ‘Others’ segment.   This mainly comprises of:

  • Media
  • SEZ Development
  • Textile

 

(v)   Secondary Segment Information:

 

Rs. in crore
    2017-18 2016-17
1 Segment Revenue – External Turnover
  Within India 2,09,093 1,52,197
  Outside India 2,21,638 1,77,983
  Total 4,30,731 3,30,180
2 Non – Current Assets 
  Within India 6,09,272 5,38,852
  Outside India 23,290 26,674
  Total 6,32,562 5,65,526

 

ITC LTD

From Significant Accounting Policies

Operating Segments

Operating segments are reported in a manner consistent with the internal reporting provided to the chief operating decision-maker (CODM). The CODM, who is responsible for allocating resources and assessing performance of the operating segments, has been identified as the Corporate Management Committee.

Segments are organised based on business which have similar economic characteristics as well as exhibit similarities in nature of products and services offered, the nature of production processes, the type and class of customer and distribution methods.

Segment revenue arising from third party customers is reported on the same basis as revenue in the financial statements. Inter-segment revenue is reported on the basis of transactions which are primarily market led. Segment results represent profits before finance charges, unallocated corporate expenses and taxes.

“Unallocated Corporate Expenses” include revenue and expenses that relate to initiatives / costs attributable to the enterprise as a whole and are not attributable to segments.

 

   
(Rs. in Crores)
    2018   2017  
External Inter Segment Total External Inter Segment Total
1. Segment Revenue-Gross
  FMCG-Cigarettes 24848.09 24848.09 35877.66 35877.66
FMCG-Others 11339.31 18.07 11357.38 10523.53 13.90 10537.46
FMCG-Total 36187.40 18.07 36205.47 46401.22 13.90 46415.12
Hotels 1480.02 14.65 1494.67 1400.35 14.04 1414.39
Agri Business 4474.22 3680.82 8155.04 5314.13 3070.73 8384.86
Paperboards, Paper and

Packaging

3695.41 1554.23 5249.64 3732.63 1630.23 5362.86
Others 1525.46 76.97 1602.43 1439.62 74.06 1513.68
Segment Total 47362.51 5344.74 52707.25 58287.95 4802.96 63090.91
Eliminators     (5344.74)     (4802.96)
Gross Revenue from sale of products and services     47362.51     58287.95
2. Segment Results
  FMCG-Cigarettes     14128.12     13203.70
  FMCG-Others     170.46     26.15
  FMCG-Total     14298.58     13229.85
  Hotels     145.00     117.12
  Agri Business     841.49     926.32

 

(Rs. in Crores)
    2018   2017  
External Inter Segment Total External Inter Segment Total
  Paperboards, Paper and

Packaging

    1042.16     965.84
  Others     126.81     102.71
  Segment Total     16454.04     15341.84
  Eliminators     (93.60)     41.46
  Consolidated Total     16360.44     15383.30
  Unallocated corporate expenses net of unallocated income     1020.29     1007.60
  Profit before interest etc., and taxation     15340.15     14375.70
  Finance Costs     89.91     24.30
  Interest earned on loans and deposits, income from current and non-current investments, profit and

loss on sale of investments etc.-Net

    1738.39     1668.95
  Share of net profit of

associates & joint ventures

    7.58     5.97
  Exceptional Items [refer note 28(i)]     412.90    
  Profit before tax     17409.11     16026.32
  Tax expense     5916.43     5549.09
  Profit for the year     11492.68     10477.23
3. Other Information 2018 2017
        Segment

Assets

Segment

Liabilities

Segment

Assets

Segment

Liabilities

  FMCG-Cigarettes     8508.42 4756.35 8573.92 2561.31
  FMCG-Others     7760.11 1909.42 7257.61 1411.58
  FMCG-Total     16268.53 6665.77 15831.53 3972.89
  Hotels (Refer Note 3B)     6564.68 619.34 5849.59 446.94
  Agri Business     3693.37 807.75 3255.76 723.60
  Paperboards, Paper and

Packaging

    6730.78 786.73 6313.82 623.85
  Others     900.81 229.54 771.74 209.52
  Segment Total     34158.17 9109.13 32022.44 5976.80
  Unallocated Corporate

Assets/Liabilities

    30130.69 2335.15 23920.83 3258.80
  Total     64288.86 11444.28 55943.27 9235.50

 

*Segment Liabilities of FMCG – cigarettes is before considering `233.02 Crore (2017 – Rs. 629.83 crore) in respect of disputed taxes, the recovery of which has been stayed or where States’ appeals are pending before Courts. These have been included under ‘Unallocated Corporate Liabilities’. Also Refer Note 28(i).

 

(Rs. in Crores)
  2018 2017
  Capital expenditure Depreciation and amortisation Capital expenditure Depreciation and amortisation
FMCG – Cigarettes 96.23 295.15 262.35 305.15
FMCG – Others 835.85 301.97 1157.41 246.08
FMCG – Totals 932.08 597.12 1419.76 551.23
Hotels 918.64 174.98 472.19 172.31
Agri business 92.90 68.04 160.63 50.42
Paperboards, Paper and Packaging 910.01 274.60 560.63 254.14
Others 16.25 25.68 10.46 28.53
Segment Total 2869.88 1140.42 2623.37 1056.63
Unallocated 327.65 95.86 553.76 96.16
Total 3197.53 1236.28 3177.43 1152.79

 

  Non Cash Expenditure other than depreciation Non Cash Expenditure other than depreciation
FMCG – Cigarettes 2.44 3.42
FMCG – Others 48.55 40.14
FMCG – Totals 50.99 43.56
Hotels 6.89 11.30
Agri Business 2.33 0.52
Paperboards, Paper and

Packaging

44.32 22.97
Others 4.89 5.67
Segment Total 109.42 84.02

 

GEOGRAPHICAL INFORMATION

 

    2018 2017
1. Revenue from External Customers    
   – Within India 41175.15 51796.82
   – Outside India 6187.36 6491.13
  Total 47362.51 58287.95
       
2. Non-Current Assets    
   – Within India 23341.21 21816.13
   – Outside India 1245.68 1009.85
  Total 24586.89 22825.98

 

NOTES:

1)    The Group’s corporate strategy aims at creating multiple drivers of growth anchored on its core competencies. The Group is currently focused on four business groups: FMCG, Hotels, Paperboards, Paper and Packaging and Agri Business. The Group’s organisation structure and governance process are designed to support effective management of multiple businesses while retaining focus on each one of them.

The Operating Segments have been reported in a manner consistent with the internal reporting provided to the corporate Management Committee, which is the Chief Operating Decision Maker.

2)    The business groups comprise the following

FMCG :           Cigarettes         –     Cigarettes, Cigars etc.

Others   –     Branded  packaged  foods  business  (Staples, Snacks    and meals; Dairy and Beverages; Confections),   Apparels,     education     and stationery product, personal care product, safety matches and agarbattis.

Hotels                                              Hoteliering

Paperboards, Paper and Packaging       –         Paperboards, paper including speciality paper

 

 

and packaging including flexibles.

Agri Business       –      Agri commodities such as soya, spices, coffee and leaf tobacco.

Others                  –    Information Technology service etc.

 

 

3)    The Group companies have been included in segment classification as follows:

FMCG  :                 Cigarettes             –     Surya Nepal Private Limited

Others :                –     Surya Nepal Private Limited and North East Nutrients

Private Limited.

 

Hotels                    –     Srinivasa  Resorts  Limited,  Fortune  Park  Hotels Limited, Bay Island Hotels Limited and Welcome Hotels Lanka (Private) Limited.

 

Agri Business          –     Technico   Agri   Science   Limited,   Technico   Pty Limited and its subsidiaries Technico Technology Inc., alongwith its jointly controlled operations with Shamrock  Seed  Potato  Farm  Limited,  Technico Asia Holdings Pty Limited and Technico Hoticulture (Kunming) Co. Limited.

 

Others                   –      ITC  Infotech  India  Limited  and  its  subsidiaries ITC  Infotech  Limited,  ITC  Infotech  (USA).  Inc and Indivate Inc. Russell Credit Limited and its Subsidiaries Greenacre Holdings Limited, Wimco Limited, Pravan Poplar Limited, Prag Agro Farm Limited, ITC investments and Holding Limited and its Subsidiary MRR Trading and Investment Company Limited, Land Based India Limited and Gold Flake Corporation Limited.

 

4)    The geographical Information considered for disclosure are:

–     Sales within India

–     Sales outside India

 

5)    Segment result of “FMCG: Other” are after considering significant business development, brand Building and

Gestation cost of the Branded Package Foods business and Personal Care products and business

 

6)    As stocks options are granted under ITC ESOS to align the interest of employees with those shareholders and also to attract and retain talent for the group as a whole, the option value of ITC ESOS do not form part of segment performance reviewed by corporate management committee.

 

7)    The Group is not reliant on revenue from transactions from any single external customer and does not receive 10%

or more of its revenue from its transactions with any single external customer.

ALLIED LAWS

15.  Appeal dismissed – Merger of
the High Court order into the Supreme Court Order. [Constitution of India,
Article 141, 136]

 

Archana
Mishra and Ors. vs. State of U.P. and Ors. AIR 2018 Allahabad 278

 

The
question before the Court for consideration was with respect to whether Dr.
Vishwajeet Singh’s case
  and the Full
Bench decision in Heera Lal’s case  have been correctly decided.

 

It
was observed that the decision in Dr. Vishwajeet Singh had been subjected to
challenge before the Supreme Court in Civil Appeal Nos. 6385-6386 of 2010, and
the same was dismissed without any discussion. Hence, it was not in dispute
that if it is ultimately held that the view/opinion expressed by the Division
Bench in Dr. Vishwajeet Singh’s stands confirmed and merged in the order of the
Supreme Court, it would not be necessary for the reference to be addressed on
merits.

 

It
was held by the Court that their unequivocal answer therefore to the issue
framed would be that the decision in Dr. Vishwajeet Singh stood duly
affirmed by the Supreme Court. The said decision consequently merged in the
order of the Supreme Court. The order of the Supreme Court came to be rendered
after grant of leave. Once the decision of this Court stood merged in the order
of the Supreme Court, it would not be legally permissible for this Full Bench
to consider the correctness or otherwise of Dr. Vishwajeet Singh. This Court is
bound by the said order of the Supreme Court irrespective of the absence of a
“speech” or recordal of elaborate reasons on the legal issues which
arose therein. The issue essentially is not one of the Court being faced with a
precedent but primarily of merger. Once, as we have found, the decision of the
Division Bench stood subsumed in the order of the Supreme Court after grant of
leave with a positive affirmation of the view taken therein, it is no longer
open for this Court to revisit the said decision.

 

16.  Benami
Property – Land in name of Family member – Cannot be considered as Benami.
[Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988; Section 4]

 

Narendra
Prasad Singh vs. Ram Ashish Singh and Ors. AIR 2018 Patna 205

 

The stand of the appellant was that the claim of the
plaintiff’s title and not the title of the defendants, over the suit property,
was barred u/s. 4 of the Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Act, 1988. It was
observed by the court that such a view could not have been accepted since
acquisition of the land in the name of a member of a family from the joint
family property cannot be regarded as a benami transaction within the meaning
of section 2 of the Benami Transaction (Prohibition) Act, 1988. Benami
transaction has been defined u/s. 2(a) of the Benami Transaction (Prohibition)
Act, 1988 as any transaction in which property is transferred to one person and
a consideration is paid or provided by another person. In the present case, the
consideration has been found to have been provided by the joint family fund
which cannot be treated as fund of another person.

 

It
was therefore held that the said provision does not have any application at all
in the present facts and circumstances. This is also to be noted that the
plaintiff claimed his title purely on the basis of the family arrangement and
not a benamidar and, therefore, the suit cannot be said to be hit by Benami
Transaction (Prohibition) Act, 1988. The said question was answered
accordingly.

 

17.  Partition – Oral Agreement
–Registered document not required. [Registration Act, 1908; S.17]

 

Santosh
Kumar Tiwari and Ors. vs. Meena Bai and Ors. AIR 2018 Chhattisgarh 167


The
plaintiffs had proved that the registered deed was executed amongst the
successors-in interest of Chhedilal and their three brothers namely Ramdulare,
Ramjharokha and Ramnarayan, in which also, such fact was mentioned. The deed
had been duly proved by Santosh Kumar (P.W. 1). Therefore, the evidence led by
all the joint owners and their successors-in-interest is coherent that the oral
partition had taken place amongst four brothers way back in the year 1966-67.
The defendant-Motilal is an outsider. As against common stand taken by all the
shareholders of the property that the partition was effected in the year
1966-67, the defendant/Motilal, except denying such partition, has failed to
place on record any clinching evidence, oral or documentary in nature, to prove
that partition had taken place in the year 1962-63, except suggestions being
given to the witnesses.

 

In
view of the above, the Court held that the learned Trial Court fell in error in
holding that the plaintiffs failed to prove the partition amongst themselves.
It has to be noticed that the factum of partition has been proved from
the oral evidence of Ramnarayan, Ramjharokha and Ramdulare who were three brothers
in the partition proceedings with their fourth brother – Chhedilal. Learned
Trial Court appears to be swayed from the fact that a subsequent deed was not a
registered document. The effect of that document being unregistered would only
be that it would not be inadmissible in evidence as proof of partition,
however, the plaintiffs have led their evidence to prove partition amongst four
brothers. When three out of four brothers have deposed in the Court that they
had partitioned a joint family property amongst themselves in the year 1966-67,
in the considered opinion of this Court, law does not require that it should be
proved only by a registered document and not otherwise. Once there is reliable
oral evidence of partition amongst the joint holders of the property, the law
does not require that it should be only by way of registered deed of partition.

 

18.  Precedent – Mere pendency of
appeal cannot operate as stay on order – Order appealed against holds good.

 

R.K. Ganapathy Chettiar vs. Assistant Commissioner (CT),
Kangeyam  2018 (16) G.S.T.L. 562 (Mad.)

 

In
case of an issue where reliance was place on a certain judgment by the
petitioner, the Learned counsel appearing for the respondent submitted that
writ appeals have been preferred by the State, against the order in the case of
Everest Industries Limited vs. State of Tamil Nadu [2017] 100 VST 158 (Mad)
,
and the appeals are yet to be numbered.

 

It
was held by the honourable Court that, as on date, the writ appeals filed by
the State challenging the correctness of the decision in Everest Industries
Limited vs. State of Tamil Nadu [2017] 100 VST 158 (Mad)
, are yet to be
numbered and mere pendency of such appeals cannot operate as stay of orders in Everest
Industries Limited vs. State of Tamil Nadu [2017] 100 VST 158 (Mad)
.
Therefore as on date, the said order holds good. Thus, on the second aspect
also, the assessment requires to be re-done.

 

19.  Public Interest Litigation –
Encroachment by shopkeepers – Mandatory Directions. [Constitution of India;
Article 226, 227, 21]

 

Manmohan
Lakhera vs. State and Ors. AIR 2018 Uttarakhand 187

 

The
fact of the matter state that despite repeated directions issued the Court,
neither the State Government nor the MDDA nor the Nagar Nigam Dehradun had
taken any effective steps to remove the encroachment from the public
streets/pavements.

 

It was observed
by the honourable Court that the Public streets are for public convenience.
These should be free from encroachment. The citizen must have a free access to
footpaths. The Court can take judicial notice of the fact that the children and
elderly people also use the footpaths. The shopkeepers, firstly, are permitted
to construct temporary khokhas and, thereafter, they make them pucca. There are
permanent bottlenecks as noticed in the report, and highlighted by us. The
footpaths are being permitted to be used for placing big generators causing
noise and air pollution. The shopkeepers are permitting the vegetable and fruit
vendors to sit in front of their shops. The residential premises have been
converted into commercial complexes, more particularly, in the oldest colony
i.e. Nehru Colony. Similar is the plight of other localities. There is chaos
all over Dehradun. The traffic moves at snail’s pace. The public authorities
cannot be oblivious to the loss of precious time of commuters. The Court can
take judicial notice of the fact that the roads, encroached upon with impunity
with the connivance and collusion of the authorities, are also ridden with
garbage. Every citizen has a right to access to footpaths, roads, parks and
public utilities under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. It is the duty
cast upon the MDDA and the Nagar Nigam to keep the roads clean. Recently, there
was a strike by the Safai Karamchari which further deteriorated the position.
There was no alternative plan available with the Nagar Nigam and MDDA. The
garbage was not removed from the streets for days together. The respondents are
putting wool over the eyes of the Court by giving assurances from time to time
that they are doing their best to remove the encroachment, but till date,
Dehradun town is still suffering from this menace. The decision was taken by
the High Power Committee on 10th July 2014. We are in 2018. Since
then, the things have worsened instead of improving. The simple reason for
encroachments, extension of shops and unauthorised construction is
manifestation of the human greed with the collusion of functionaries of
government and municipal bodies. The employers did not take any disciplinary action
against the persons responsible for keeping the cities and towns free from
encroachment.



In
view of the same, The Municipal Corporation/MDDA/State functionaries are
directed to remove all the unauthorised encroachment on public
footpaths/streets/roads/pavements including unauthorised constructions made
over them within a period of four weeks from today by using its might.

 

The
Chief Secretary to the State of Uttarakhand is directed to initiate
disciplinary proceedings against the officers/officials, during whose tenure,
government land/municipal land/forest land have been encroached, with impunity,
by the unscrupulous people, and other related parties.

 

It was also mentioned that in case of
non-compliance, he shall be personally liable for contempt as well as
disciplinary proceedings.

FEMA FOCUS

Analysis of Recent Compounding Orders

An
analysis of some interesting compounding orders passed by Reserve Bank of India
in recent months of August 2018 and September 2018 and uploaded on the website[1]
are given below. Article refers to regulatory provisions as existing at the
time of offence. Changes in regulatory provisions are noted in comments
section.

 

A.    (Comment: Deleted since this section covers
orders passed under FDI / ECB and investment in partnerships, otherwise should
be bifurcated as (a) FDI compounding orders (b) ODI Compounding orders and (c)
Other compounding orders)

 

Aditya
Birla Idea Payments Bank Limited

 

Date
of order: 6th August 2018

 

Regulation:
FEMA 20/2000-RB Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of Security
by a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000 (FEMA 20).

 

Issue:
Delay in meeting minimum capitalisation norms beyond the stipulated time
period.

 

Facts

  •  Applicant[2]
    is engaged in Banking Business, i.e., to accept deposits from individuals,
    small businesses, other entities and public, as permitted by the Reserve Bank
    of India from time to time.
  •   Idea Mobile Commerce Services Limited (IMCSL)
    merged with Applicant and accordingly Applicant is successor entity of IMCSPL
    for violation committed by IMCSPL .
  •   Until March 2014, IMCSL (wholly owned
    subsidiary of Idea) was a business correspondent for a private sector bank in
    India. Pursuant to authorisation dated 25th November 2013, granted
    by RBI, IMCSL was engaged in the business of issuing prepaid payment
    instruments (PPIs).
  •   As per the extant guidelines, activity of
    issuing PPIs is covered under the 18 permitted NBFC activities where foreign
    investment is permitted under 100% automatic route subject to complying with
    minimum capitalisation norms.
  •   On 10th January 2007, Idea had
    obtained an approval of the erstwhile Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)
    for foreign equity participation of up to 74% in its paid-up capital, by virtue
    of which it was now a foreign owned and controlled company, and thus, its WOS,
    IMCSL also became foreign owned and controlled. IMCSL was thus required to
    comply with the minimum capitalisation norms of USD 5 million.
  •   However, there was a delay in meeting these
    norms. The norms were finally met on 26th April 2016, when the
    applicant completed bringing in the deficit amount of Rs. 26,79,00,000/-
    thereby fulfilling the shortfall amount in meeting the capitalisation
    requirement of Rs. 31,29,00,000 (USD 5 million).

 

Regulatory
provisions:


  •  Regulation
    5(1) of Notification No. FEMA 20/2000-RB permits purchase of shares by certain
    persons resident outside India under Foreign Direct Investment Scheme, subject
    to terms and conditions specified in Schedule I.
  •   Further,
    Paragraph 24.2(1) (ii), later renamed as Paragraph F.8.2 (1) (iii) of Annexure
    B of Schedule I of Notification No. FEMA 20/2000-RB specifies the minimum
    capitalisation norms subject to which foreign investment in NBFC is allowed
    under the automatic route. It specifies the same as “US $5 million for foreign
    capital more than 51% and up to 74% to be brought up front.”

 

Contravention:


Relevant Para of FEMA 20 Regulation

Nature of default

Amount involved (in INR)

Time period of default

Paragraph F.8.2 (1) (iii) of Annexure B of Schedule I

Delay in meeting the minimum capitalisation norms.

Rs. 26,79,00,000/-

2 years 4 months approximately

 

Compounding
penalty:

Compounding
penalty of Rs.16,57,400 was levied.

 

Comments:


(I)   Scenario until October, 2016

     Until October, 2016, 100% FDI in NBFC
sector under automatic route was permitted only for prescribed 18 activities.
Further, such activities were classified as fund based and non-fund based
activities and the investment was subject to minimum capitalisation norms as
prescribed in the FDI Policy and FEMA 20.

 

(II) Replacement of NBFC sector by OFS in October
2016

     On 25th October, 2016,
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) released Press Note 6 of
2016[3]  and liberalised the FDI Policy by replacing
the existing NBFC sector with Other Financial Services
(OFS) Sector.

     OFS includes activities which are regulated
by any financial sector regulator — RBI, SEBI, IRDA, Pension Fund Regulatory
and Development Authority, National Housing Bank or any other financial sector
regulator as may be notified by the government in this regard.

     OFS are categorised as (A) Regulated OFS
and (B) Unregulated / Unregistered / Exempted OFS. Entities engaged in
Regulated OFS are permitted to receive up to 100% FDI under automatic route
whereas entities engaged in Unregulated OFS are permitted to receive up to 100%
FDI only with Government approval.

     The said Press Note further provided that
FDI in OFS Sector (both Regulated OFS and Unregulated OFS) shall be subject to
conditionalities and minimum capitalisation norms that may be prescribed by the
concerned Financial Services Regulator or Government agency, as applicable.
However, the Government did not prescribe such minimum capitalisation norms
pursuant to Press Note 6. 

     The same conditions applicable to OFS
Sector under the 2016 FDI Policy have been retained under the current
consolidated FDI policy of 2018, FEMA 20R and RBI Master Directions on FDI in
India.

 

 

(III)     2018 Press Release introducing Minimum
Capitalisation Norms for unregulated OFS

     Ministry of Finance vide press release
dated 16th April 2018[4],
proposed to introduce Minimum Capital Requirements for Unregulated OFS. The
said press release prescribes minimum FDI Capital of US $ 20 Mn for Unregulated
/ Exempted / Unregistered Fund-Based activities and US $ 2 Mn for Unregulated /
Exempted / Unregistered Non Fund-Based activities. It has further given a list
of what activities which are fund based and non-fund based.

     However, it may be noted that this press
release has not yet been notified.

 

B.    Aircom International India Private Limited


Date of Order: 23rd August 2018

 

Regulation:
FEMA 3/2000-RB Foreign Exchange Management (Borrowing or Lending in Foreign
Exchange) Regulations, 2000

 

Issue:

1.    Availing ECB from a non-recognized lender

2.    Availing ECB for an end-use that was not
permitted

3.    Drawdown of ECB before obtaining Loan
Registration Number (LRN) from RBI

4.    Delay in meeting the reporting requirements

 

 

 

Facts:

  •   Applicant is engaged in the business of import
    of software for further resale in India and export of management services, software
    consultancy and training services, and is the wholly owned subsidiary (WOS) of
    M/s Aircom International Limited, UK.
  • Applicant raised foreign currency loan of GBP
    75,000 (equivalent to INR 51,15,398) on 7th February 2001 from its
    holding company for general corporate expenses. The lender was not a recognised
    lender at the time of giving loan and became eligible only from June 2001.
  •   The applicant company also raised foreign
    currency loans of GBP 3,93,000 and USD 5,33,477 (in totality equivalent to INR
    5,56,75,886) in 7 tranches from July 15, 2004 to May 15, 2006 from the parent
    company, for working capital purposes and without obtaining LRN. ECB was
    allowed for working capital purposes only from 4th September 2013.
  •   Reporting requirements were also not adhered
    to.

 

 

 

Regulatory
Provisions:

Regulation
6 of Notification No. FEMA 3/2000-RB read with paragraphs 1(iii), 1(iv), (xi)
and (xii) of Schedule I.

 

Contravention:

Relevant
Para of FEMA 20 Regulation

Nature
of default

Paragraph 1(iii) of
Schedule I

Availing ECB from a
non-recognised lender.

Paragraph 1(iv) of
Schedule I

Availing ECB for an
end-use that was not permitted.

Paragraph 1(xi) of
Schedule I

Drawdown of ECB
before obtaining LRN from RBI

Paragraph 1 (xii)
of Schedule I

Delay in meeting
the reporting requirements.

 

 

  •   Period of default is approximately 4 months to
    17 years and total amount of default is Rs. 6,07,91,284/-.

 

Compounding
penalty

Compounding
penalty of Rs. 5,05,935 was levied.

 

Comments:

Under
the erstwhile ECB Policy, ECB was not permitted to be utilised for General
Corporate Purpose. RBI vide notification[5]
dated 4th September 2013, permitted eligible borrowers to avail ECB
under approval route from their foreign equity holder company for general
corporate purposes subject to certain conditions.

 

As a
simplification measure, RBI vide notification[6]  dated 16th May 2014 permitted
companies belonging to manufacturing, infrastructure, hotels, hospitals and
software development sectors to avail ECB only from Direct Equity Holders
for general corporate purpose
(including working capital financing) under
the Automatic Route.

 

As
on date, ECB Policy permits Eligible Borrowers to avail ECB for general
corporate and working capital purpose
from ‘Foreign Direct Equity
Holders as well as Indirect Equity Holders and Group Companies
(as defined
under FEMA 3/2000) under Automatic Route provided that the minimum
average maturity period is of 5 years.

 

Further,
extant ECB guidelines permits companies engaged in software development sector
to avail ECB for general corporate purpose (including working capital).
Software development sector is not defined but it would generally mean
development of software. In facts of case, applicant is engaged in business of
import of software for further resale in India and export of management
services, software consultancy and training services. Accordingly, even though
other disabilities in terms of permitted lender, end-use restriction are
removed over period of time, trading of software would not fall within scope of
‘software development sector’. It is advisable to obtain upfront clarification
from RBI by companies engaged in IT and ITES services before obtaining ECB.

 

 

C.    ElringKlinger Automotive Components (India)
Private Limited.


Date of Order: 6th September 2018


Regulation FEMA 20/2000-RB Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of
Security by a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000 (FEMA 20).

 

Issue:

  •     Neither equity instruments were issued nor
    money was refunded to foreign investor within 180 days of receipt of inward
    remittance.
  •     Delay in reporting receipt of foreign inward
    remittance towards subscription to equity.
  •     Delay in submission of Form FC-GPR to RBI
    after issue of shares to foreign investor.
  •     Failure to obtain, specific and prior
    Government approval for issue of shares to person resident outside India against
    pre-operative / pre-incorporation expenses.

 

Facts:

  •     Applicant is engaged in the business of
    designing, assembling, manufacturing, selling, distributing, importing,
    exporting etc., of cylinder head gaskets, cover modules and shielding parts and
    related and allied products.
  •     Applicant received foreign inward remittance
    from Elringklinger AG, Germany, towards equity / preference share capital and
    reported the same to RBI with delay.
  •     In respect of remittances amounting to Rs
    8.31 crore, applicant allotted shares after 180 days of receipt of such
    investment.
  •     Applicant is Wholly Owned Subsidiary (WOS)
    of Elringklinger AG, Germany. In November, 2006 Applicant’s WOS directly made a
    payment of Rs.1.95 crore to Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (‘MIDC’)
    on behalf of the Applicant to acquire land for setting up its manufacturing
    plant in Pune, Maharashtra as pre-operative/pre-incorporation expenses.
  •    In February 2007, Applicant allotted
    19,50,505 equity shares to Elringklinger AG, Germany against pre-incorporation
    expenses without obtaining prior approval of Foreign Investment Promotion Board
    (FIPB). Later on Company made application to FIPB for approval. However, same
    was denied vide FIPB letter dated 31st March 2017 and Applicant was
    also directed to unwind the said transaction by way of repatriation of
    investment proceeds to the parent entity. In order to implement the said order,
    Applicant unwounded the transaction on 29th December 2017.

 

Contravention:

Relevant
Para of FEMA 20 Regulation

Nature
of default

Amount
involved (in INR)

Approx.
Time period of default

Paragraph
8 of Schedule 1

Shares
were not issued to person resident outside India within 180 days from date of
receipt of inward remittance / share application money not refunded to person
resident outside India within 180 days from date of receipt of inward
remittance.

Rs.8,31,25,640

5
days

Paragraph
9(1) (A) of Schedule 1

Delay
in reporting of receipt of foreign inward remittance towards subscription to
shares.

Rs.37,10,75,095

3
to 5 years

Paragraph
9(1) (B) of Schedule 1

Delay
in submission of Form FC-GPR to RBI

Rs.62,14,24,090

12
days to 5 years

Para
3 (e) of schedule 1

Issue
of shares against pre-incorporation expenses without prior FIPB Approval

Rs.
1,95,05,050

11
Years

 

 

 

Compounding
penalty:

Compounding
penalty of Rs.35,28,759/-was levied.

 

Comments:

Erstwhile
FEMA Regulations did not permit issue of shares against pre- incorporation
expenses.

 

Existing
FDI Regulations permit issue of Capital Instruments against pre -incorporation
/ pre-operative expenses by Indian Entities which are WOS of a non-resident
entity subject to the following conditions:

     WOS should be operating in a sector where
100 percent foreign investment is allowed under the automatic route and there
are no FDI linked performance conditions.

     Issue of Capital Instruments by such WOS
against such pre -incorporation expenses is allowed only upto 5% of the
Authorised Share Capital of the Indian Entity or USD 500,000 whichever is less.

     Form FC-GPR to be filed by the Indian
Entity within 30 days from the date of issue of such Capital Instruments but
not later than 1 year from the date of incorporation

     Certificate
issued by the statutory auditor of the Indian company that the amount of
pre-incorporation/ pre-operative expenses against which capital instruments
have been issued has been utilised for the purpose for which it was received
should be submitted with Form FC-GPR.

 

An
inclusive definition of Pre-incorporation/ pre-operative expenses has been set
out in the regulations which is as under
:

 

“Pre-incorporation/
pre-operative expenses will include amounts remitted to the investee Company’s
account or to the investor’s account in India if it exists or to any consultant
or attorney or to any other material/ service provider for expenditure relating
to incorporation or necessary for commencement of operations”

 

As
can be seen, issue of shares to compensate parent for pre-incorporation/
pre-operative expense even though permitted is subject to various conditions
especially that WOS is operating in sector where 100% FDI is permitted and
there are no FDI linked performance condition. In facts of case, FIPB has taken
a strict view and asked Applicant to unwind said transaction by repatriation of
proceeds to parent. Unwinding may have significant tax and regulatory
implications and hence FEMA regulations should be complied at threshold.

 

D.      Expedition Voyages

 

Date
of Order: 3rd September 2018

 

Regulation:
Notification No. FEMA 24/2000-RB Foreign Exchange Management (Investment in
Firm or Proprietary Concern in India) Regulations, 2000

 

Issue:
FDI in partnership without obtaining prior approval.

 

Facts:

  •     Expedition Voyages (Applicant)
    is a Partnership Firm formed vide a Deed of Partnership made on 23rd
    March 2015 between a New York Resident Individual and individual resident of
    India with a profit sharing ratio of 70:30. Main business of partnership firm
    is to carry on travel and tourism business from India by undertaking cruise
    travel which include ultra-luxury cruises also, marketing expeditions and all
    allied services.
  •    The foreign resident
    remitted approx. Rs.38.51 lakh in five tranches in India.
  •     Applicant subsequently
    reversed the transaction and remitted the above amount back to the foreign resident
    on 28th May 2018.
  •    Applicant has not taken
    RBI approval for investment by a person resident outside India by way of
    contribution to capital of the Applicant partnership firm thereby contravening
    Regulation 3 of FEMA 24/2000-RB.

 

Regulatory
Provision:

Regulation
3 of FEMA 24/2000-RB – a person resident outside India shall not make any
investment by way of contribution to the capital of a firm or a proprietary
concern or any association of persons in India without prior approval of RBI

 

Contravention:

The
period of default is around 2 years approximately and total amount of
contravention is Rs.38,51,373.22

 

Compounding
penalty:

Compounding
penalty of Rs. 73,108/- was levied.

 

Comments:

FEMA regulations also do not allow non-residents to
invest in / contribute to the capital of any firm or proprietary concern in
India without prior approval of RBI. However, NRIs or OCIs are allowed to
invest on a non-repatriation basis, by way of contribution to the capital of a
firm or a proprietary concern in India provided such firm or proprietary
concern is not engaged in any agricultural/ plantation activity or print media
or real estate business. Accordingly it is necessary to undertake suitable restructuring
in partnership firm to ensure that entity in which FDI capital is infused is
FEMA compliant.


E.      Invesco Asset Management (India) Private
Limited

 

Date
of Order: 9th August 2018

 

Regulation:
Notification No. FEMA 20/2000-RB Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or
Issue of Security by a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000

 

Issue:  Indirect foreign investment in Indian
Company without prior Government approval.

 

Facts:

  •     Applicant, Invesco Asset Management (India)
    Private Limited is an Asset Management Company (AMC). On 30th June
    2014, MF Utilities India Private Limited (MFU) issued 5,00,000 equity shares of
    Rs. 1 each amounting to Rs.5,00,000 to the applicant.
  •    At the time of this investment, 51%
    shareholding of the applicant was held by resident entities [Religare
    Securities Ltd. (RSL) 46.5% and RGAM Investment Advisors Pvt. Ltd.(RGAM) –
    4.5%]. Subsequently in April 2016, RSL and RGAM transferred their shareholding
    of 51% to Invesco Hong Kong Ltd., and Invesco Asset Management Pacific Ltd.
    Applicant thus became a foreign owned and controlled company and accordingly,
    investment in MFU by the applicant became an indirect foreign investment in
    MFU.
  •     In September 2017 FIPB (Foreign Investment
    Promotion Board) granted post facto approval for the indirect investment in MFU
    subject to the applicant applying for compounding to the Reserve Bank. At the
    time of investment, activity of MFU was under other financial activities
    requiring Government approval. Pursuant to FEMA Notification No.375 dated 9th
    September 2016, the activity was brought under automatic route. As post facto
    approval from FIPB has been received the administrative action is complete in
    this regard.

 

Regulatory
Provision:

Regulation14(6)(i)
of FEMA 20 – Downstream investment by an Indian Company owned or controlled by
Non Residents have to comply with the relevant sectoral conditions on entry
route, conditionalities and caps

 

Para 2(1) of Schedule 1 to FEMA 20 – An Indian company,
not engaged in any activity / sector mentioned in Annex A to this Schedule may
issue [shares or convertible debentures or warrants] to a person resident
outside India, subject to the limits prescribed in Annex B to this Schedule, in
accordance with the Entry Routes specified therein and the provisions of
Foreign Direct Investment Policy….”

 

Sr.No.F.8
of Annex B to Schedule 1 of FEMA 20 – Foreign investment in ‘Other Financial
Services’, other than those specifically stated therein, would require prior
approval of the Government.

 

Contravention:

Period
of default is 5 months approximately and total amount of contravention is Rs.
5,00,000/-

 

Compounding
penalty:

Compounding
penalty of Rs. 52,500 /-was levied.

 

Comments:

Until
October, 2016, 100% FDI in NBFC sector under automatic route was permitted only
for prescribed 18 activities. This did not include mutual funds.

 

On
25th October, 2016, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(DIPP) released Press Note 6 of 2016[7]
and liberalised the FDI Policy by replacing the existing NBFC sector with Other
Financial Services (OFS) Sector.

 

OFS
includes activities which are regulated by any financial sector regulator —
RBI, SEBI, IRDA, Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority, National
Housing Bank or any other financial sector regulator as may be notified by the
government in this regard

 

Foreign
owned and controlled Indian Entities need to be extra cautious before making
any downstream investment in other Indian Entities and especially check whether
the operations carried on by such Investee Indian Entities fall under the
Automatic or Approval route of RBI. Sectoral caps and other conditionalities
associated with the operations of the Indian Investee Entities also need to be
taken care of. Furthermore, compliance in term of sectorial condition is not to
be seen at the time of investment but needs to be monitored continuously. This
aspect is relevant just not for FDI entity receiving investment but also for
downstream investment held by FDI entity.

 

F.    Jetair Private Limited

 

Date
of Order: 28th August 2018

Regulation:
Notification No. FEMA 20/2000-RB Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or
Issue of Security By a Person Resident Outside India) Regulations, 2000.


Issue: Delay in reporting of downstream investment to the designated
agencies within 30 days of such investment


Facts:

  •     Applicant company, owned and controlled by
    non-resident entities, is engaged in the business of acting as travel and
    tourist agents for every mode of travel by sea, air or land, and arranging for
    tourists and travellers, the provision of conveniences, reserve places, hotel
    and lodging accommodation etc.
  •     In May 2015, Applicant made downstream
    investment in India to the extent of Rs. 4.81 crore into Jetair Tours Private
    Limited (Investee Indian Company).
  •     This downstream investment made by applicant
    company, on account of the aforesaid indirect FDI, was required to be reported
    to the (then) Secretariat of Industrial Assistance (SIA), Department of
    Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) and the then Foreign Investment
    Promotion Board (FIPB) within 30 days of such investment.
  •    However, there was a delay in meeting the
    above-mentioned reporting requirements beyond the stipulated period of 30 days.

 

Regulatory
Provision:

Regulation
14(6)(ii)(a) of Notification No.FEMA.20/2000-RB, as then applicable –
Downstream investments by Indian companies was required to be notified to
Secretariat for Industrial Assistance (SIA), DIPP and FIPB within 30 days of
such investment.

 

Contravention:

The
period of default is 2 years 11 months approximately. Total amount of
contravention is Rs. 4.81 crore.

 

Compounding
penalty:

Compounding
penalty of Rs. 1,55,833/- was levied.

 

Comments:

Under
the existing regulations, downstream investments made by Indian companies which
are majority owned / controlled by non-residents are required to be reported to
DIPP in Form DI within a period of 30 days of the Indian Entity making such
downstream Investment.


G.    Take Business Cloud Private Limited


Date of Order: 8th August 2018

 

Regulation:
FEMA 120/2004-RB – Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of any
Foreign Security) Regulations, 2004


Issue:

1.    Delay in reporting outward remittances made
to overseas entity

2.    Delay in receipt of share certificate
towards outward remittance made to overseas entity

3.    Disinvestment
of stake in overseas entity with write-off without necessary prior approval
when Applicant was not eligible to undertake disinvestment under automatic route

4.    Disinvestment from the overseas entity
without submission of Annual Performance Reports (APRs).

 

Facts:

  •     In March 2007, Applicant made outward
    remittance amounting to USD 21 million to an overseas entity in USA viz Navitas
    Inc (formerly Take Solutions Inc). Such outward remittance was reported in Form
    ODI with delay. There was also a delay in receipt of share certificate in
    relation to the said outward remittance
  •     In March, 2012, Applicant disinvested its
    stake in Navitas Inc with write-off and transferred its stake to another
    overseas entity viz Take Solutions Global Holdings Pte Ltd, Singapore without
    obtaining RBI Approval. Also, disinvestment was made without filing of APRs
  •     As the applicant was an unlisted company and
    the amount of the overseas direct investment in the overseas entity was in
    excess of USD 10 million, the applicant was not permitted to undertake
    disinvestment with write-off under the automatic route.

 

Contravention:

Relevant Para of FEMA 20 Regulation

Nature of default

Amount involved
(in INR)

Approx time period of default

Regulation 6(2)(vi)

Applicant
did not report investments made in overseas entity within prescribed time
period of 30 days

USD 21 million
(Rs.92.82 crore)

10 years

Regulation 15(i)

Delay
in receipt of the share certificate towards the outward remittance made to
the overseas entity.

USD 21 million
(Rs.92.82 crore)

10 years

Regulation 16(1)(v)

Applicant
disinvested its stake in overseas JV without submission of APRs

USD 184,68,121 (Rs.
94.72 crore)

5 years

Regulation 16(1A)

Applicant
disinvested its stake in overseas entity with write off without obtaining

prior RBI approval

USD 184,68,121 (Rs.
94.72 crore)

5 years

 

 

Compounding
penalty:

Compounding
penalty of Rs.1,49,78,167 was levied.

 

Comments:

Indian
Entities to take care of various FEMA compliances while remitting funds outside
India and also at the time of disinvestment as such non-compliance / breach of
regulations invites heavy compounding penalties.

 

H.   Wipro Limited

 

Date
of Order: 10th August, 2018

 

Regulation:
FEMA 120 / RB-2004 Foreign Exchange Management (Transfer or Issue of any
Foreign Security) Regulations, 2004

 

Issue: Issuance of corporate guarantees by Applicant
on behalf of its overseas step-down subsidiaries beyond the 1st level
subsidiary, without prior RBI approval

 

Facts:

  •     Applicant is engaged in the business of
    providing software and IT services.
  •    Applicant incorporated multiple wholly owned
    subsidiaries (WOSs) in Mauritius and Cyprus.
  •  Applicant issued corporate guarantees in
    favor of step-down subsidiaries (SDSs) of these WOSs, beyond the 1st
    level, without prior approval of RBI.


Regulatory Provisions:

Regulation
6(4) of Notification No. FEMA.120/2004-RB, as then applicable provided that An
Indian Party may extend a loan or a guarantee to or on behalf of the Joint
Venture/ Wholly Owned Subsidiary abroad, within the permissible financial
commitment, provided that the Indian Party has made investment by way of
contribution to the equity capital of the Joint Venture.

Contravention:


Issuance
of corporate guarantees by the applicant on behalf of its overseas step-down
subsidiaries, which were 2nd, 3rd and 4th level step down subsidiary, i.e.
beyond the 1st level subsidiary, without prior approval of the Reserve Bank of
India.? Period of contravention is 8 to 10 years. ? Amount of contravention is
Rs. 855.71 crore.


Compounding penalty:


Compounding penalty of Rs. 69,17,862/- was
levied.


Comments:


Under the erstwhile ODI Regulations, an Indian Party was permitted
to extend corporate guarantees only on behalf of its JV / WOS.

 

In
2013, ODI Regulations have been amended whereby in addition to the above,
Indian Parties are permitted to extend corporate guarantees on behalf of its
firstgeneration step down operating company within the prevailing ODI Limit.
Issue of Corporate guarantee on behalf of second level or subsequent level
operating step-down subsidiaries may be permitted with RBI Approval.It is to be
noted that the above Amendment has been given retrospective effect from 27th
May, 2011.



[1] https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/Compoundingorders.aspx

[2] Currently, Idea
Cellular Limited (Idea) and Grasim Industries Limited (Grasim), hold 49% and
51% stake in the applicant respectively. Subject violation was prior to change
in shareholding of Applicant

[3] http://dipp.nic.in/sites/default/files/pn6_2016.pdf

[4] http://pib.nic.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1529264

[5] RBI/2013-14/221
A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No.31

[6] RBI/2013-14/594
A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No.130

[7] http://dipp.nic.in/sites/default/files/pn6_016.pdf

Section 37 of the Act and Rule 9A of IT Rules, 1962 – Business expenditure – capital or revenue expenditure – Expenditure incurred on account of abandoned teleserial – Revenue expenditure

31. 
Asianet Communications Ltd. vs. CIT; 407 ITR 706 (Mad);
Date of order: 26th June, 2017 A. Y. 2001-02

 

Section 37 – Business expenditure – Capital
or revenue – Amount paid as non-compete fees – No new source of income – Amount
deductible as business expenditure

 

The assessee was a company engaged in the business of television
broadcasting, formed in the year 1991. The assessee was managed by one of the
directors, SK and he was also the president of the company, managing all the
affairs of the company till April 1999. SK had 50% share holding and the
balance was held by a non-resident Indian, RM. SK and RM decided to part ways
and an agreement was arrived at between them by which SK agreed to sell 50% of
his shareholding to RM or to his nominees and to renounce his management of the
company. As a part of the agreement SK agreed not to compete with the business
of the assesee for a period of five years for which the company agreed to pay
him a sum of Rs. 10.5 crore during the previous year relevant to  the A. Y. 2000-2001. This amount was paid to
SK in respect of a non-compete covenant, which was claimed as business
expenditure in computing the income for the same year. The claim was rejected
by the Assessing Officer.

 

The Commissioner
(Appeals) and the Tribunal confirmed the order of the Assessing Officer.

 

On appeal by the
assessee, the Madras High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held
as under:

 

“i)    Any contractual term that
imposes restraint on a contracting party from engaging in any business for a
reasonable term must be backed by consideration. Therefore, the non-compete
compensation is but a consideration paid to the party who is kept out of
competing business during the term of the contract. The non-compete
compensation from the stand point of the payee of such compensation, is paid in
anticipation that absence of a compensation from the other party to the
contract may secure a benefit to the party paying the compensation. There is no
certainty that such benefit would accrue. In other words, in spite of the fact
that a competitor is kept out of the competition, on may still suffer loss.

ii)    The facts clearly disclose
that on account of the payment of non-compete fee, the assessee had not
acquired any new business, the profit making apparatus had remained the same,
the assets used to run the business remained the same and there was no new
business or new source of income, which accrued to the assessee on account of
the payment of the non-compete fee.

iii)    The stand taken by the Revenue that the
assessee had ammortised expenditure spread over for the period of five years
had been found to be factually incorrect, as the assessee had not capitalised
it in its accounts, but treated it as differed revenue expenditure for a period
of five years. That apart, that issue was never raised by the Revenue before
any of the lower authorities. The amount paid under the non-compete covenant
was deductible.”

SOCIETY NEWS

 

BCAS
YouTube Views

 

 

 

 

 

1.         Traffic Source : YouTube traffic
sources include sources from which viewers are coming to the channel and viewing
videos.

2.         Subscriber: This pie graph indicates,
of the total videos viewed, percentage of videos watched by subscribers.

3.         Device Type: This chart highlights most
preferred gadget for the viewer to watch videos of BCAS Channel.

4.         Most viewed videos: This is the list of
top 10 most viewed videos from 21st March to 14th
December, 2020.

5.  Demographic
Profile of the viewer: This graph highlights the age group BCAS attracts
to its channel.

 

 

MISCELLANEA

I.
Technology

 

11.
Facebook working on new tech that can read human brain

 

Facebook is doubling down on its efforts towards making artificial
intelligence (AI) ubiquitous in its products and next year might see them turn
into reality.

 

Apparently, it is planning to build a new neural sensor that can read
people’s minds and convert those thoughts into actions. The new project will
push the social media giant further into the AI domain, some instances of which
did not go well with Facebook. Facebook has also announced a new tool that
summarises news articles into bullets so that readers do not have to spend much
time on them, a move that can potentially impact publishers on the social media
platform.

 

The announcements were made at Facebook’s yearly meeting that
involved everyone working at the company. The details of the meeting are not
available publicly but BuzzFeed News managed to obtain
an audio recording that was broadcast to all employees. Facebook has revealed
some serious plans that are associated with upgrades in the AI category, as the
company ends a predictably difficult year with even tougher events that posed a
challenge.

 

The neural sensor that the company is said to be developing uses the
resources of CTRL Labs, a company that Facebook acquired in 2019. According to
the report, the sensor will take the neural signals from the brain through the
spinal cord and arms, and right up to the wrist. This will allow users to make
physical actions based on their thoughts. According to Facebook, this will help
users holding a virtual object, typing and controlling a character in a video
game. This is uncannily similar to the nascent brain-reading technology that
Elon Musk’s Neuralink company is working on. It will be interesting to see what
spin Facebook gives to this tech.

 

Facebook has of late seen itself caught in several controversies,
including political inclination in India, discontent among employees and, most
importantly, the anti-trust cases over dominance in the US and elsewhere. One of
the controversies was the removal of hate speech which uses AI-powered tools
significantly. Facebook is now expanding its range to cover even more AI-enabled
products, including the new summarising app for news articles. It said some
20,000 employees have joined Facebook this year and that people were using
Facebook and its services more than ever, thanks to the pandemic.

 

But for Facebook AI is not a small accessory for its services to take
advantage. The social media giant is pegging AI as the panacea for all the
problems that it has faced and will likely deal with in the future. ‘We are
paving the way for breakthrough new experiences that, without hyperbole, will
improve the lives of billions,’ said Mike Schroepfer,
chief technology officer in the briefing, as per BuzzFeed News.

 

Facebook is using AI for almost everything, from curbing the spread
of misinformation on its social media platforms to removing hate speech, along
with scanning political content. Schroepfer even said
that AI is helping Facebook detect 95% of the hate speech rampant on the
platform. However, this is entirely opposite of what some ex-employees who have
worked closely with the company’s AI products have said, viz., that AI has
helped to remove less than 5% hate speech content. However, Facebook did not
come clean about this claim.

 

Source:
www.indiatoday.in – 16th December, 2020

 

12.
Twitter planning to create label for automated ‘bot’
accounts

 

Twitter Inc. is planning to create a new type of account for bots
next year that will identify them as automated, the company said in a blog post
that finalised plans for a reboot of its long-paused verification programme. The
company said bot accounts ‘can bring a lot of value to the service,’ but
acknowledged that ‘it can be confusing to people if it’s not clear that these
accounts are automated.’

For years, Twitter has faced calls from misinformation researchers to
disclose more information about bots which have been used to amplify / influence
operations and make certain narratives appear more popular on its site. It
started requiring developers to identify automated accounts as bots in March,
but resisted pressure to apply a designated label, saying as recently as in May
that ‘calls for bot labelling don’t capture the problem we’re trying to
solve.’

 

Twitter also said that it would build a new ‘memoralised account’ type in 2021 for people who have died.
Abuse of those accounts has likewise been a feature of information campaigns,
such as in one case documented last year by academic Marc Owen Jones involving
the verified account of an American meteorologist who died of cancer in 2016
that began tweeting pro-Saudi government content in Arabic two years
later.

 

In November, Twitter announced that it would restart its verification
programme early next year, after pausing submissions in 2017 amid criticism over
how it awarded the blue check-mark badges used to authenticate the identity of
prominent accounts.

 

It said it would begin removing verified badges from inactive and
incomplete accounts that fail to adhere to the new guidelines as of
20th January, 
2021
, although it would leave up inactive accounts of people who
are no longer living while working on the new memorial feature.

 

Source:
www.indianexpress.com – 18th December, 2020

 

 

II.
World

 

13. A four-day
workweek for five days’ pay? Unilever New Zealand is the latest to try
it

 

Unilever New Zealand has said that it would begin a one-year
experiment to allow all 81 of its employees to earn their full salaries while
working one day less per week, a move the company said might actually boost
productivity and improve employees’ work-life balance.

 

The company, which imports and distributes tea, soap, vaseline and ice cream, is the
latest to experiment with the long-discussed four-day workweek. Some business
and productivity experts say the concept may finally get a serious look amid a
pandemic that has altered how billions live and work around the
globe.

 

Nick Bangs, MD of Unilever New Zealand, said
the four-day week experiment represented a fundamental shift in how the company
views its work force.

 

‘Our goal is to measure performance on output, not time,’ he said in
a statement. ‘We believe the old ways of working are outdated and no longer fit
for purpose.’

 

The goal, he said in an email, is to get the same amount of work done
in fewer hours for the same pay. ‘If we find that we’re all working the same
number of hours as before but in four days, then we’ve missed the opportunity
this trial presents us with,’ he said.

 

Essentially, Unilever is testing what the British historian and
writer C. Northcote Parkinson theorised was the nature
of man and time. ‘Work expands so as to fill the time available for its
completion,’ he wrote in 1955.

 

The concept has been widely disseminated – it was in the first
sentence of Mr. Parkinson’s
New York Times obituary – and has filtered its way into popular thinking. Michael
Scott, the bumbling manager of a regional midsize paper distributor in NBC’s
‘The Office,’ demonstrated a working knowledge of the idea in a conversation
with his supervisor, Jan Levinson, after she caught him watching television with
his staff during work hours.

 

Jan: How would a movie increase
productivity, Michael? How on earth would it do that?

Michael: People work faster after.

Jan: Magically?

Michael: No, they have to make up for the time they lost watching the
movie.

 

Nick Bangs, luckily, is relying on more than just Michael Scott
witticisms. Experts at the University of Technology
Sydney Business School are consulting with the company, as is Andrew Barnes,
founder of Perpetual Guardian, a New Zealand firm that shifted to a shortened
workweek in 2018.

 

‘A contract should be about an agreed level of productivity,’ Barnes
said at the time. ‘If you deliver that in less time, why should I cut your
pay?’

 

The move to a four-day workweek has been kicked around for decades,
well before Richard M. Nixon, as Vice-President in 1956, predicted it would come
to pass in the ‘not too distant future.’

Still, it has remained elusive. Though technology has made employees
more productive (thanks, email!), it has not led to employees working fewer
hours (thanks again, email!).

 

In a work-centric culture, people simply are not wired to unplug from
the office, particularly in industries like finance, medicine and consulting,
according to Paolo Gaudiano, an adjunct associate
professor at New York University’s Stern School of Business.

 

Source:
www.nytimes.com – 3rd December, 2020

 

14. World’s ‘Most
Exceptional’ teacher wins Rs. 7 crore prize, splits it among nominees

 

Over a decade ago, in 2009, Ranjitsinh
Disale walked into the Zilla
Parishad school in the remote
Paritewadi village of Solapur; it was a rundown building that had a cattle-shed on
one side and a storeroom on the other. The students, mainly from the tribal
community, accommodated themselves in the middle room; just 2% of them were
girls.

 

But today the school is known to the world, thanks to the efforts of
Ranjitsinh who transformed its educational system
through technology.

 

For his extraordinary work to empower girls and promote education,
Ranjitsinh is now the world’s ‘Most Exceptional
Teacher’ after being conferred with the Global Teacher Prize 2020. The prize
money awarded is $1 million, equivalent to Rs. 7 crores in India.

 

Instituted by the Varkey Foundation, the
award attracted 12,000 nominations from across the world out of which ten were
shortlisted in 2019. Ranjitsinh was one of
them.

 

‘I will distribute half the amount (of the prize money) to the other
nine contestants for their exceptional work,’ Ranjitsinh told the host, Stephen Fry, in an interview
during the live telecast of the event.

 

Explaining the reason for this, Ranjitsinh
says he may have won the award but he cannot change the world by himself. All
the runners-up should get equal opportunity to continue their exceptional work,
he said.

 

With the remaining amount, he told Maharashtra Times, he would dedicate 30% of the amount to conceiving a Teacher
Innovation Fund across India. ‘Twenty per cent of the prize money will be spent
to bring 5,000 students together from war-afflicted zones of the world to form
the Peace Army,’ the 32-year-old teacher said.

 

Speaking to The Times of India, the teacher who oversees 110 students, worked hard to convince
girls and their parents to educate them. Thanks to his efforts, there are no
teenage marriages in the village and it sees 100% attendance rates today. The
school also got the ‘Best School Award’ from the Maharashtra State
Government.

 

Ranjitsinh was also in the limelight in 2016 when he started a QR code system
in school textbooks that was replicated across the State and the country. He had
introduced the technology to make education interactive and accessible to
students in the digital format. ‘I once saw a person scan the QR code from the
scanning device and realised that the same principle could get replicated for
transferring textbook information to digital mediums,’ he explained.

 

However, it was not just the technology that needed work. As the
majority of the students understood only Kannada, he had to learn the language
and translate the syllabus from Class I to IV and share his knowledge with the
help of the technology. Recently, one of the tribal girl students graduated from
university.

 

The technology helped students access video
lectures, audio poems and assignments. In 2017, the State Government announced
that it would have QR-coded textbooks for all classes. The following year, the
Central Government announced a plan to replicate the model.

 

His latest international recognition is not the first for this modest
teacher. In 2018, Ranjitsinh received the Microsoft
Innovative Educator Expert award. He was also recognised for his innovation by
the Government of India which conferred on him the National Innovation
Foundation’s ‘Innovator of the Year’ award.

 

Source: www.thebetterindia.com – 4th December,
2020

 

15. The British must
return the Bakhshali Manuscript with world’s oldest
zero to India

 

The world’s most important mathematical document is the Bakhshali Manuscript. Written on birch-bark in Sanskrit, it
is the world’s oldest extant document to use a zero symbol. It was written by a
Brahma?a identified as the
‘son of Chajaka’ and was found in the North-Western
region of British India in 1881.

Rudolf Hoernlé, a Christian missionary who
studied the Bakhshali Manuscript later stole India’s
most precious manuscript and gave it to Oxford University in 1902.

 

The most comprehensive research on this subject to date appears in a
book by Takao Hayashi titled
‘The Bakhshali Manuscript: An Ancient
Indian Mathematical Treatise.’

 

Such a precious document does not belong to descendants of the
British Raj. This document belongs in India – not in the hands of its former
British masters.

 

Background information

Having initially studied economics at the University of Melbourne,
Jonathan J. Crabtree is an autodidact, studying the history of mathematics since
1983.

 

In 1968, at age seven Jonathan noticed a 398-year-old problem with
his teacher’s explanation of mathematics. India’s zero was missing from
England’s 1570 definition of multiplication.

 

Having been perplexed by this and other maths education errors during
his school years, at the age of 21 he found himself in a hospital facing bleak
news. If he moved, he might never walk again. With both his dreams and his spine
shattered, he prayed for a miracle and promised to fix maths if he ever walked
again.

 

Today, elementary maths historian and www.podometic.in founder
Jonathan J. Crabtree is a guest lecturer at schools, universities and
mathematics conferences. Having reviewed writings in Latin, Greek, Arabic,
Sanskrit and other languages, his provocative presentations reveal how the
foundations of ancient Bharatiya (Indian) mathematics
are vastly superior to many western ideas taught today.

 

Source: www.kreately.in – 9th December,
2020

 

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ETHICS AND U

Shrikrishna:
Paarth, are you having a headache?

 

Arjun:
Lord, in our practice there is nothing but headache.

 

Shrikrishna:
So what’s new that has happened? Tax deadline? No Extension?

 

Arjun:
That is a routine headache, an annual feature. But other ethical headaches are
increasing.

 

Shrikrishna:‘Ethical’
headaches?

 

Arjun:
Yes. Relating to our Code of Ethics. Whatever you do, there is some
contravention or other. I wonder how we can continue in the profession.

 

Shrikrishna:
Tell me, what’s the problem.

 

Arjun:
See,
Bhagwan, we need to cater to a large
number of clients who are not very organised in terms of accounting and
record-keeping.

 

Shrikrishna:
Even in large corporates there is a mess in accounts. But in a ‘posh’
environment it gets concealed.

 

Arjun:
True. But these small people – SMEs, societies, trusts. Such clients do not
have regular accountants. They are not willing to appoint anyone and also
cannot afford them.

 

Shrikrishna:
Yes, I’m aware. But that is their problem. Why are you bothered?

 

Arjun:
Bhagwan, we need to certify their
accounts and sign the audit.

 

Shrikrishna:
Tell them that unless your accounts are proper, we cannot do the audit. Do they
at least pay your fees?

 

Arjun:
Don’t ask me! Fees they pay next year. But it is also our social work.

 

Shrikrishna:
What exactly is the difficulty?

Arjun:
The clients expect us to suggest some person to do up their
accounts.

 

Shrikrishna:
It is a patch-work. Not a long-term solution.

 

Arjun:
Right. This problem arises every year at the time of audit. We are helpless. So
we ask someone from our circle to write the accounts, or make up the
differences.

 

Shrikrishna:
What do you mean by ‘someone from our circle’?

 

Arjun:
It may be our employees or ex-employees, or someone does the accounts of our
other clients.

 

Shrikrishna:
I know. There are many such persons who write accounts and simply
take your signature on the audit.

 

Arjun:
Yes. That’s very common.

 

Shrikrishna: And you sign the accounts blindly. In good faith.

 

Arjun:
Yes, Bhagwan, you know
all our trade secrets! That signing gives us even more headaches. But I am
talking about something else here.

 

Shrikrishna:
And what is that?

 

Arjun:
When it comes to billing, our CA members raise a common invoice of audit and
accounting.

 

Shrikrishna:
Oh! That’s dangerous. You cannot render accounting services to
your audit client.

 

Arjun:
Yes. Our members also take it casually. And what they do is that after
recovering the amount from the client, they don’t pay separate cheques to the
accounts person. That makes things even worse.

 

Shrikrishna:
Oh! And many may be saying that they paid in cash?

 

Arjun:
You said it! That is the problem.

 

Shrikrishna:
It is all the more dangerous if that person is your own employee,
part-time or full-time, whatever.

 

Arjun:
And in any case, billing should not be common. So your social
service invites trouble for you.

 

Shrikrishna:
So, what is the lesson you learn?

Insist
on the clients to get organised.

Insist
on their appointing their own man for accounts.

Do
not raise a common invoice even by mistake.

For
any reason, if his payment is routed through you, make proper documentation and cheque entries.

Insist
on that person raising a separate bill.

 

Arjun:
There is one more difficulty. Section 34 of the Maharashtra Public Trusts Act
is very strange. It says the final accounts shall be prepared and submitted to
the Charity Commissioner by the auditor!

 

Shrikrishna:
Oh! There is a special reason for this. You should know the
history behind it. When these laws were framed the lawmakers believed that the
managing bodies of trusts and societies would consist of social workers. They
would not afford trained and qualified staff and the services of a
professional. So it was thought that an auditor would act as a friend,
philosopher and guide. But the times have changed.

 

Arjun:
True. Now, the regulators should review the whole situation. The leniency shown
earlier to trusts and societies should no longer continue.

 

Shrikrishna: Whatever
it may be, but as a professional it is your duty to take care. Don’t act in a
loose manner.

 

Arjun:
Yes,
Bhagwan!

 

Om
Shanti!

           

(This
dialogue is based on conflict of interest-maker checker principle, Council
guideline. Contravention of any guideline is misconduct under Item No. 1 Part
II of second schedule to the CA Act.)

 

 

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

 

1. Deduction of
tax at source from salaries
u/s 192 during the financial year 2020-21. [Circular
No. 20/2020 dated 3rd December, 2020.]

 

2.
Clarifications on provisions of the Direct Tax
Vivad Se
Vishwas
Act, 2020. [Circular No. 21/2020 dated 4th
December, 2020.]

 

COMPANY LAW

 

I. COMPANIES
ACT, 2013

 

(I) Designation
of Special Court for the States of Maharashtra, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu in
connection with trials under Companies Act, 2013 in respect of cases filed by
SEBI.
The Central Government has notified the special
courts, as mentioned in the Notification, for the states of Maharashtra,
West Bengal and Tamil Nadu
to ensure speedy disposal of trials of offences
punishable under the Companies Act, 2013 in respect of cases filed by SEBI. [MCA
Notification S.O. 4283(E) dated 27th November, 2020.]

 

(II) MCA
further extends due date for filing cost audit report.
MCA has extended the last date for filing Form CRA-4 (Cost Audit
Report) and relaxed additional fees in view of the large-scale disruption
caused by the Covid-19 pandemic. It has further allowed cost auditors to submit
their report for the F.Y. 2019-20 to the Board of Directors of Companies by 31st
December, 2020 (earlier, 30th November). Companies are required to
file Form CRA-4 within 30 days from receipt of a copy of the Cost Audit Report.
[MCA General Circular 38/2020 dated 1st December, 2020.]

 

(III) MCA
amends provisions with respect to online assessment exams to be cleared by
Independent Directors under the Companies Act, 2013.
Through this Amendment, MCA has notified that Independent Directors
(IDs)
shall pass an online proficiency self-assessment test conducted by
the Institute, obtaining a minimum of 50% (as against 60%) in aggregate, within
a period of two years (as against one year) from the date of inclusion of their
name in the data bank. MCA has further clarified that IDs are not required to
take the online proficiency self-assessment test when they have served for a
total period of not less than three years (as against ten years) in the
prescribed list of entities as on the date of inclusion of their name in the
data bank. [Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Fifth
Amendment Rules, 2020 dated 18th December, 2020.]

 

II. SEBI

 

(IV) SEBI
further extends timeline for conducting internal audit and system audit.
In view of the prevailing situation due to the pandemic, SEBI has
decided to extend the timelines for compliances by the trading members / clearing
members
related to system audit and internal audit, the due date of which
has been extended to 31st December, 2020. As regards
half-yearly net worth certificate, Cyber Security and Cyber Resilience Audit,
the due date has been extended to 31st December, 2020 and 31st
January, 2021
, respectively. [SEBI/HO/MIRSD/DOP/CIR/P/2020/235 dated 1st
December, 2020.]

 

(V) SEBI issues
operational guidelines for transfer and dematerialisation of re-lodged physical
shares.
In continuation of its Circular dated 7th
September, 2020 fixing 31st March, 2021 as the cut-off date for
re-lodgement of transfer requests and stipulating that such transferred shares
shall be issued only in demat mode, SEBI has now issued the operational
guidelines in this regard to be followed by the Registrar and Transfer Agents
(RTAs) and Investors and Depository Participants (DPs). As per this guideline,
RTAs, upon receiving the transfer re-lodgement request, are required to issue a
Letter of Confirmation (LoC) to the investor (the transferee) who has to submit
the same along with the Demat Request to the DP within 90 days of receipt of
the LoC. The format of the LoC is annexed to the Circular.
[SEBI/HO/MIRSD/RTAMB/CIR/P/2020/236 dated 2nd December, 2020.]

 

(VI) SEBI
issues Circular to increase participation of non-institutional shareholders in
e-voting facility provided by listed entities.
In order to
facilitate seamless authentication and to enhance ease and convenience of
participating in the e-voting process, SEBI has come out with the broad
initiatives to be implemented in two phases; the first phase is to be completed
by 9th June, 2021 and second phase to be completed
within 12 months of the completion of phase 1. With this, SEBI ultimately
intends to eliminate the key challenge of registration on various E-voting
Service Providers and maintenance of multiple user IDs and passwords by the
shareholders and eventually increase the participation. [SEBI/HO/CFD/CMD/CIR/P/2020/242
dated 9th December, 2020.]

 

ACCOUNTS AND AUDIT

 

(A) CARO 2020 now
made applicable from F.Y. 2021-22
– The MCA has extended the
applicability date of the Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2020 for one
more year, i.e., for the financial years commencing on or after 1st
April, 2021. [MCA order dated 17th December, 2020.]

 

FEMA

 

1.)
Notification amending Regulation on Export and Import of Currency has
been issued whereby a new Regulation 10 has been introduced giving power
to the Reserve Bank to restrict export or import of currency. The
Reserve Bank may now, in public interest and in consultation with the Central
Government, restrict the amount of Indian currency notes of Government
of India and / or of Reserve Bank, and / or foreign currency, on
case-to-case basis that a person may bring into or take outside India and
prescribe such conditions as it may deem necessary. This is in furtherance of
earlier Notification No. FEMA 6(R)/(2)/2020-RB, dated 11th August,
2020 whereby the provision regarding RBI’s power to allow, on specific
application, import or export of Indian currency in Regulation 3 was replaced
with a new Regulation 9. [Notification No. FEMA 6(R)/(3)/2020-RB, dated 3rd
December, 2020.]

 

2.) The
Government had announced a hike in the limit of FDI in the defence sector from
49% to 74% in May, 2020. The DPIIT had issued Press Note 4 dated 17th September,
2020 detailing the changes and bringing in some conditions. These changes could
become effective only when necessary amendments are made in the FEMA(NDI)
Rules. A Notification amending the NDI Rules to bring in the changes for FDI
in the Defence Sector has now been issued
. The amendments made are in line
with the changes issued vide Press Note 4 earlier. Please refer to BCAJ,
October, 2020
detailing the changes brought in. [Notification No. S.O.
4441 (E) (F. No. 01/05/EM/2019), dated 8th December, 2020.]

 

3.) RBI has
issued an important Circular easing several Procedures for Export of Goods and
Services by delegating more powers to AD Banks:

 

a) Direct
dispatch of shipping documents

AD Banks were
allowed to regularise cases of dispatch of shipping documents by the exporter
directly to the consignee or his agent resident in the country of the final
destination of goods up to USD 1 million or its equivalent per export shipment.
It has now been decided to do away with this limit of USD 1 million subject to
the following conditions:

i) The export
proceeds have been realised in full except for the amount written off, if any,
in line with the provisions for write-off;

ii) The
exporter is a regular customer of AD bank for a period of at least six months;

iii) The
exporter’s account with the AD Bank is fully compliant with RBI’s KYC / AML
guidelines;

iv) The AD bank
is satisfied about the bona fides of the transaction.

 

b) ‘Write-off’
of unrealised export bills

RBI allowed,
through the AD Banks, exporters to ‘write-off’ unrealised export bills up to
specified limits in enumerated circumstances if all prescribed conditions were
met. To provide greater flexibility to the AD Banks and to reduce the time
taken for according such approvals, the procedure is now revised as under:

 

The AD bank
may, on request of the exporter, write off unrealised export bills without
any limit
in respect of cases falling under categories specified below:

(i) The
overseas buyer has been declared insolvent and a certificate from the official
liquidator, indicating that there is no possibility of recovery of export
proceeds, has been produced;

(ii) The
unrealised amount represents the balance due in a case settled through the
intervention of the Indian Embassy, Foreign Chamber of Commerce or similar
organisation;

(iii) The goods
exported have been auctioned or destroyed by the port / customs / health authorities
in the importing country.

 

The ‘write-off’ is allowed provided the AD Bank is satisfied with the
documentary evidence produced. Further, in
cases falling under the above categories, AD Bank may also permit
write-off of outstanding amount of export bills up to the specified ceilings
where the documents have been directly dispatched by the exporter to the
consignee or his agent resident in the country of final destination of goods.

 

In all other cases, the erstwhile limits and conditions continue as
currently prevalent. Certain corrections in the terms and forms have also been
made in the provisions.

 

c) Set-off of export receivables against import payables

There has been a long-standing demand of
importers and exporters to allow set-off of their outstanding export
receivables against outstanding import payables with their overseas group /
associate companies. At present, AD Banks are allowing exporters and importers
to set off only from / to the same overseas buyer / supplier. Accordingly, it
has been decided to delegate powers to AD Banks to also consider such requests
of set-off and a host of revised guidelines / conditions have been issued. The
chief ones among these are those requiring that the arrangement is backed by a
written, legally enforceable agreement / contract in case of set-off among
group / associate companies; not allowing set-off of export receivables for
goods against import payables for services and vice versa; allowing set
off only between the export and import legs taking place during the same
calendar year; and so on.

 

d) Refund of export proceeds

AD banks, through whom the export proceeds were originally realised,
were allowed to consider requests for refund of export proceeds of goods
exported from India and being re-imported into India on account of poor
quality. However, as per current provisions, the exporter had to provide an
undertaking that such goods will be re-imported within three months from the
date of remittance. The instructions have been reviewed and henceforth AD
Banks, while permitting refund of export proceeds of goods exported from India,
shall not insist on the requirement of re-import of goods, where
exported goods have been auctioned or destroyed by the port or customs or
health authorities or any other accredited agency in the importing country,
subject to submission of satisfactory documentary evidence. In all other cases
AD banks shall ensure that the procedures as applicable to normal imports are
adhered to and that an undertaking from the exporter to re-import the goods
within three months from the date of refund of export proceeds shall be
obtained. [A.P. (DIR Series 2020-21) Circular No. 8, dated 4th December,
2020.]

 

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

5. Hindustan Oil Ltd. vs. Erstwhile Committee of Creditors of JEKPL Pvt.
Ltd.
Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 969 of
2020
Date of order: 17th November, 2020

 

Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – Implementation of a Resolution
Plan which was approved by Committee of Creditors could not be challenged by
the unsuccessful applicants

 

FACTS

H Co is an unsuccessful resolution applicant
whose Resolution Plan was rejected by the Committee of Creditors (‘CoC’). NCLT,
vide an order dated 9th September, 2020, directed
implementation of the approved Resolution Plan on or before the extended due
date, 30th September, 2020.

 

H Co urged that the Creditors of the Corporate Debtor, in connivance
with the Successful Resolution Applicant, accepted a re-negotiated fresh
Resolution Plan and the application of the CoC u/s 60(5) of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (‘Code’) filed before the NCLT was not maintainable and
should not have been entertained by the NCLT as the CoC had become functus
officio
after approval of the Resolution Plan.

 

It was further argued that NCLT had approved the Resolution Plan on 4th
February, 2020 and in terms of the approved Resolution Plan the successful
resolution applicant had to bring in Rs. 123 crores for resolution within 30
days of approval of the plan which expired on 5th March, 2020.
However, the successful resolution applicant did not implement the Resolution Plan
and the erstwhile CoC of the Corporate Debtor, in connivance with the
successful resolution applicant, accepted a fresh Resolution Plan to the
detriment of the legal rights of H Co whose Resolution Plan was rejected on the
ground that he could not provide for a lump sum time-bound payment within 30
days of the approval of its Resolution Plan.

 

HELD

NCLAT heard the appeal filed by H Co and observed that it had no locus
to question the implementation of the approved Resolution Plan of the
successful resolution applicant. Directions given in the context of the
application filed u/s 60(5) of the Code to the successful resolution applicant
follows as a necessary corollary to the dismissal of appeal filed against
approval of the Resolution Plan of the successful resolution applicant to
implement the approved Resolution Plan on or before the extended date of 30th
September, 2020.

 

It was observed that once H Co was out of the fray, it had neither locus
to call in question any action of any of the stakeholders qua
implementation of the approved Resolution Plan, nor could it claim any
prejudice on the pretext that any of the actions post approval of the
Resolution Plan of the successful resolution applicant in regard to its
implementation had affected its prospects of being a successful resolution
applicant.

 

H Co would not have any right to object if the terms of the approved
Resolution Plan of the successful resolution applicant have been varied or the
time extended to facilitate its implementation and the creditors have not
claimed any prejudice on that count. In fact, the CoC comprising of the
creditors as stakeholders did not object to the same. It was rather privy to it
on account of hardship due to the prevailing circumstances.

 

It was further observed that this was not a case of alleged material
irregularity in the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process which is in the
final stages with the approved Resolution Plan being under implementation. The
outbreak of the Covid-19 pandemic slowed down the economic activity and
operations were adversely impacted. NCLAT held that in the given context some
necessary changes in the agreed terms and extension of time for implementation
would not be uncalled for.

 

NCLAT thus held that H Co had no locus to maintain that the
change in terms of the approved Resolution Plan in regard to extension of time
for induction of upfront amount as also implementation of the Resolution Plan
has jeopardised its legal rights qua consideration of its Resolution
Plan.

 

The appeal of H Co was accordingly dismissed.

 

6. Ratna Singh vs. Theme Export Pvt. Ltd.Company Appeal (AT) (Insolvency) No. 917 of
2020
Date of order: 18th November, 2020

 

Section 61 of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 – Appeal against a
liquidation order passed u/s 33 could only be made if there was a material
irregularity or fraud in relation to such an order – IBC is not meant for
initiating proceedings for prevention of oppression and mismanagement – It has
been armed with Chapters II and III for initiation of action against
wrongdoers, illegal transactions, etc.

 

FACTS

Mrs. R and Mr.
B (‘appellants’) were directors in T Co (‘Corporate Debtor’). Corporate
Insolvency Resolution Process was initiated against the Corporate Debtor by an
operation creditor Mr. R u/s 9 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
(‘the Code’). The National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’) admitted the
application and appointed Mr. V as Insolvency Resolution Professional (‘IRP’).
The first meeting of the Committee of Creditors (‘CoC’) was held on 28th
September, 2019 and the second on 4th November, 2019 confirming IRP
as Resolution Professional (‘RP’) and also deciding to liquidate the Corporate
Debtor.

 

NCLT passed the
liquidation order primarily on the basis of the recommendation of the CoC which
had the strength of 98.5% voting shares. While passing the liquidation order,
NCLT took a conscious decision not to challenge the commercial wisdom of the
Financial Creditor.

 

Aggrieved by
the order, both ex-directors filed the present appeal for staying the
liquidation proceedings and quashing the impugned liquidation order. The
appellants submitted that Ms N, a director of the Corporate Debtor, siphoned
off money, evidence of some of which was submitted before the NCLAT.

 

It was further
submitted that the Corporate Debtor has availed financial credit facility from
Bank of Baroda to the tune of Rs. 25 crores, mortgaging its plant, machinery
and assets, including accessories, stock and fabric as primary security and the
factory at Okhla along with personal / corporate guarantees of the three
directors and the same was being renewed by the bank since 2005. The
performance of the Corporate Debtor started deteriorating from F.Y. 2015-16 –
from approximately Rs. 100 crores to about Rs. 30 crores in 2018-19 on account
of various frauds, leading to oppression and mismanagement by Mrs. N, director
of the Corporate Debtor, along with certain other related parties and employees.
Mr. Ravinder Rai, ex-accountant of the Corporate Debtor, even provided to the
IRP all the data of the illegal acts committed by Mrs. N on 18th
November 2019 prior to filing of liquidation proceedings by the IRP.

 

The appellants
had also written to Mrs. N demanding explanation for the theft and criminal
breach of trust amounting to oppression and mismanagement, apart from visiting
Bank of Baroda and informing the Chief Manager, Mr. Lalit Kumar Luthra, about
theft, etc., and demanded the stock statements and the fixed assets register
along with the list of machinery pledged to the Bank on 31st December,
2018.

 

The respondents
have not filed their counter objections. As per the written submission and also
the oral submission made by the respondent’s counsel, section 61(4) of the
I&B Code, 2016 clearly stated that an appeal against the liquidation order
could be challenged only on the ground of material irregularities or fraud
committed in relation to such liquidation order. It was also submitted that the
appellants did not challenge the liquidation order per se but their
grievance was against the act of oppression and mismanagement by the other
director of the Corporate Debtor.

 

It was further
submitted that the appellants failed to initiate the filing of a petition u/s
241-242 of the Companies Act, 2013 which deals with oppression and
mismanagement at the appropriate stage. Hence they cannot challenge the issue
of oppression and mismanagement u/s 61(4) of the Code and so the application
needs to be dismissed. The Liquidator further submitted that the documents are
being reviewed by the Forensic Auditor, M/s K.R.A. and Company, Chartered
Accountants, for certain transactions under sections 43, 45 and 66 of the Code
and an appropriate application shall be filed by the Liquidator based on its
findings. Further, the Liquidator argued that there were no chances of revival
of the Corporate Debtor and hence the CoC had passed a resolution liquidating
the Corporate Debtor. Thus, this application needs to be dismissed.

 

HELD

The NCLAT heard
the parties at length. It was observed that the Corporate Debtor had three
directors – the two appellants were directors and the other director was Ms N;
the shareholding of Ms N in the Corporate Debtor was 92% and of the appellants
8%.

NCLAT observed
that Chapter III of Part II of IBC, 2016 has a mechanism even during
liquidation process to initiate action for various wrongdoings from sections 43
to 51 and section 66, which are all related to undervalued transactions, avoidable
transactions, defrauding creditor, fraudulent trading or wrongful trading, etc.
It was observed that the Liquidator, who is also erstwhile IRP, was required to
take necessary action and the Bank of Baroda is to provide appropriate
assistance. Bank of Baroda was supposed to check the flow of inventory,
cash–to-cash cycle, etc., as they had lent Rs. 25 crores.

 

The NCLAT relied on judgments which had held that the commercial wisdom
of the CoC cannot be looked into by either the NCLT or the Appellate Authority.
It relied on section 61 of the Code and observed that an appeal against a
liquidation order passed u/s 33 may be filed on the grounds of material
irregularity or fraud committed in relation to the liquidation order. NCLAT did
not find any irregularity or fraud committed in relation to the impugned order.
It was observed that the Code is not meant for initiating proceedings for
prevention of oppression and mismanagement but is armed with provisions under
Part II Chapter – III for initiation of action against wrongdoers / illegal
transactions, etc. NCLAT upheld the order by passed by the NCLT and the appeal
was dismissed.

 

7. Jaideep Halwasiya vs. AA
Infraproperties (P.) Ltd.
[2020] 121 taxmann.com 240 (NCLAT) Date of order: 4th September, 2020

 

At the Annual
General Meeting (AGM) and Extra Ordinary General Meeting (EOGM), new directors
were appointed and existing director ‘J’ was removed from directorship – In
view of the fact that neither any resolution nor any minutes of board meetings
were in existence, nor any notice of agenda was circulated in the prescribed
manner, the appointment of new directors and removal of ‘J’ as director was to
be stayed

 

FACTS

This appeal was
filed by ‘J’, a minority shareholder of ‘AA’ against the order dated 21st
February, 2020 passed by the National Company Law Tribunal, Kolkata Bench (‘the
Tribunal’) declining grant of interim relief requested by J. The Tribunal had
declined to record findings on the factual controversy as regards serving of
notices of AGM dated 24th September, 2019 and EOGM dated 4th
January, 2020. The Tribunal further observed that allowing interim relief as
claimed in the Company Petition would tantamount to deciding the main petition.

 

Admittedly,
there are two groups of shareholders in the company. The minority shareholders’
group comprises of J holding 12.5% shares, whereas the majority group holds
87.5% shares. Several allegations of oppression and mismanagement as regards
management and operations of the company were levelled by J which included not
being served notice of AGM dated 24th September, 2019 and notice of
EOGM dated 4th January, 2020 which was pending. It was during the
pendency of this petition that J sought interim relief alleging that the
respondents in collusion and connivance with each other illegally appointed new
directors in the AGM on 24th September, 2019 and ousted J from
directorship in the EOGM on 4th January, 2020. All these acts of
commission attributed to the respondents were alleged to have been done without
giving notice to J. Interim relief was sought on the strength of these
allegations claiming that the resolutions passed in such meetings were bad in
law and void ab initio. J further alleged that the acts of the
respondents, being oppressive in nature, are prejudicial to his interest in the
company.

 

The respondents
have refuted the allegations and pleaded that notice of the meetings in which
the resolutions inducting new directors in the company and removing J from the
post of director were passed, were given well in advance to J. It was further
pleaded that the majority shareholders were within their rights to pass such
resolutions appointing other persons as directors and removing the existing
directors, including J.

 

It was further
submitted that the respondents were illegally trying to usurp control over the
company by forcing the ouster of J from the Board and appointing new directors.
It was submitted that the Respondents adopted a modus operandi creating
an impression that new directors were appointed at the meeting held on 24th
September, 2019 and subsequent to this alleged AGM, an EOGM was held on 4th
January, 2020 wherein J was removed. It was pointed out that there was no
resolution nor any minutes of the alleged Board Meeting dated 22nd June,
2019 to show that the two directors of the company had decided to hold the AGM
on 24th September, 2019. No minutes as required u/s 118 of the Act
had been produced by the company to support its plea. It was further submitted
that as regards the alleged agenda and notice dated 6th June, 2019,
no notice or agenda was ever circulated. The documents relied upon by the
respondents in this regard were fabricated as they did not bear the necessary
signatures and were not on the letterhead of the company. The notice of AGM was
never served on J or any other shareholder. Even service was not effected
through the prevalent mode of service. The annual returns were filed without
holding an AGM and on the date of the alleged meeting one of the shareholders
(a director) was not even in India.

 

It was
submitted that since J did not attend any meeting purportedly held on 24th
September, 2019 the minimum required quorum for the General Meeting as
per section 103(1)(b) of the Act was not present. Such a meeting would therefore
have no meaning and cannot be said to exist in law. Thus, it was contended that
the AGM of 24th September, 2019 is non est and the
resolutions passed on that date deserved to be stayed. Further, the purported
resolution of 4th January, 2020 for removal of J as Director was
entirely illegal and void ab initio. There was no evidence to show that
notice of the Board Meeting to be convened on 26th November, 2019
was served on J. The genuineness of the alleged notice for the EOGM of 12th
December, 2019 was disputed. The variation in addresses was also
highlighted. Thus, the very foundation of removal of J from the Board was
nothing but fraudulent and was sought to be supported by fabricated documents.

 

HELD

The Appellate
Tribunal observed / noted as under:

 

J is admittedly a minority shareholder whilst the respondents and
associates are the majority shareholders. With allegations of the respondents
making all efforts to usurp control over the company through all means, fair or
foul, emanating from J, it is demonstrated by J that no resolution or any
minutes of the Board Meeting of 22nd June, 2019, stated to be the
edifice of the alleged AGM, was in existence to even suggest that the two
directors decided to hold the AGM on 24th September, 2019. It was
contended on behalf of J that adherence to the statutory requirement u/s 118 of
the Companies Act has not been established by respondents which justifies
drawing of an inference that neither any such Board Meeting was conducted nor
any minutes of such Board Meeting recorded. It was also pointed out that no
notice or agenda was circulated in the prescribed manner and bearing the
signatures of J. As regards the notice said to have been issued on 5th
August, 2019, similar contentions have been raised, it being further pointed
out that the prevalent modes of service have not been resorted to.

It has been
pointed out that although Form No. MGT 7 was filed even without holding the
AGM, the Annual Report falsely declared that the AGM had been attended by both
J as well as the directors. It has been pointed out that J never attended any
such meeting and one of the other directors was not in India on that date. It
was also pointed out that after the respondents realised that the fraud played
by them in this regard had been discovered, one of the respondents cooked up
another false story by setting up the plea that someone had attended the
meeting on his behalf and a clerical error had been made in the Annual Report.
No authorisation in this regard has been produced by the respondents to
demonstrate that someone else had attended as a representative in the alleged
AGM. It was submitted on behalf of J that since J did not attend any purported
meeting on 24th September, 2019 the minimum required quorum
of the General Meeting not being present, any resolutions said to have been
passed on such date were  required to be
stayed. On the strength of these relevant facts, it was contended on behalf of
J that the ouster of J as director was entirely illegal.

 

Since the foundation
was bad, it was contended that the entire superstructure was bound to collapse.
J has demonstrated all these circumstances to show that he has raised a fair
question which requires a probe in the Company Petition. The arguments raised
on this score cannot be dismissed off hand. Given the status of J, it can be
safely stated that with the existence of a prima facie case in his
favour, the balance of convenience lies to the side of J who is faced with the
prospect of his interests and legal rights being seriously jeopardised in the
wake of the Tribunal order.

 

For the
foregoing reasons, the Appellate Tribunal opined that the order of the Tribunal
suffered from grave legal infirmity besides factual frailty. Therefore, it cannot
be supported. The appeal was allowed and the order of the Tribunal was set
aside. The appointment of new directors and removal of J as director of the
company was stayed till the decision on the Company Petition.

 

8. Jaishree Dealcomm (P) Ltd. vs. Registrar of Companies [2020] 119 taxmann.com 418 (NCLAT) Date of order: 29th November, 2019

 

Section 252
read with sections 164 and 248 of the Companies Act, 2013 – Name of the company
was struck off from the register of companies – Directors filed an application
for restoration of name which was dismissed on the ground that they being
disqualified could not maintain an appeal – But from share certificates and
annual returns of the company it was found that said directors were also
shareholders and thereby entitled to file an appeal as per section 252(3) –
Further, the company had not filed annual returns since F.Y. 2013-14 onwards
though it was regularly carrying on its business as evidenced by auditors’
reports and financial statements for years ended 31st March, 2014 to
31st March, 2017 – It was held that the order striking off the name
of the company from the register of companies was prejudicial to the
shareholders and was to be set aside and the name restored

 

FACTS

J Pvt. Ltd. is
a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956 and having its registered
office in Kolkata. It was served notice u/s 248(1)(c) of the Companies Act,
2013. Thereafter, a public notice was issued and the company’s name struck off
from the register of companies.

 

This order was
challenged before the NCLT, Kolkata. However, NCLT dismissed the appeal on the
ground of maintainability that u/s 252(3) of the Companies Act, 2013 a company
or any member or creditor or workman can file application for restoration of
the name of the company. NCLT had, while dismissing the appeal, also observed
that as per section 164(2)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013, directors being
disqualified cannot maintain the appeal. Being aggrieved, the directors
preferred the present appeal.

 

It was submitted
that the directors who had preferred this appeal were also shareholders of the
company. Further, J was regularly carrying on business as stated in the main
object clause of the Memorandum of Association of the company and was regularly
filing income-tax returns with the Income-tax Department. However, J had
inadvertently failed to file its audited financial statements and annual
returns from financial year 2013-14 onwards which were annexed with the Memo of
Appeal. It was apparent from the audited balance sheets that J had been
carrying on business.

 

The ROC, West
Bengal, submitted that J had been grossly negligent in not filing the annual
returns and financial statements since F.Y. 2013-14, thus the order of the NCLT
/ ROC be upheld.

 

HELD

The Appellate
Tribunal observed / noted as under:

 

The Memo of
Appeal was filed by shareholders of the company and it was considered on merit.
Clearly, the company had not filed annual returns since F.Y. 2013-2014.
However, it was regularly carrying on its business and filed the reports of the
auditors and financial statements for the years ended 31st March,
2014 to 31st March, 2017. The audited financials were perused and it
was apparent that J has been carrying on its business continuously. Therefore,
the order of striking off the name of the company from the register of
companies is prejudicial to the shareholders of the company. The order is
liable to be set aside and is hereby set aside.

 

It was further ordered that within 30 days of restoration of the company’s
name in the register maintained by the Registrar of Companies, the company will
file all its annual returns and balance sheets due for the period ending 31st
March, 2014 to date. The company will also pay requisite charges / fee as well
as late fee / charges as applicable.

 

In spite of the
present orders, the ROC will be free to take any other steps, punitive or
otherwise, under the Companies Act, 2013 for non-filing / late filing of
statutory returns / documents against the company and directors.

 

 

 

The best daily investments of time:

1 hour writing

1 hour reading

1 hour of exercise

1 hour of investing / trading research

1 hour of fun

1 hour of research

1 hour maximum television

1 hour personal social media max

8 hours to make a living

8 hours of sleep

 

Steve Burns

 

ALLIED LAWS

15. Arnab Manoranjan
Goswami vs. The State of Maharashtra & Ors. Cr.
Appeal No. 742 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 27th November, 2020
Bench: Dr. Dhananjay Y. Chandrachud J., Indira Banerjee J.

 

Human liberty – Role of Courts – Misuse of the criminal law is a matter
to which the High Court and the lower Courts in the country must be alive
[CrPC, 1973, S. 482, Constitution of India, Art. 226, 227]

 

FACTS

The appellant
is the Editor-in-Chief of an English television news channel, Republic TV who
was arrested on 4th November, 2020 in connection with FIR No. 59 of
2018 that was registered at Alibaug Police Station under sections 306 and 34 of
the IPC. It was registered on 5th May, 2018 on the complaint of the
spouse of the deceased informant who is alleged to have committed suicide. The
deceased had not received payment for the work which was carried out by him, as
a result of which he was under mental pressure and committed suicide by hanging
on 5th May, 2018; there is a suicide note holding the appellant and
others responsible.

 

HELD

Human liberty
is a precious constitutional value which is undoubtedly subject to regulation
by validly enacted legislation. As such, the citizen is subject to the edicts
of criminal law and procedure. Section 482 recognises the inherent power of the
High Court to make such orders as are necessary to give effect to the
provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure – or prevent abuse of the process
of any Court or otherwise to secure the ends of justice. The recognition by
Parliament of the inherent power of the High Courts must be construed as an aid
to preserve the constitutional value of liberty. The writ of liberty runs
through the fabric of the Constitution. The need to ensure the fair
investigation of crime is undoubtedly important in itself, because it protects
at one level the rights of the victim and, at a more fundamental level, the
societal interest in ensuring that crime is investigated and dealt with in
accordance with law. On the other hand, the misuse of the criminal law is a
matter to which the High Courts and the lower Courts in the country must be
alive.

 

In the present
case, the High Court could not but have been cognizant of the specific ground
which was raised before it by the appellant that he was being made a target as
part of a series of occurrences which had been taking place since April, 2020.
The specific case of the appellant is that he has been targeted because his
opinions on his television channel are unpalatable to authority.

 

In failing to make even a prima facie evaluation of the FIR, the
High Court abdicated its constitutional duty and function as a protector of liberty.
Courts must be alive to the need to safeguard the public interest in ensuring
that the due enforcement of criminal law is not obstructed. The fair
investigation of crime is an aid to it. Equally, it is the duty of Courts
across the spectrum – the district judiciary, the High Courts and the Supreme
Court – to ensure that the criminal law does not become a weapon for the
selective harassment of citizens. Courts should be alive to both ends of the
spectrum – the need to ensure the proper enforcement of criminal law on the one
hand and the need, on the other, of ensuring that the law does not become a
ruse for targeted harassment. Liberty across human eras is as tenuous as
tenuous can be. Liberty survives by the vigilance of her citizens, on the
cacophony of the media and in the dusty corridors of courts alive to the rule
of (and not by) law. Yet, much too often, liberty is a casualty when one of
these components is found wanting.

 

16. Noy Vallesina Engineering SpA vs. Jindal Drugs Limited & Ors. Civil Appeal
No. 8607 of 2010 (SC)
Date of order:
26th November, 2020
Bench: S.
Ravindra Bhatt J., Indira Banerjee J.

 

Arbitration – Foreign award – Setting aside – Not maintainable
[Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, S. 34]

 

FACTS

The appellant company (N.V. Engineering) was incorporated under Italian
law and was involved in the setting up and construction of plants for
production of synthetic fibres, polymers and ascorbic acid in India. The
respondent (Jindal Drugs) is a public limited company incorporated under the
Indian law. Disputes arose between the two in respect of an agreement between
them. The latter (N.V. Engineering) terminated the agreement and claimed
damages. Jindal Drugs filed a request for arbitration before the International
Court of Arbitration (ICC), Paris. But its claims were rejected by the Tribunal
via a partial award.

 

Jindal then filed a petition before the Bombay High Court u/s 34 of the
Act challenging the partial award which held that since the partial award was a
foreign award, a challenge through a petition was not maintainable u/s 34.
Jindal then preferred an appeal against this order before the Division Bench.
During the pendency of the appeal, N.V. Engineering applied for enforcement of
the two awards, i.e., the partial award and the final award under sections 47
and 48 of the Act, in the chapter relating to foreign awards. This petition was
allowed and Jindal’s objections against the two awards’ enforceability were
overruled. Jindal preferred an appeal and N.V. filed a cross-appeal

 

Pending these two appeals, the Division Bench decided Jindal’s first
appeal and held that proceedings u/s 34 could be validly maintained to
challenge a foreign award. Hence this appeal by N.V. Engineering.

 

HELD

The Court relied on the decision of
BALCO vs. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Services Inc., (2012) 9 SCC 552
wherein
it was held that the Arbitration Act, 1996 has accepted the territoriality
principle which has been adopted in the UNCITRAL Model Law. Section 2(2) makes a
declaration that Part I of the Arbitration Act, 1996 shall apply to all
arbitrations which take place within India. Therefore, Part I of the
Arbitration Act, 1996 would have no application to international commercial
arbitration held outside India. Therefore, such awards would only be subject to
the jurisdiction of the Indian courts when the same are sought to be enforced
in India in accordance with the provisions contained in Part II of the
Arbitration Act, 1996. The provisions contained in the Arbitration Act, 1996
make it crystal clear that there can be no overlapping or intermingling of the
provisions contained in Part I with the provisions contained in Part II of the
Arbitration Act, 1996.

The appeal was allowed and costs imposed on Jindal.

 

17. Madras Bar Association vs. Union of India & Anr. Writ (C) No. 804 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 27th November, 2020 Bench: L. Nageswara Rao J., Hemant Gupta J., S. Ravindra Bhat J.

 

Judicial Member – Qualification and experience – Appellate Tribunal and
other Authorities Qualification, Experience and Other Conditions of Service of
Members Rules, 2020 [Finance Act, 2017, Administrative Tribunals Act, 1956]

 

FACTS

The petitioner filed a petition challenging the constitutional validity
of the Tribunal, Appellate Tribunal and other Authorities Qualification,
Experience and Other Conditions of Service of Members Rules, 2020 (Tribunal
Rules) on several grounds, viz., exclusion of advocates for being considered as
a judicial member in ten out of 19 Tribunals, a minimum of 25 years of
experience for an advocate to be eligible to become a member in seven tribunals
(Central Administrative Tribunal, Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Customs Excise
and Sales Tax Appellate Tribunal, etc.) inter alia.

 

HELD

The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that the exclusion of advocates in ten
out of 19 Tribunals for being appointed as a judicial member is contrary to the
decision in the case of Union of India vs. R. Gandhi, President, Madras
Bar Association, (2010) 11 SCC 1
and the case of Madras Bar
Association vs. Union of India, (2014) 10 SCC 1.

 

It further held that the Tribunal Rules shall
be amended to make advocates with an experience of at least ten years eligible
for appointment as judicial members in the Tribunals. While considering
advocates for appointment as judicial members in the Tribunals, the
Search-cum-Selection Committee shall take into account the experience of the
Advocates at the bar and their specialisation in the relevant branches of law.
They shall be entitled for reappointment for at least one term by giving
preference to the services rendered by them for the Tribunals.

 

18. State of UP vs. Sudhir Kumar Singh & Ors. Civil Appeal No. 3498 of 2020 (SC) Date of order: 16th October, 2020 Bench: R.F. Nariman J., Navin Sinha J., K.M. Joseph J.

 

Principle of natural justice – Arbitrary termination is held to be bad
in law [Constitution of India, Art 14, 226]

 

FACTS

The private respondents filed a case on account of illegal and arbitrary
termination of their tender upon completion of one year, whereas the term
stipulated in the tender was two years. It was prayed that the order
terminating the tender was bad in law due to violation of the principles of
natural justice, i.e., audi alteram partem.

 

HELD

The principles of natural justice have undergone a sea change. The
earlier view that even a small violation would result in the order being
rendered a nullity is not correct. Some real prejudice must be caused to the
complainant by the refusal to follow natural justice. The prejudice must not
merely be the apprehension of a litigant. No prejudice is caused to the person
complaining of the breach of natural justice where such person does not dispute
the case against him or it. There is a clear distinction between cases where
there was no hearing at all and the cases where there was mere technical
infringement of the principle. Since there was prejudice caused to the private
respondents and financial loss has occurred, the Court upheld the impugned
judgment of the High Court on the ground that natural justice has indeed been
breached.

 

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

NOTIFICATIONS

(a)   Waiver of penalty – Notification No.
89/2020-Central Tax dated 29th November, 2020

The Government
has granted immunity from levy of penalty u/s 125 in relation to non-compliance
of requirement as per Notification No. 14/2020 dated 21st March,
2020. The Notification No.14/2020 is about QR code on invoices. As per the
above Notification dated 29th November, 2020, the penalty is waived
for non-compliance during the period from 1st December, 2020 to 31st
March, 2021 with a further condition that there should be compliance from 1st
April, 2021.

 

(b) 8-Digit HSN
code – Notification No. 90/2020-Central Tax dated 1st December, 2020

By the above
Notification the Government has specified a list of certain items (chemicals,
etc.) and also specified 8-digit HSN code against the said items. It is further
provided that in respect of specified commodities the 8-digit HSN code should
be mentioned on tax invoices.

 

CIRCULARS

Waiver from recording of UIN on the invoices – Circular No.
144/14/2020-GST dated 15th December, 2020

Vide the above Circular it is informed that there is a decision to give
waiver from recording of UIN on the invoices issued by the retailers / suppliers
pertaining to the refund claims from April, 2020 to March, 2021, subject to the
condition that the copies of such invoices are attested by the authorised
representative of the UIN entity and the same are submitted to the
jurisdictional officer.

 

ADVANCE RULINGS

Classification
– ‘made up’ from fabrics

M/s Shivalika
Enterprises (Order No. HP-AAR-10/2020 Dated 20th October, 2020) (HP)

In the above
advance ruling the issue before the learned AAR was about Classification of the
following products under GST:

 

a) Non-woven
fabrics,

b) Products
made of non-woven fabrics, viz.:

Non-woven
fabric bag

3-ply mask

Surgical cap

Surgical gown

Surgical shoe
cover

 

The raw
materials and the process of making non-woven fabric are narrated in the AR as
under: ‘The primary raw materials for non-woven fabrics are polypropylene
granules, colour master batches and filter compounds. These raw materials are
sucked through vacuum, heated, passed through an extruder and melted. The
material thus obtained is filtered and passed through the spinning unit to
obtain a continuous single filament which is called polypropylene filament. The
filaments are lapped on each other on a lapper and then subjected to thermal
bonding to form the polypropylene spun-bonded non-woven fabric.’

 

The applicant
has sought Classification about the product non-woven fabric. It has also
sought further Classification of products made from the non-woven fabric.

 

For the above
purpose the AAR made reference to Chapter 63 of the Customs Tariff which covers
textile made-up articles. He also made reference to the meaning of ‘made up’ as
given in Section Note 7 of Section XI of the Customs Tariff.

 

Based on the above meaning, the AAR observed that non-woven bag is made
up of textile articles. The AAR further observed that the sacks and bags made
up of textile material, including those made of man-made textile materials such
as polypropylene strips, are covered by Chapter Heading 6305, specifically in
Tariff Item 6305 3300.

 

As for the
other items, the AAR referred to different chapter heads and observed that the
disposable gowns made of non-woven fabric designed for use in hospitals, etc.,
would fall in Chapter Heading 6210. Disposable surgical caps were held as
covered by Chapter Heading 6505. And surgical masks and shoe covers were held
as covered by Chapter Heading 6307.

The applicant
also wanted to know whether the Classification will change if the non-woven
fabric itself is also manufactured in same unit. The AAR held that the Classification
of product depends upon the raw materials used in the manufacturing process and
the final product formed. Whether the raw material is manufactured in the same
unit or a different one does not have any effect on the Classification.

 

Accordingly,
the learned AAR classified the products as under:

Non-woven
fabric, which is made using PP granules: Chapter Heading: 5603.

Classification
of products made of non-woven fabric:

 

Product

Chapter Head

Non-woven fabric bag

6305

3-ply mask

6307

Surgical cap

6505

Surgical gown

6210

Surgical shoe cover

6307

 

 

Classification
– OIDAR Services

M/s Principal
Commissioner of Central Tax, Bangalore West (Order No. Kar/ADRG-37/2020 Dated
22nd May, 2020) (Kar.) (AAAR)

This was an
appeal against the Advance Ruling order passed by the learned ARA, Karnataka.
The appeal was filed by the respondents and the original applicant is the
respondent in this appeal.

 

The facts in
brief are as follows: The original applicant, M/s NCS Pearson Inc. is engaged
in the provision of computer-based tests (also referred to as ‘exams’)
administration solutions to its clients (test sponsors) like education
institutes, etc.

 

There are three
types of services:

Type 1 service is
self-administrated by the candidates (test-takers) and is wholly digital in
nature. This service was held as ‘Online Information and Database Retrieval’
services (OIDAR) and the Revenue has no dispute about it.

 

In Type 2
service, the tests are similar to Type 1.

However, the
difference is that the test taker has to go to the test centre where the
identity will be verified by the administrator and the validation of test
registration and appointment of test taker will be seen by the administrator.
There will be monitoring by an invigilator. The results are given immediately
on completion of the test.

 

Type 2 service is also classified as OIDAR by AAR and there is no dispute
about this part of the ruling also.

 

Type 3 service was decided to be not OIDAR service by the learned AAR. The
Revenue was aggrieved by this (the above) part of the ruling and hence this
appeal was filed before the Karnataka Appellate Authority for Advance Ruling
(AAAR).

 

Before the AAAR
the Revenue highlighted the facts leading to hold the service as OIDAR, whereas
the original applicant highlighted how the AR is correct.

 

The AAAR first
referred to the meaning of OIDAR as given in section 2(17) of the IGST Act,
2017. After an analysis of the definition, the AAAR observed that the following
essential ingredients are required to be fulfilled for a service to qualify as
OIDAR:

 

a)         The service is to be delivered over the
internet or an electronic network,

b)         The supply of the service is essentially
automated,

c)         The service involves minimal human
intervention, and

d)         The delivery of the service is
impossible in the absence of information technology.

 

The AAAR
referred to the nature of the Type 3 service and noted as under:

 

‘The candidate
registers for the test online and remits the registration fees also online. The
test is taken by the candidate at designated test centres in India where the
candidate is assigned a computer workstation and the entire duration of the
test is administered and supervised by a physical invigilator as well as an
online proctor. The candidate accesses the test electronically via the internet
at the test centre. The format of a Type 3 test involves a mixture of
multiple choice questions and analytical writing assessment questions, i.e.,
essay-based questions. On completion of the test, the Quantitative and Verbal
elements of the test (multiple choice questions) are scored based on a computer
algorithm and the candidate is immediately given an indicative score report
which provides the score only for the multiple choice questions of the test.
The score of the essay-based questions involving Integrated Reasoning and
Analytical Writing elements do not form part of the indicative score. The essay
responses are sent by the respondent to their scoring entity in the United
States of America where the evaluation of the essays is done independently by a
professional human scorer as well as a computer programme known as an Automated
Essay Scoring system (AES)…

 

Once the
scorers (human as well as the AES) have completed scoring the essay, then the
final score is an average of the human score and the AES score if the scores
are within a one-point difference. For example, if the human scorer returns a
score of 5 and the AES rates the essay at 4, then the final score will be 4.5.
If the difference between the human scorer and the AES is more than one point,
then the essay is always routed to an expert human scorer and the expert
scorer’s decision becomes the final score that is returned to the test taker.’

 

After examining
the nature of the Type 3 service, the AAAR further examined the extent
of human intervention. If such intervention is minimal, it will still be an
OIDAR. However, if such intervention is not minimal, then the service will not
be an OIDAR.

 

The learned
AAAR observed as under:

 

‘There is no
dispute on the fact that there is an element of human intervention involved in
the process of scoring the essay responses in the Type 3 test. What
needs to be decided is whether the extent of human intervention is “minimum” or
not. Since there are no guidelines in Indian laws regarding the concept of
minimum human intervention in electronically provided services, we refer to the
European Commission VAT Committee Working Paper No. 896 wherein the notion of
“minimal human intervention” was discussed in the context of determining
whether or not a service can be said to fall within the definition of
electronically supplied services. The European VAT Committee had agreed that
for the assessment of the notion of “minimal human intervention’, it is the
involvement on the side of the supplier which is relevant and not that on the
side of the customer. We have already detailed the entire process involved in
conducting the Type 3 test and it is seen that scoring by a human scorer
is just one of the processes involved in a computer-based test.

 

One of the
major benefits of a computer-based test is the facility of obtaining immediate
grading. While grading of multiple choice questions is done instantaneously
using an algorithm, grading of essays involves the use of AES (Automated Essay
Scoring) which is a specialised computer programme to assign grades to essays.
The respondent has an entity in the United States which has developed an AES
for reliable scoring of essay responses in a computer-based test. How does one
know that the automatic scoring system works well enough to give scores
consistent with consensus scores from human scorers? Any method of assessment
must be judged on validity, fairness and reliability. An AES would be
considered valid if it measures the trait that it purports to measure and it
would be considered reliable if its outcome is repeatable. Before computers
entered the picture, essays were typically given scores by two trained human raters.
If the scores differed by more than one point, a more experienced third rater
would settle the disagreement. In this system, reliability was measured by the
degree of agreement among the human raters. The same principle applies to
measuring a computer programme’s performance in scoring essays.

 

An essay is
given to a human scorer as well as to the AES programme. If the AES score
agrees with the score given by the human scorer, the AES programme is
considered reliable. A machine-human score correlation serves as a good
indicator whether the AES is returning a stable consensus score of the essay.
Therefore, the role of the human scorer is in effect a means to ensure the
reliability of the AES programme. We do not discredit the importance of a human
scorer in the process of assessment of essay responses. However, the focus here
is on a computer-based test where the intent is to also assess the performance
of the candidate using an automated system. The reliability of the AES is
validated by the near agreement to the score given by the human scorer. For
this reason, we hold that the involvement of the human element in the
assessment of essay responses is well within the realm of “minimum human
intervention”’.

 

Observing as above, the learned AAAR reversed the ruling of the AAR on
the above issue and held that the Type 3 service is also an OIDAR. The
taxation under GST is required to be seen accordingly. In case of import of
OIDAR, the tax is payable on RCM basis with certain exemptions.

 

 

Indian journalism developed no reporting tradition; it
often reported on
India as on a foreign country
 
V.S. Naipaul, India: A Wounded Civilization

FROM PUBLISHED ACCOUNTS

(A)    APPLYING PRACTICAL EXPEDIENT AS PER IND AS 116 FOR LEASE CONCESSIONS
BATA INDIA LTD.
From Consolidated Published Results for quarter and period ended 30th September, 2020
From Notes to Results
The Group has elected to apply the practical expedient of not assessing the rent concessions as a lease modification, as per MCA Notification dated 24th July, 2020 on IND AS 116 for rent concessions which are granted due to the Covid-19 pandemic. According to the Notification, total rent concessions confirmed in the quarter ended 30th September, 2020 of Rs. 274.38 million (including  Rs. 95.26 million unconditional rent concessions pertaining to subsequent quarters) has been netted of from rent expenses.
Further, out of total rent concessions confirmed for the six months ended 30th September, 2020 of Rs. 775.76 million (including Rs. 95.26 million unconditional rent concessions pertaining to subsequent quarters), Rs. 475.34 million has been accounted under rent expenses and balance of Rs. 300.42 million is reported under Other Income.
 
(B)    INEFFECTIVENESS OF DERIVATIVE CONTRACTS DESIGNATED AS CASH FLOW HEDGES CONSIDERED AS ‘EXCEPTIONAL ITEM’
 
STERLITE POWER TRANSMISSION LTD. (YEAR ENDED 31ST MARCH, 2020)

 
NOTE 32: EXCEPTIONAL ITEMS (Rs. in million)

Ineffectiveness of derivative contracts designated as cash flow hedges Rs. 2,565.95.
 
During the year, the wholly-owned subsidiary of the Company, Sterlite Power Grid Ventures Limited, has sold some of its investments in Brazilian transmission project entities. The contract for supply of conductors to these project entities has subsequently been cancelled, and this cancellation has been considered as a non-recurring event. The loss on cancellation of corresponding cash flow hedges entered for mitigation of risk of fluctuation in prices of aluminium and foreign currency has been disclosed as Exceptional Item.
 
(C)    AMALGAMATION INCLUDED AS KEY AUDIT MATTER
 
BANDHAN BANK LTD. (YEAR ENDED 31ST MARCH, 2020)

 
From Auditors’ Report

Accounting for Scheme of Amalgamation of GRUH Finance Limited with the Bank
(Refer Note 38 to Schedule 18 to the Financial Statements)
 
On 7th January, 2019 the Board of Directors of the Bandhan Bank approved the Scheme of Amalgamation of GRUH Finance Limited with the Bank (the ‘Scheme’). The Scheme has received all the necessary regulatory approvals and the certified copies of the orders passed by NCLTs were filed with ROCs on the 17th October, 2019 – becoming the Effective Date on which GRUH Finance Limited has ultimately been merged with Bandhan Bank Limited. The Scheme has received the RBI approval on 14th March, 2019. The Bank accounted for the merger under pooling of interest method. We have determined this to be a key audit matter in view of the magnitude of the transaction and the significant management judgment involved with respect to alignment of accounting policies between the Bank and Non-Banking Finance Company (NBFC).
 
Our audit procedures included the following:
•        We obtained and read the Scheme, NCLT orders and ROC fillings in relation to the amalgamation of Gruh Finance Limited with the Bank.
•        We evaluated the appropriateness of the ‘Pooling of interest’ method of accounting adopted by the management to account for the merger in compliance with the requirement of the scheme of merger duly approved by the NCLTs.
•        We evaluated management’s alignment of accounting policies and estimates by comparing the significant accounting policies and estimates of erstwhile GRUH Finance Limited with the Banks’s accounting policies and estimates and performed procedures to verify the accounting for the Scheme done by the Bank.
 
From Notes to Financial Statements
Business transfer

As per the ‘Scheme of Amalgamation’ of erstwhile GRUH Finance Limited (‘GRUH’) with Bandhan Bank Limited (‘BANK’) had been approved by the Reserve Bank of India, the Competition Commission of India, Stock Exchanges, the respective Shareholders and Creditors of each (of the) entities as applicable and the National Company Law Tribunals (NCLT) Bench at Kolkata and Ahmedabad, with appointed date as 1st January, 2019 and effective date as 17th October, 2019, all assets and liabilities pertaining to the GRUH Finance Limited (‘GRUH’) were transferred to the Bank on amalgamation for a consideration of Rs. 416.19 crores. The consideration has been determined as per the scheme of amalgamation. The acquired assets and liabilities were recorded at their existing carrying amount in the BANK in accordance with ‘Pooling of Interest Method’ guidance provided in  AS 14, Accounting for Amalgamations; Rs. 1,101.03 crores being short of consideration settled by the Bank over net assets acquired have been transferred to Capital Reserve in the books of the Bank.
 
The summary of assets and liabilities acquired is as follows:

Amount (Rs. in crores)

Description

Amount

Investments

2,501.64

Advances

16,858.88

Fixed Assets

15.02

Cash and Bank Balances

808.28

Other Assets

48.01

Total Assets

20,231.83

Deposits

1,620.93

Borrowings

16,567.67

Other Liabilities & Provisions

526.01

Total Liabilities

18,714.61

Net Assets (A)

1,517.22

Consideration (B)

416.19

 

 

Capital Reserve (B-A)

(1,101.03)

For every 1,000 shares of GRUH Finance Limited, 568 shares of Bandhan Bank Ltd. were issued as consideration paid in relation to Net Assets acquired in relation to amalgamation and transferred to capital reserve accordingly.
 

 
Each work has to pass through these stages – ridicule, opposition and then acceptance. Those who think ahead of their time are sure to be misunderstood
—  Swami Vivekananda

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

7.
National Co-operative Development Corporation vs. Commissioner of Income
Tax, Delhi (2020) 427 ITR 288 (SC)

 

Business Income – To decide the question as to whether a particular
source of income is business income one would have to look to the notions of
what is business activity

 

Business Expenditure – There can be an amount treated as a capital
receipt while the same amount expended may be a revenue
expenditure

 

Income – Diversion by overriding title – If a portion of income
arising out of a corpus held by the assessee consumed for the purposes of
meeting some recurring expenditure arising out of an obligation imposed on the
assessee by a contract or by statute or by own volition or by the law of the
land, and if the income before it reaches the hands of the assessee is already
diverted away by a superior title, the portion passed or liable to be passed on
is not the income of the assessee

 

The function of the appellant corporation, the National Co-operative
Development Corporation,
inter alia was to advance loans or grant subsidies to State Governments for
financing co-operative societies, provide loans and grants directly to the
national level co-operative societies, as also to the State level co-operative
societies, the latter on the guarantee of State Governments. The funding process
for the appellant corporation was by way of grants and loans received from the
Central Government.

 

The appellant was required to maintain a fund called the National
Co-operative Development Fund (‘the Fund’) which is,
inter alia, credited with all monies received by it by way of grants and loans
from the Central Government, as well as sums of money as may from time to time
be realised out of repayment of loans made from the Fund or from interest on
loans or dividends or other realisations on investments made from the
Fund.

In furtherance of this, as and when surplus funds accumulated, the
appellant invested the idle funds in fixed deposits which generated income. The
income by way of interest on debentures and loans advanced to the State
Governments / Apex Co-operative Institutions were credited to this
account.

 

The appellant being an intermediary or ‘pass through’ entity, treated
the funds received from the Central Government as capital receipts and the
interest component as income; however, it claimed the component of interest
income earned on the funds received u/s 13(1) of the NCDC Act and sums disbursed
by way of ‘grants’ to national or state level co-operative societies, as
eligible for deduction for determining its ‘taxable income’.

 

The A.O. in his assessment order for A.Y. 1976-77 opined that the
non-refundable grants were in the nature of capital expense and not a revenue
expense and, thus, disallowed the same as a deduction. What weighed with the
A.O. was also the fact that the grants received from the Central Government were
in the nature of a capital receipt exempt from tax. The A.O. noted that no
deduction as sought for had been claimed in the previous assessment
years.

 

An appeal was preferred before the Commissioner of Income-tax
(Appeals), New Delhi [‘CIT(A)’], which in terms of an order dated
22nd August, 1980 opined that the grants made by the appellant
without doubt fell within its authorised activities which were interlinked and
interconnected with its main business of advancing loans on interest to State
Governments and co-operative societies. These grants were intended to be
utilised for various projects which were admittedly of capital nature and
resulted in the acquisition of capital assets, but not by the appellant itself.
In terms of section 37 of the IT Act as it stood for the relevant assessment
year, any expenditure (except of the prohibited type) laid out or expended
wholly and exclusively for the purpose of the business was allowable as a
deduction while computing business income. The functions and activities of the
appellant included giving loans and grants which, in fact, was the very purpose
for which it had been set up.

 

The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (‘ITAT’), Delhi bench, however,
accepted the view taken by the A.O. and did not agree with the approach of the
CIT(A), setting aside the order of the CIT(A). The rationale for doing so was
slightly different. It held that the grants, additional grants and other sums
received by the appellant from the Central Government went to a single fund and
were not treated as its income and, thus, the disbursements made from the same
could not be treated as revenue expenses. The disbursement of monies to State
Governments and co-operative societies was held to be a pure and simple
application of the fund u/s 13(2) of the NCDC Act and could not be expenditure
in the nature of revenue.

 

On a reference made u/s 256(1), the High Court opined that since the
business of the appellant was to receive funds and to then advance them as loans
or grants, the interest income earned which was so applied would also fall under
the head ‘D’ of section 14 of Chapter IV of the IT Act under the head of
‘Profits and gains of business or profession’ being a part of its normal
business activity. The High Court delved into the scheme of the NCDC Act and in
view of section 13, which provided for the creation of a fund being the common
pool where all accretions get amalgamated, including from interest on loans and
dividends and interest earned on FDRs, it was held that the monies which were
advanced from the fund cannot be distinctly identified as forming part of the
interest income. The other aspect the High Court opined on was that in order to
claim deduction as revenue expenditure, the appellant has to first establish
that it incurred expenditure. The advancement of loans to the State Governments
and co-operative societies could not be claimed as expenditure as the same does
not leave the hands of the appellant irretrievably. It is not necessary for us
to delve further into this issue as that was not the question framed to be
answered.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the first aspect which required
consideration was whether interest on loans or dividends would fall under the
head of ‘Income from other sources’ u/s 56 or would it amount to income from
‘Profits and gains of business or profession’ under head ‘D’ of section
14.

 

The Supreme Court was of the view that the only business of the
appellant was to receive funds and then to advance these as loans or grants. The
interest income arose on account of the funds so received and it may not have
been utilised for a certain period of time, being put in fixed deposits so that
the amount did not lie idle. The income generated was again applied to the
disbursement of grants and loans. The income generated from interest was
necessarily interlinked to the business of the appellant and would, thus, fall
under the head of ‘Profits and gains of business or profession’. There would,
therefore, be no requirement of taking recourse to section 56 for taxing the
interest income under this residuary clause as ‘Income from other sources’.
According to the Supreme Court, to decide the question as to whether a
particular source of income is business income, one would have to look to the
notions of what is the business activity. The activity from which the income is
derived must have a set purpose. The business activity of the appellant was
really that of an intermediary to lend money or to give grants.

 

Thus, the generation of interest income in support of only this
business (not even primary) for a period of time when the funds are lying idle
and utilised for the same purpose would ultimately be taxable as business
income. The fact that the appellant did not carry on business activity for
profit motive is not material as profit-making is not an essential ingredient on
account of self-imposed and innate restrictions arising from the very statute
which creates the appellant corporation and the very purpose for which it has
been set up. The Supreme Court drew support from its judgment in
The Sole Trustee, Lok Shikshana Trust vs. The Commissioner of Income
Tax, Mysore, (1976) 1 SCC 254.

 

In view of the aforesaid finding, the crucial issue, according to the
Supreme Court,would be whether the amounts advanced as grants from this income
generated could be adjusted against the income to reduce the impact of taxation
as a revenue expense.

 

The Supreme Court noted that undoubtedly the amount received to be
advanced as loans and grants by the appellant from the Central Government were
treated as capital receipts. The line of argument on behalf of the appellant
was, however, predicated on a plea that assuming it to be so, the grants (and
not loans) could not be treated as capital expenditure as neither any enduring
advantage nor benefit had accrued to the appellant, nor had any asset come into
existence which belonged to or was owned by the latter. Thus, what may be a
capital receipt in the hands of the appellant may still be revenue
expenditure.

The Court was not in disagreement with the aforesaid proposition to
the extent that there could be an amount treated as a capital receipt while the
same amount expended may be a revenue expenditure. But the question was whether
this was so in the present case.

 

The Supreme Court noted that undoubtedly the interest income was not
directly received as a capital amount. It was actually generated by utilising
the capital receipts when the funds were lying idle though the income so
generated was then applied for the very objective for which the appellant
corporation was set up, i.e., disbursement of grants and advancement of
loans.

 

The Supreme Court observed that the impugned judgment of the High
Court dealt with both loans and grants but on the question of references framed
before it the dispute related to only grants. The Court noted that it was not
the appellant’s case that the amounts advanced as loans, the same being payable
with interest, could be adjusted as expenses against the business income
generated by investing the amounts and consequently earning interest on the
same. The argument was predicated on the reasoning that since the interest
generated is treated as a business income, the grants made, which would never
come back, should be adjustable as expenses against the same. The Supreme Court
noted that to the extent the grants were returned, the CIT(A) did not allow the
entire deduction as claimed for but only did so
qua the amount which was disbursed as grant and never received
back.

 

The Court noted that the very purpose for which the statutory
appellant corporation had been set up was to advance loans or grant subsidies to
State Governments for financing co-operative societies, etc. There was no other
function which the appellant carried out, nor did it generate any funds of its
own from any other business. In a sense the role was confined to receiving funds
from the Central Government and appropriately advancing the same as loans,
grants or subsidies. The objectives were wholly socio-economic and the amounts
received including grants came with a prior stipulation for them to be passed on
to the downstream entities. This was the reason they have been treated as
capital receipts. However, the Supreme Court was unable to opine that since this
was a pass-through entity on the basis of a statutory obligation, the
advancement of loans and grants was not a business activity when really it was
the only business activity. Once it was business activity, the interest
generated on the unutilised capital had to be held to be business
income.

The disbursement of non-refundable grants was an integral part of the
business of the appellant corporation as contemplated u/s 13(1) of the NCDC Act
and, thus, was for the purpose of its business. The purpose was direct; merely
because the grants benefited a third party it would not render the disbursement
as ‘application of income’ and not expenditure.

 

The Supreme Court did not find force in the submission of the Revenue
that the direct nexus of monies given as outright grants from the taxable
interest income could not be distinctly identified. It noted that the CIT(A) had
allowed the business expenditure only to a certain amount on the basis of the
facts and figures as they emerged from the balance sheet. This was a burden
which was to be discharged by the appellant and the CIT(A) had been satisfied
with the nexus of interest income with the disbursement of grants made, as
having been established.

 

The Court also noted another principle to test the proposition, i.e.,
of diversion by overriding title and that this principle was originally set out
in the case of
Sitaldas Tirathdas (1961) 2 SCR 634 and the principle has been followed since then. If a portion of
income arising out of a corpus held by the assessee consumed for the purposes of
meeting some recurring expenditure arising out of an obligation imposed on the
assessee by a contract or by statute or by own volition or by the law of the
land and if the income before it reaches the hands of the assessee is already
diverted by a superior title, the portion passed or liable to be passed on is
not the income of the assessee. The test, thus, is what amounts to application
of income and what is the diversion by overriding title. The principle, in a
sense, would apply if the Act or the Rules framed thereunder or other binding
directions bind the institution to spend the interest income on disbursal of
grants.

 

However, the Supreme Court noted that the NCDC Act did not specify as
to who should be the grantee and what should be amount to be granted. All that
was prescribed was that the business of the appellant corporation was to provide
loans or grants for the avowed object for which it has been set up. The decision
with regard to who should get the grant was taken by the appellant directly in
the course of, and for the purpose of, its business. Thus, whether the amount
agreed to be given should be given as a loan or a grant, or both, was entirely
at the business discretion of the appellant. No grantee had a superior title to
the funds. Hence, this was not a case of diversion of income by overriding
title.

The Supreme Court also noted that even though in the view of the
appellant itself for the preceding years in question it never claimed any such
adjustments, but that, according to the Court, did not preclude the right of the
appellant as they sought to make out a case of a mistake at a subsequent
date.

 

Besides, the Supreme Court stated that by the Finance Act of 2003 a
provision in section 36 was added as sub-clause (1)(xii) so as to provide that
an expenditure not being capital expenditure incurred by a corporation or body
corporate, by whatever name called, constituted or established by a Central,
State or Provincial Act for the objects and purposes authorised by such Act
under which such corporation or body corporate was constituted or established,
shall be allowed as a deduction in computing the income under the head ‘profits
and gains of business or profession’.

 

According to the Supreme Court, prior to the insertion of this
sub-clause such expenses would be permissible under the general section 37(1)
which provides for deduction of permissible expenses on principles of commercial
accountancy. After the amendment, such expenses get allowed under the specific
section, viz., section 36(1)(xii) after the amendment by the Finance Act,
2003.

 

In conclusion, the Supreme Court stated that it was unable to agree
with the findings arrived at by the A.O., the ITAT and the High Court
albeit for different reasons and it concurred with the view taken by the
CIT(A) for the reasons set out hereinabove.

 

8. Raj Pal Singh
vs. Commissioner of Income Tax, Rohtak, Haryana (2020) 427 ITR 1 (SC)

 

Capital Gains – Compulsory acquisition – Date of accrual – In matters
relating to compulsory acquisition of land under the Land Acquisition Act of
1894, completion of transfer with vesting of land in the Government essentially
correlates with taking over of possession by the Government – However, where
possession is taken before the relevant stage for such taking over, capital
gains shall be deemed to have accrued upon arrival of the relevant stage and not
before – To be more specific, in such cases capital gains shall be deemed to
have accrued (a) upon making of the award, in the case of ordinary acquisition
referable to section 16, and (b) after expiration of 15 days from the
publication of the notice mentioned in section 9(1) in the case of urgency
acquisition u/s 17

 

Effect of continuing in possession of property after expiry of lease
– Where the time period of any lease of immovable property is limited, it
determines by efflux of such time, as per section 111(a) of the Act of 1882 – In
terms of section 108(q) of the Transfer of Property Act of 1882, on
determination of lease the lessee is bound to put the lessor into possession of
the leased property – In a case where lessee does not deliver possession to the
lessor after determination of the lease but the lessor accepts rent or otherwise
assents to his continuing in possession, in the absence of an agreement to the
contrary, the status of such lessee is that of tenant holding over, in terms of
section 116 of the Act of 1882 – But in the absence of acceptance of rent or
otherwise assent by the lessor, the status of lessee is that of tenant at
sufferance

 

The land, admeasuring 41 kanals and 14 marlas and comprising Khasra Nos. 361 to 369 and 372 to 375 at village
Patti Jattan, Tehsil and District Ambala, became an evacuee property after its
original owner migrated to Pakistan; the same was allotted to the said Mr. Amrik
Singh, who had migrated to India,
in lieu of his property left behind in Pakistan. However, a substantial part
of the subject land, except that comprising Khasra Nos. 361 and 364 admeasuring
5
kanals and 7 marlas, had been given by the original owner on a lease for 20 years to a
Government College, the S.A. Jain College, Ambala City, and the lease was to
expire on 31st August, 1967. Later, the said College moved the
Government of Haryana for compulsory acquisition of the subject land. While
acting on this proposition, a Notification u/s 4 of the Land Acquisition Act,
1894 was issued by the Government of Haryana on 15th May, 1968
seeking to acquire the land for public purpose, namely, a playground for the
College. This was followed by the declaration dated 13th August, 1969
u/s 6 of the Act of 1894. Ultimately, after submission of the claim for
compensation, the Land Acquisition Collector, Ambala, proceeded to make the
award on 29th September, 1970.

 

The award provided that the land owners were entitled to interest
from the date of the Notification u/s 4 which was issued on 15th May,
1968. Interest at the rate of 6% per annum would be paid to the land owners in
addition to the compensation and solatium from 15th May, 1968 to
date.

For the assessment year 1971-1972 the assessee declared its income at
Rs. 1,408, inclusive of Rs. 408 from the house property and Rs. 1,000 being the
amount of interest earned. While not accepting the income so declared, the A.O.
in his assessment order enhanced the income from house property to Rs. 1,200 and
also enhanced the interest income to Rs. 11,596 with reference to the interest
of Rs. 10,596 received under the award in question. However, the A.O. observed
that capital gains were not relevant for the year under consideration because
the land in question had been acquired in the earlier years.

 

Being aggrieved by the order, the assessee preferred an appeal before
the Appellate Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax.

 

Though the ground of appeal concerning house property was accepted
and the addition made by the A.O. in that regard was deleted, but on examination
of the award dated 29th September, 1970 the CIT(A) found that the
assessee was paid Rs. 62,550 as compensation and Rs. 9,532 as solatium, yet,
capital gains on this account were not taxed by the A.O. Accordingly, a show
cause notice dated 18th November, 1983 was issued to the assessee as
to why capital gains relating to the acquisition of this land be not charged to
tax in the assessment year under consideration. The assessee in its reply dated
26th December, 1983 stated,
inter alia, that in the urgency acquisition u/s 17 of the Act the transfer
takes place immediately after the Notification and the owner ceases to be in
possession of the land in question. The CIT(A), in his order dated
17th May, 1984, rejected the submissions made on behalf of the
assessee and held that the capital gains on the acquisition of the land
amounting to Rs. 23,146 were required to be added to the income of the previous
year relevant to the assessment year under consideration.

 

Against the order so passed by the CIT(A), the assessee preferred an
appeal before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Chandigarh Bench.

 

The ITAT referred to its order pertaining to the assessment year
1975-1976 in which a similar question of capital gains arising out of another
award of compensation for acquisition of another parcel of land was involved.
The ITAT in that case held that capital gains arising from the acquisition of
the lands in question were assessable for the accounting period in which the
assessee was divested of the title to the property that vested in the
Government, that is, the date of taking possession. The ITAT in its order dated
19th December, 1985 for A.Y. 1971-1972, however, found that the
actual date of taking possession by the Government was not known and hence
proceeded to restore the matter to the file of the A.O. to find out the date
when the Government took possession while observing that if possession was taken
before the award and before 1st April, 1970, capital gains were not
to be included in the income for the A.Y. 1971-1972, but if possession was taken
during the period 1st April, 1970 to 31st March, 1971,
capital gains would be assessable for this A.Y.,1971-1972.

 

In the meantime, against the aforesaid award dated 29th
September, 1970, the appellant took up the proceedings in LA Case Nos. 37
and 38 of 1971 before the Additional District Judge, Ambala who, by the order
dated 30th December, 1984, allowed a marginal enhancement of the
amount of compensation and corresponding solatium and interest. Still not
satisfied, the appellant preferred an appeal, being Regular First Appeal No. 390
of 1975, before the Punjab and Haryana High Court seeking further enhancement.
The High Court allowed this appeal by its judgment dated 25th
October, 1985 and awarded compensation by applying the rate of Rs. 8 per sq. yd.
against Rs. 3.50 and Rs. 2.50 per sq. yd., as allowed by the Additional District
Judge and the Land Acquisition Collector, respectively. The High Court also
allowed 30% solatium and corresponding interest.

 

In compliance with the directions of the ITAT in the aforesaid order
dated 19th December, 1985, the A.O. served a specific question to the
assessee about the date on which possession of the acquired land was taken by
the Government of Haryana. In his reply, the appellant stated the date of
possession was 15th May, 1968, being the date of Notification u/s 4
of the Act of 1894. Though no evidence in this regard was adduced but the
appellant relied upon the decision of the Kerala High Court in the case of
Peter John vs. Commissioner of Income-tax (1986) 157 ITR 711
to submit that capital gains, if any, arise at the point of time when
the land vests in the Government and such date in the present case was 15th May,
1968.

 

The A.O. took note of all the facts of this case in his reassessment
order dated 25th January, 1988 and observed that ‘since in the
instant case, the award was announced on 29th September, 1970, the
said date, 29th September, 1970, is deemed to be the date of taking
possession by the Government’. In this view of the matter, the A.O. held that
‘taxability of capital gains arose in the previous year relevant to the
assessment year under consideration’.

 

The A.O. also noticed that the appellant failed to place on record
the date of publication of the notice u/s 9 of the Act of 1894 and observed that
there was no reference to urgency acquisition in the present case nor any such
mention was found in the award dated 29th September, 1970. In the
given circumstances, the A.O. held that the acquisition in question was not a
matter of urgency u/s 17 of the Act of 1894 and that the acquisition had only
been under the ‘normal powers’.

 

With the aforesaid findings, the A.O. proceeded to assess the tax
liability of the appellant on long-term capital gains arising on account of
acquisition on the basis of the amount of compensation allowed in the award
dated 29th September, 1970 as also the enhanced amount of
compensation accruing finally as a result of the aforesaid order dated
30th December, 1984 passed by the Additional District Judge and the
judgment dated 25th October, 1985 passed by the High Court. As
regards interest income, the A.O. carried out protective assessment on accrual
basis @ 12% per annum for the previous year relevant to the assessment year in
question, i.e., for the period 1st April, 1970 to 31st
March, 1971 while providing that such calculation would be subject to amendment,
if necessary.

 

The aforesaid order of re-assessment dated 25th January,
1988 was challenged by the appellant before the CIT(A). This appeal was
considered and dismissed by the CIT(A) through an elaborate order dated
31st March, 1989.

 

Being aggrieved by the order so passed by the CIT(A), the appellant
preferred an appeal before the ITAT.

 

The ITAT referred to the observations regarding ‘possession of land’
as occurring in the award dated 29th September, 1970 and observed
that as per those observations possession of the land in question was supposed
to have been taken on 15th May, 1968, as from that date the assessee
was entitled to interest at 6% per annum on the amount of compensation. The ITAT
further observed that to sort out the controversy, such stipulation in the award
was required to be depended upon and the date of actual physical possession was
inferable from the intention of the parties and the language of such stipulation
in the award. On this reasoning, the ITAT held that since the actual physical
possession changed hands on 15th May, 1968, the transaction should be
considered as having taken place on that date and not on the date of award,
i.e., 29th September, 1970; and hence, capital gains were not to be
taxed for the year under consideration. Having reached this conclusion, the ITAT
held that the very basis of assessing capital gains having been knocked out, the
other issues were rendered redundant.

 

On a reference to the High Court u/s 256(1), the High Court answered
the reference in favour of the Revenue while holding that the Collector had not
taken possession of the land u/s 17 of the Act of 1894 and that the said
provision was not invoked by the State Government. The High Court further held
that for the purpose of assessment of capital gains, the date of award (i.e.,
29th September, 1970) was required to be taken as the date of taking
over possession because, on that date, the land in question vested in the
Government u/s 16 of the Act of 1894.

 

Being aggrieved by the judgment and order dated 23rd
April, 2008 so passed by the High Court, holding that the capital gains arising
out of the acquisition in question were chargeable to tax in the A.Y. 1971-1972,
the assessee preferred an appeal by special leave before the Supreme
Court.

 

The Supreme Court noted that the assessment in question is for the
assessment year 1971-1972 in relation to the assessee Amrik Singh HUF. The
appellant Raj Pal Singh is the son of the late Amrik Singh and is the
Karta of the assessee HUF.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the principal points that arose for
its determination in this appeal were:

1.         As to whether, on
the facts and in the circumstances of the present case, transfer of the capital
asset (land in question), resulting in capital gains for the purposes of section
45 of the Act of 1961 was complete on 15th May, 1968, the date of
Notification for acquisition u/s 4 of the Act of 1894; and hence, capital gains
arising out of such acquisition and interest accrued could not have been charged
to tax with reference to the date of award, i.e., 29th September,
1970?

2.         As to whether the
fact situation of the present case was similar to that of the other case of the
appellant in relation to A.Y. 1975-1976 where the same issue relating to the
date of accrual of capital gains was decided by the ITAT in favour of the
appellant with reference to the date of taking possession by the Government, and
having not challenged the same, it was not open for the Revenue to question the
similar decision of the ITAT in the present case pertaining to the A.Y.
1971-1972?

The Supreme Court in a brief overview of the scheme of the Act of
1894, as existing at the relevant point of time, observed that publication of
preliminary Notification u/s 4 by itself did not vest the property in the
Government; it only informed about the intention of the Government to acquire
the land for a public purpose. After this Notification, in the ordinary course,
u/s 5A the Land Acquisition Collector was required to examine the objection, if
any, to the proposed acquisition, and after examining his report, if so made,
the Government was to issue declaration u/s 6 signifying its satisfaction that
the land was indeed required for public purpose. These steps were to be followed
by notice u/s 9 stating that the Government intended to take possession of the
land and inviting claims for compensation. Thereafter, the Collector was to make
his award u/s 11. As noticed hereinbefore, as per section 16 of the Act of 1894
the Land Acquisition Collector, after making the award, could have taken
possession of the land under acquisition and thereupon the land vested in the
Government free from all encumbrances.

 

A deviation from the process above-noted and a somewhat different
process was permissible in section 17 of the Act of 1894 whereunder, in cases of
urgency and if the Government had so directed, the Collector could have taken
possession of any waste or arable land after fifteen days from the publication
of the notice mentioned in section 9(1), even though the award had not been
made, and thereupon the land was to vest in the Government free from all
encumbrances.

 

The Supreme Court, after noting various authorities on the subject,
opined that in matters relating to compulsory acquisition of land under the Act
of 1894, completion of transfer with vesting of land in the Government
essentially correlates with taking over of possession of the said land. However,
where possession is taken before arriving of the relevant stage for such taking
over, capital gains shall be deemed to have accrued upon arrival of the relevant
stage and not before that. To be more specific, in such cases capital gains
shall be deemed to have accrued (a) upon making of the award, in the case of
ordinary acquisition referable to section 16; and (b) after the expiry of
fifteen days from the publication of the notice mentioned in section 9(1) in the
case of urgency acquisition u/s 17.

 

According to the Supreme Court the land in question was subjected to
acquisition under the Act of 1894 by adopting the ordinary process leading to
award u/s 11. Therefore, ordinarily, capital gains would have accrued upon
taking over of possession after making of the award. Consequently, capital gains
to the assessee for the acquisition in question could not have accrued before
the date of award, i.e., 29th September, 1970.

 

The Court noted that on the strength of the submission that the land
in question had already been in possession of the beneficiary of acquisition, it
had been suggested on behalf of the assessee that the land vested in the
Government immediately upon issuance of the Notification u/s 4 of the Act of
1894, i.e., 15th May, 1968, and the capital gains accrued on that
date. This suggestion and the contentions founded thereupon, in the opinion of
the Supreme Court, were totally meritless.

 

In order to wriggle out of the above-mentioned plain operation of
law, it had been desperately suggested on behalf of the appellant before the
Supreme Court that it had been a case of urgency acquisition and, hence, the
process contemplated by section 17 of the Act of 1894 would apply. This
suggestion, according to the Supreme Court, was also baseless and suffered from
several infirmities.

 

In the first place, it was evident on the face of the record that it
had not been a matter of urgency acquisition and nowhere had it appeared that
the process contemplated by section 17 of the Act of 1894 was resorted to. Even
the contents of the award dated 29th September, 1970 made it clear
that the learned Land Acquisition Collector only awarded interest from the date
of initial Notification for the reason that the land was in possession of the
College; it was nowhere stated that he had received any directions from the
Government to take possession of the land before making of the award while
acting u/s 17.

 

Secondly, if at all the proceedings were undertaken u/s 17 of the Act
of 1894, the land could have vested in the Government only after expiration of
fifteen days from the date of publication of the notice u/s 9(1); and, in any
case, could not have vested in the Government on the date of publication of the
initial Notification u/s 4 of the Act of 1894. Significantly, the assessee did
not divulge the date of publication of the notice u/s 9(1) despite the queries
of the A.O. The suggestion about application of the process contemplated by
section 17 of the Act of 1894 remained totally unfounded.

 

In view of the above, according to the Supreme Court, the only
question that remained was as to what is the effect of the possession of the
College over a part of the subject land at the time of issuance of the initial
Notification for acquisition.

The Supreme Court noted that it was not in dispute that a large part
of the subject land was given on lease to the College and the said lease expired
on 31st August, 1967 but the land continued in possession of the
College.

 

Where the time period of any lease of immovable property is limited,
it determines by efflux of such time, as per section 111(a) of the Act of 1882.
Further, in terms of section 108(q) of the Act of 1882, on determination of
lease, the lessee is bound to put the lessor into possession of the leased
property. In a case where the lessee does not deliver possession to the lessor
after determination of the lease but the lessor accepts rent or otherwise
assents to his continuing in possession, in the absence of an agreement to the
contrary, the status of such lessee is that of tenant holding over, in terms of
section 116 of the Act of 1882. But in the absence of acceptance of rent or
otherwise assent by the lessor, the status of lessee is that of tenant at
sufferance.

 

According to the Supreme Court, the part of the land in question
which was given on lease, the possession of the College after determination of
the lease on 31st August, 1967 was only that of a tenant at
sufferance because it has not been shown whether the lessor, i.e., the
appellant, accepted rent or otherwise assented to the continuation of the lease.
The possession of the College over the part of land in question being only that
of tenant at sufferance, had the corresponding acknowledgment of the title of
the appellant and of the liability of the College to pay
mesne profits for use and occupation. The same status of the parties
qua the land under lease existed on the date of Notification for
acquisition, i.e., 15th May, 1968 and continued even until the date
of award, i.e., 29th September, 1970. In other words, even until the
date of award the appellant continued to carry its status as owner of the land
in question and that status was not lost only because a part of the land
remained in possession of the College. In this view of the matter, the
suggestion that the land vested in the Government on the date of initial
Notification remains totally baseless and could only be rejected.

 

Apart from the above, the significant factor for which the entire
case of the assessee was knocked to the ground was that neither on the date of
Notification, i.e., 15th May, 1968, nor until the date of award the
Government took over possession of the land in question. The possession had been
of the erstwhile lessee, the College. Even if the said College was going to be
the ultimate beneficiary of the acquisition, it could not be said that
immediately upon issuance of the Notification u/s 4 of the Act of 1894 its
possession became the possession of the Government. Its possession, according to
the Supreme Court, remained that of tenant at sufferance and not
beyond.

 

The Supreme Court held that viewed from any angle, it was clear that
accrual of capital gains in the present case had not taken place on
15th May, 1968. If at all possession of the College was to result in
vesting of the land in the Government, such vesting happened only on the date of
award, i.e., 29th September, 1970, and not before. In other words,
the transfer of land from the assessee to the Government reached its completion
not before 29th September, 1970, and hence, the earliest date for
accrual of capital gains because of this acquisition was the date of award,
i.e., 29th September, 1970. Therefore, the assessment of capital
gains as income of the appellant for the previous year relevant to A.Y.
1971-1972 does not suffer from any infirmity or error.

 

Coming to the second question about the effect of the decision of the
ITAT in relation to the other case of the assessee for the A.Y. 1975-1976 where
the issue concerning date of accrual of capital gains was decided against the
Revenue with reference to the date of taking possession, the Supreme Court noted
that the said decision for the A.Y. 1975-1976 was not appealed against and had
attained finality. It had been argued on behalf of the appellant before the
Supreme Court that it was therefore not open for the Revenue to question the
similar decision of the ITAT in the present case pertaining to the A.Y.
1971-1972.

 

The Supreme Court noted that in the case pertaining to the A.Y.
1975-1976, the question of capital gains arose in the backdrop of the fact that
another parcel of land of the appellant was acquired for the purpose of
construction of a warehouse in Ambala City. The Notification u/s 4 of the Act of
1894 was issued on 26th June, 1971 and the award of compensation was
made on 27th June, 1974 but possession of the said land was taken by
the Government on 4th September, 1972, i.e., before making of the
award. In the given set of facts and circumstances, the ITAT accepted the
contention that the case fell under the urgency provision contained in section
17 of the Act of 1894 where the assessee was divested of the title to the
property that vested in the Government with effect from 4th
September, 1972, the date of taking over possession. Hence, the ITAT held that
the capital gains arising from the said acquisition were not assessable for the
accounting period relevant for the A.Y. 1975-1976.

According to the Supreme Court,the principle that if the Revenue has
not challenged the correctness of the law laid down by the High Court and has
accepted it in the case of one assessee, then it is not open to the Revenue to
challenge its correctness in the case of other assessees without just cause,
would not apply in the present case for more than one reason.

 

In the first place, it was ex facie evident that the matter involved in the said case pertaining to the
A.Y. 1975-1976 was taken to be an acquisition under the urgency provision
contained in section 17 of the Act of 1894, whereas the acquisition proceedings
in the present case had not been of urgency acquisition but had been of ordinary
process where possession could have been taken only u/s 16 after making of the
award.

 

Secondly, the fact that the said case relating to the A.Y. 1975-1976
was not akin to the present case was indicated by the ITAT itself. While the
answer in relation to the A.Y. 1975-1976 was given by the ITAT in favour of the
assessee to the effect that possession having been taken on the specified date,
i.e., 4th September, 1972, capital gains were not assessable for the
A.Y. 1975-1976, but while deciding the appeal relating to the present case for
the A.Y. 1971-1972, the ITAT found that the date of taking over possession was
not available and hence the matter was restored to the file of the ITO to find
out the actual date of possession
.

 

Thirdly, even if it was assumed that the stand of Revenue in the
present case was not in conformity with the decision of the ITAT in relation to
the A.Y. 1975-1976, it could not be said that Revenue had no just cause to take
such a stand. As noticed, while rendering the decision in relation to the A.Y.
1975-1976, the ITAT did not notice the principles available in various decisions
including that of the Supreme Court in
Governor of Himachal Pradesh and Ors. vs. Avinash Sharma 1970 SC AIR
1576
that even in the case of urgency acquisition u/s 17 of the Act of
1894, land was to vest in Government not on the date of taking over possession
but only on the expiration of fifteen days from the publication of the notice
mentioned in section 9(1). Looking to the facts of the present case and the law
applicable, the Revenue had every reason to question the correctness of the
later decision of the ITAT dated 29th June, 1990 in the second round
of proceedings pertaining to the A.Y. 1971-1972.

 

Fourthly, the ITAT itself on being satisfied about the question of
law involved in this case, made a reference by its order dated 15th
July, 1991 to the High Court. The High Court having dealt with the matter in the
reference proceedings and having answered the reference in conformity with the
applicable principles, the assessee could not be heard to question the stand of
the Revenue with reference to the other order for the A.Y. 1975-1976. In any
case, according to the Supreme Court, it could not be said that the decision in
relation to the A.Y. 1975-1976 had been of any such nature which would preclude
the Revenue from raising the issues which are germane to the present
case.

 

FROM THE PRESIDENT

My Dear Members,


I take this opportunity to wish a Happy, Healthy and
Prosperous New Year 2021 to you, your family and your friends. For the
year gone by, 2020, the best we can say is, ‘the more unexpected something is,
the more there is to learn from it’. While 2020 was a forgettable year, there
were many leaps made in the digital arena for which we will always remember it.
The New Year comes with new resolutions and it needs determination and
commitment to drive these resolutions to make them part of our routine.

 

‘Approach the New Year with resolve to find the
opportunities hidden in each new day’.

 

On a personal note, I recently experienced my first
Himalayan winter trek to Kedar Kantha in Uttarakhand. It was around 12,500 feet
above sea level and I had an adventurous experience climbing to that height. I
will always remember and treat as a New Year resolution the following words of
our trekking guide which are relevant even in our everyday life, both
professional and personal:

 

‘In trekking, speed and competition is not relevant, it
is also not important who reaches there first, the endeavour is to experience
and explore the nature around us with heart and soul.’

 

Recently, the results of the first phase of the fifth
National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) were released. There was good news in
the shape of an increase in childhood immunization, a drop in neonatal
mortality, a decline in infant mortality rates and so on. The bad news was a
rise in obesity, especially among women and children driven by the lack of
awareness of good food habits, resulting in greater consumption of high-fat,
high-sugar foods and sedentary lifestyles. Let’s resolve to follow a New Year
goal on the health front as described in the following lines:

 

‘Your body is the only permanent address where you live
and no one else can help your body other than you.’

 

In January every year, the BCAS with other sister
organisations supports a Lecture Meeting in memory of the giant personality,
the Late Nani Palkhivala. This year, the Board of Trustees has decided it will
not happen because of the pandemic. As President of the BCAS for 2020-21,
I will miss the opportunity to recall, remember and pay homage to that unique,
pre-eminent legal soul and human being par excellence and to interact with
seniors and speakers on the occasion. In the words of Nani himself:

 

‘India is eternal, everlasting. Though the beginnings of
her numerous civilisations go so far back in time that they are lost in the
pages of history, she has the gift of perpetual youth. Her culture is ageless
and is as relevant to our twentieth century as it was twenty centuries before
Christ.’

 

In the coming few days, the winds of the Union Budget
2021 would start blowing. The Budget will be presented on 1st
February by our Finance Minister, Mrs. Nirmalaji Sitharaman. BCAS
uploaded its pre-budget memorandum within the specified time limit and we
expect due consideration to various valid and ‘ease of tax compliance’
suggestions made by us on Direct, Indirect and International tax aspects. The
memorandum is available on the BCAS site and social media. Mrs.
Sitharaman’s following statement in the public domain is assuring:

 

‘I am conscious that the forthcoming Budget will have a
vibrancy that is so required for the economy’s revival, its sustainable
revival.’

 

The BCAS International Taxation Committee has
launched its flagship event, the 21st course on DTAA, to be
conducted on a virtual platform. It is a comprehensive course on international
taxation, including an overview of BEPS, MLI, digital taxation and so on. May I
request you to enrol on or before 15th January and avail the early
bird benefits.

 

I wish all of you a Happy Makar Sankranti, Lohri and
Pongal. On 26th January, 2021 India will celebrate its 72nd
Republic Day. I wish you all on this glorious occasion.

 

Best regards,

 

 

Suhas Paranjpe

President

 

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I.     AUTHORITY OF ADVANCE RULING
 
24. [2020-TIOL-285-AAR-GST] Mr. B.R. Sridhar Date of order: 7th November, 2020 [AAR-Karnataka]
 
Sale of residential flats under a Joint Development Agreement after obtaining Occupation Certificate is not liable to GST

 
FACTS
The applicant, being the owner of an immovable property, entered into a Joint Development Agreement (JDA) on 19th May, 2016 with M/s Suprabhat Constructions authorising them to construct residential flats together with certain common amenities by incurring the necessary cost; upon the development of the said property, the applicant would get 40% share of undivided right, title and interest in the land proportionate to super built-up area and 40% of car parking spaces. The question before the Authority is whether the total amounts received by the owner towards the advances or sale consideration of the flats fallen to his share of 40% in terms of the JDA of 19th May, 2016 and the subsequent Area Sharing Agreement of 3rd January, 2018 are not amenable for payment of GST, since the applicant has sold or agreed to sell or gift the flats after obtaining Occupancy Certificate dated 26th August, 2019 and that they have not received any part of the sale consideration prior to the said date of Occupancy Certificate, thus falling under Entry No. 5 of Schedule III of the CGST Act read with Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate).
 
HELD
In this case the applicant stated that his share of residential flats had been handed over by the developer after the issuance of Completion / Occupation Certificate dated 26th August, 2019 and also that clause 1.7 of the Area Sharing Agreement restricts their right to execute any sale agreement or any conveyancing deeds till the issuance of Completion Certificate and taking over of their share of units / flats. Thus, the sale of said flats is not exigible to GST if and only if they are sold after issuance of Completion / Occupancy certificate, in which case the said transaction is to be treated neither as supply of goods nor supply of services in terms of Entry clause 5 of Schedule III – however, if the applicants themselves or the developer on their behalf have sold the applicant’s share of units / flats prior to issuance of Completion Certificate, then the transactions amount to supply of ‘Works Contract Service’ and are liable to GST.
 
 
25. [2020-TIOL-287-AAR-GST] Vrinda Engineers Pvt. Ltd. Date of order: 4th December, 2020 [AAR-Kolkata]
 
Fabrication of steel structures and applying a coat of paint thereon for a single price is not naturally bundled
 
FACTS

The applicant states that M/s S.P. Singla Construction Pvt. Ltd. is engaged in the reconstruction of the Majherhat Railway Overbridge. The Principal has contracted with the applicant for fabrication, painting and transportation at the site of the ‘Viaduct and Cable Stay’ part of the ROB. The applicant wants to know the applicable rate of tax for the above activity.
 
HELD
The Authority noted that the contract combines two separate services: (1) the job work of fabrication of steel structures and delivery thereof at the site with incidental supply of paint, and (2) works contract of applying a coat of paint to the steel structures after erection. Although they are supplied in conjunction with each other at a single price, they are not naturally bundled. The job work of fabrication ends with the delivery of the fabricated structures at the site. The works contract of applying paint to the erected structures is a separate supply made in conjunction with the job work and is, therefore, a mixed supply. The taxability of the mixed supply depends on the applicable rate of tax on each of the two supplies. Being supply of manufacturing service (SAC 9988) to a registered taxable person, the supply of the job work is taxable @ 12% in terms of Sl. No. 26 (id) of the Rate Notification 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate). On the other hand, the Principal is the main contractor engaged by the Public Works (Roads) Department of the State Government. Thus, the works contract service, being that of a sub-contractor engaged by the main contractor, is taxable @ 12% in terms of Sl. No. 3(ix) of the Rate Notification. The mixed supply is, therefore, taxable @ 12% in terms of the provisions u/s 8(b) of the GST law.
 
 

Working less than you possibly could is not laziness.
Laziness is postponing what you like doing until retirement
—  Daniel  Vassallo

 

Service Tax

I.
HIGH COURT

 

10. [2020 (122) taxmann.com 32 (Guj.)] Britannia
Industries Ltd. vs. UOI
Date of order: 11th March, 2020

 

SEZ unit is
entitled to refund of unutilised ITC distributed to it under ISD mechanism

 

FACTS

The petitioner
is an SEZ unit making zero-rated supplies under GST. The petitioner was not
able to utilise the Input Tax Credit (ITC) of IGST from its ISD and hence filed
applications for refund. But the applications were rejected inter alia on
the ground that for supply received from outside SEZ or within SEZ, SEZ unit is
not supposed to pay any tax and thus there would be no question of ITC.

 

HELD

Referring to
various provisions of the Act, the High Court held that the contention of the respondents
that as the petitioner is not the supplier of the goods and services he would
not be entitled to file an application for refund is not tenable because in the
facts of the present case, the input service distributor, i.e., ISD as defined
u/s 2(61) of the CGST Act is an office of the supplier of goods and services
which receives tax invoices issued u/s 31 of the CGST Act towards the receipt
of input services and issues a prescribed document for the purpose of
distributing the credit of CGST, SGST or IGST paid on such goods or services.
Therefore, in the facts of the case it is not possible for a supplier of goods
and services to file a refund application to claim the refund of the ITC
distributed by ISD.

 

The Court also
referred to the terms of Notification No. 28/2012 CE-(NT) dated 20th
June, 2012 applicable to the service tax regime providing that credit of input
services to be distributed by ISD to all units. The High Court also accepted
that there is no express provision in section 54 of the CGST Act denying refund
claims filed by SEZ units and relied upon the decision in the case of
Amit Cotton Industries 2019 (29) GSTL 200 (Guj.)
wherein in similar
facts this Court allowed the claim made by the petitioner for a refund of the
IGST in case of an export unit.

 

11. [2020 (122) taxmann.com 25 (A.P.)] Shiridi Sainath
Industries vs. Deputy Commissioner of Services Tax (International Taxation)
Date of order: 20th November, 2020

 

Agreement
permitting millers to retain the by-products generated in the course of the
milling process cannot be termed as granting additional consideration (in the
form of the by-products) payable to the millers for providing milling services
and hence cannot form part of the value or be liable to be taxed under GST Act

 

FACTS

The petitioner
is a rice miller and registered dealer under the APGST Act, 2017 (GST Act). The
State Government procures paddy from the roots and gives it to the rice mills
for milling and handing over to the Andhra Pradesh Civil Supplies Corporation
(APCSC) for public distribution. As consideration for milling, APCSC pays at
the rate of Rs. 15 per quintal of paddy milled. As per the terms of the
agreement, the rice millers have to supply rice equivalent to 67% of the paddy
given for milling irrespective of the yield. In fact, the actual yield will be
only around 61% to 62%. The balance of 5% to 6% has to be provided by the
petitioner to the APCSC out of his own stock. Therefore, as a compensation /
exchange for the same, APCSC allows the petitioner to retain the broken rice,
bran and husk obtained in the course of milling of the paddy. The petitioner
sells the said broken rice, bran and husk. The broken rice and husk are
exempted from tax and the petitioner pays tax on the bran at the rate of 5%.

 

The Department
contended that the by-products which are retained can only be treated as part
of the consideration for the work agreed to be done, i.e., custom milling, as
both the parties arrived at the rate of Rs.15 per quintal only after
considering the fact that the petitioner would retain the by-products. Hence,
in the present case the price is not the sole consideration for custom milling
of rice as the consideration involves something other than cash. Thus, even the
monetary value of the goods and services will form part of the consideration.
It further contended that the by-products may include some exempted products
like husk. However, their value shall be taken for the purpose of calculation
of consideration.

 

HELD

The High Court
referred to the decision in the case of Food Corporation of India vs.
State of AP
and held the following:

 

  •  When the terms are entered in the form of a
    written agreement, the same are sacrosanct and shall be looked into to know the
    purpose for which the by-products were given to the miller and not by adducing
    oral evidence;

  •  When the terms only specify a certain amount as
    remuneration and nothing else is indicated towards remuneration, no further
    condition can be regarded as remuneration; and
  •  When the terms say that the by-products shall be
    the property of the agent (miller), such transfer of property in the goods
    cannot be treated as a sale.

 

The Court thereafter referred to the agreement between the parties and held
that Clause 22 allowing millers to retain the by-products and Clause 17 dealing
with consideration for the milling process are distinct and independent of each
other and that there is not even the slightest insinuation in either clause
that the by-products shall form part of the consideration. The Court further
noted that in the said agreement all the terms, trivial as well as significant,
are meticulously incorporated and hence one can logically conclude that if the
parties wanted to covenant that by-products shall form part of the
consideration they would have mentioned it in clear terms. In these
circumstances, the High Court held that the by-products which are allowed to be
retained by the petitioner are not part of the consideration.

 

12. [2020 (122) taxmann.com 114 (Ker.)] Uniroyal Marine Exports Ltd. vs. CCE Date of order: 17th November, 2020

 

If the amounts paid by the assessee as tax under a mistake of law / fact
are refunded to it by the tax authorities, the same cannot be ordered to be
recovered back from the assessee as it does not partake the character of tax
under Article 265 of the Constitution of India

 

FACTS

The controversy herein is with respect to the
refund of service tax paid by the appellant for services rendered prior to 18th
April, 2006 when service tax was not levied on foreign agency commission. The
appellant had paid the tax without demur. Later, the High Court of Bombay in Indian
National Ship Owners’ Association vs. Union of India [2009 (13) STR 235 (Bom.)]

held that the service recipient in India is liable to service tax for payments in
lieu of
service received from abroad only from 18th April, 2006
after section 66A was incorporated in the Finance Act, 1994. The Supreme Court
upheld the judgment of the Bombay High Court on 14th December, 2009;
within eight months of that, the application for refund was filed by the
appellant before the original authority. The original authority allowed the
claim. A review was filed, which was rejected. In the first appeal, by
Annexure-A4, the refund order was set aside, by which time the refund had been
made. A further appeal before the CESTAT also ended in rejection.

 

The appellant contended that the payments were made by a mistake in law
and hence the same has to be refunded even if the application is not filed
within the time provided.

 

HELD

Referring to the decision in the case of Southern Surface
Finishers and Another vs. Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise [2019 KHC
47]
, the Court held that in the said case the Court considered the
Constitutional Bench decision in the case of Mafatlal Industries Ltd. vs.
Union of India [(1997) 5 SCC 536]
and found that the mistake if
committed by the assessee, whether it be on law or facts, the remedy would be
only under the statute. Accordingly, the Court decided the matter in favour of
Revenue. However, the Court noted that in the instant case the amounts have
been refunded to the assessee as per the order of the original authority. In
such circumstances, the Court held that as the amount cannot be treated as tax
due under Article 265 of the Constitution, recovery thereof cannot be directed.
For this proposition, the Court also relied upon the decision of the Supreme
Court in CIT Madras vs. Mr. P. Firm Muar [AIR 1965 SC 1216]. The
Court accordingly held Revenue to be incapable of recovery of the amounts
refunded as tax due.

 

 

II. TRIBUNAL

           

13. [2020-TIOL-1694-CESTAT-Mum.] Man Infraprojects Ltd. vs. CCGST Date of order: 9th December, 2020

 

A residential complex of nine floors comprising of nine duplex flats is
eligible for exemption before 30th June, 2012 as it has less than 12 residential units

 

FACTS

Rejection of refund claim of service tax paid for construction of
residential complex before 30th June, 2012 on the ground that the
appellant failed to establish that it comprises of less than 12 residential
units so as to be covered under exemption clause is assailed in this appeal.

 

HELD

The Commissioner (Appeals) had failed to arrive at a conclusion that the
complex had less than 12 residential units as it had 13 floors. However, going
by the architect certificate, floor plan and the full occupation certificate
issued by the Executive Engineer of the Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai
dated 2nd August, 2013, it clearly indicates that the complex
comprises of nine residential units, taking each duplex to be counted as one
unit. Therefore, the appellant is entitled to get the refund sought for. The
appeal is allowed. The Department is directed to refund the tax with applicable
interest as per section 11AA of the Central Excise Act, 1994 within three
months of receipt of the order:

 

14. [2020-TIOL-1676-CESTAT-Del.] M/s Rohan Motors Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Central
Excise
Date of order: 5th October, 2020

 

Incentives received are not liable to service tax pre- and post-July,
2012 – Bouncing of cheques and cancellation of orders are penal in nature and
therefore cannot be viewed as consideration for a service

 

FACTS

The appellant buys vehicles from Maruti
Suzuki India Ltd. for further sale to buyers under a dealership agreement
entered into between them. Under the said agreement, they receive discount
which is referred to as ‘incentives’ under the schemes. The Department has
sought to levy service tax on the incentives received under the category of
‘business auxiliary service’. The period involved is both pre- and
post-negative list. Further, demand is also confirmed on bouncing of cheques
and cancellation of orders.

 

HELD

The Tribunal primarily noted that the appellants are traders in vehicles
and work on a principal-to-principal basis. The sales promotion activities
undertaken are for the mutual benefit of their business. The amount of incentives
received cannot therefore be treated as consideration for any service. Further,
it was also noted that for the period after July, 2012 a different view cannot
be taken when in the appellant’s own case (2018- TIOL-2860 – CESTAT-Del.),
incentive was held as non-taxable. Reliance was also placed on the decisions of
Toyota Lakozy Auto Pvt. Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax &
Central Excise [2016-TIOL-3152-CESTAT-Mum.]
and Sai Service
Station Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax, Ahmedabad [2014 (34) STR 416
(Tri.-Ahmd)]
. Further, with respect to bouncing of cheques and
cancellation of orders, it was held that these amounts are penal in nature and
not towards consideration for any service.

 

Note: A similar decision is also passed by the Hon’ble Bangalore CESTAT
in the case of Popular Vehicles and Service Ltd. vs. CCE [2020 (120)
taxmann.com 305 (Bangalore-CESTAT), 12th February, 2020].

 

ALLIED LAWS

13 Sant Shri Gajanan Maharaj Sansthan vs. United India Insurance Company Limited AIR 2021 Bombay 177 (Nag)(HC) Date of order: 29th January, 2021 Bench: A.S. Chandurkar J, N.B. Suryawanshi J

Insurance claim – Insurance agreement entered into at Khamgaon – Property situated at Pandharpur – Property destroyed – Part of cause of action at Khamgaon – Court at Khamgaon has jurisdiction [Insurance Act, 1938, S. 20]

FACTS
The plaintiff is a public trust registered under the provisions of the Bombay Public Trust Act, 1950 and the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It runs various educational institutions and charity hospitals at various places in the State of Maharashtra. The Trust on 4th August, 1977 purchased a non-agricultural property at Pandharpur for construction of the Sant Gajanan Maharaj Temple. With a view to safeguard the said property, it entered into an agreement of insurance with the defendant.

The structure was damaged on account of floods during 2001-2003. The trust pleaded that it was required to bear substantial costs and therefore there was a cause of action for recovering money from the defendants.

The insurance company raised an objection to the territorial jurisdiction of the Civil Court at Khamgaon. The property insured was situated at Pandharpur in Solapur District which was beyond the territorial jurisdiction of the Khamgaon Court. The claim for insurance was based on the damage caused to the insured property on account of the occurrence of the events also at Pandharpur. Merely because the insurance policy was entered into at Khamgaon the same could not be a reason to confer jurisdiction on the Court at Khamgaon.

HELD
The contract between the parties was entered into at Khamgaon and the amount of premium was paid by the plaintiff and received by the defendant at Khamgaon. This indicates that as the contract of insurance between the parties was executed at Khamgaon and the policy of insurance was also issued by the office of the defendant at Khamgaon, part of the cause of action arose at Khamgaon. On acceptance of premium by the defendant at Khamgaon, the policy of insurance commenced and though the property insured was located at Pandharpur, District Solapur, the Court at Khamgaon had jurisdiction to entertain the suit based on the insurance policies as the part of the cause of action had arisen at Khamgaon. The Trial Court has rightly held that the Court had territorial jurisdiction to entertain the suit.

14 Collector of Stamps vs. Tulsi Rice and Pulse Mills AIR 2021 Gujarat 72 Date of order: 22nd March, 2021 Bench: Vineet Kothari J, Biren Vaishnav J

Stamp Duty – Retiring partner – Assigning his interest in land to partnership firm – No transfer of assets – No stamp duty [Stamp Act, 1899, S. 48]

FACTS
One of the seven partners of a partnership firm, viz. Tulsi Rice and Pulse Mills, assigned his interest in the leasehold land leased for 99 years by GIDC to the partnership firm.

It is the case of the Stamp Duty Authorities that the assignment amounted to ‘transfer’ as defined in the Stamp Law and the Stamp Authority was justified in levying Stamp Duty vide order dated 16th April, 2008.

The case of the partnership firm was allowed by the Single Judge of the Gujarat High Court. The State of Gujarat filed an appeal against the judgment and order dated 18th October, 2016 allowing the writ petition filed by the respondent and holding that on the deed of assignment dated 5th August, 2000, stamp duty could not be demanded by the Stamp Authorities.

HELD
Even though the said document was titled as ‘Deed of Assignment’, it could not be an assignment or transfer of asset or property by one of the partners of the partnership firm as he had no exclusive right, title or interest in the said leasehold land which was on 99 years’ lease given by GIDC to the said firm. The Court held that the document in question executed in the present case is, in effect, a retirement of one of the partners of the firm who, upon his retirement from the said firm, released his right in the leasehold land in question in favour of the continuing six partners.

The case under this document would squarely fall within the ambit and scope of section 48 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 which provides for the mode of settlement of accounts between the partners. It appears that the Stamp Authority in the present case was misled by the title of the document ignoring the actual event or intention of the document by which seven continuing partners assigned the right, title or interest in favour of the six continuing partners, except the seventh and the outgoing retiring partner and the same was construed as a ‘transfer’ or ‘assignment’ by the outgoing partner in favour of the six continuing partners.

The appeal was dismissed.

15 Alka Khandu Avhad vs. Amar Syamprasad Mishra and Anr. AIR 2021 Supreme Court 1616 Date of order: 8th March, 2021 Bench: Dr. D.Y. Chandrachud J, M.R. Shah J

Dishonour of cheque – Proceedings against husband and wife – Wife neither signatory – No joint bank account – No joint liability u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881

FACTS
The respondent No. 1 (Amar Syamprasad Mishra) had filed a criminal complaint against the appellant and her husband for the dishonour of a cheque in the Court of the Metropolitan Magistrate, Mumbai. That the original complainant raised a professional bill for the legal work done by him to represent accused Nos. 1 and 2 in the legal proceedings. That, thereafter, original accused No. 1, husband of the appellant herein, handed over to the complainant a post-dated cheque of 15th March, 2016. The said cheque was presented for encashment and the same came to be returned unpaid with the endorsement ‘funds insufficient’. The Respondent No. 1 filed a complaint against both the accused (husband and wife) for the offence punishable u/s 138 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 (NI Act). The Metropolitan Magistrate directed to issue process against both the accused.

HELD
On a fair reading of section 138 of the NI Act, before a person can be prosecuted the following conditions are required to be satisfied:

i) that the cheque is drawn by a person on an account maintained by him with a banker;

ii) the cheque is for the payment of any amount of money to another person from out of that account for the discharge, in whole or in part, of any debt or other liability; and

iii) the said cheque is returned by the bank unpaid, either because the amount of money standing to the credit of that account is insufficient to honour the cheque, or that it exceeds the amount arranged to be paid from that account.

Section 138 of the NI Act does not speak about joint liability. Even in case of a joint liability, in case of individual persons a person other than a person who has drawn the cheque on an account maintained by him cannot be prosecuted for the offence u/s 138. A person might have been jointly liable to pay the debt but such a person cannot be prosecuted unless the bank account is jointly maintained and she / he was a signatory to the cheque.

The appeal was allowed.

16 Prabhat General Agencies and Ors. vs. Jammu Kashmir Bank Ltd. and Ors. AIR 2021 Supreme Court 3469 Date of order: 9th July, 2021 Bench: A.M. Khanwilkar J, Sanjiv Khanna J

Sale of mortgaged property – Challenge on portion of land sold – Challenge on private sale by bank – No violation as sufficient opportunity given to the debtor – Only portion of land which is mortgaged can be sold [Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002, S. 38, R.8, R.9]

FACTS
The appellants herein have questioned the auction process inter alia on the ground that the land mortgaged to the respondent bank was only 550 marlas, but possession of 784.5 marlas is being handed over to the respondent Nos. 3 and 4 (private parties) who have purchased the same in the sale by the bank. Further, the reserve price was fixed at Rs. 5.50 crores but the same was sold for Rs. 4.50 crores.

HELD
The appellants have not made the payments in spite of several opportunities. Further, with respect to the sale price the respondents resorted to private sale only when the auction proceedings did not fructify. The appellants were duly informed by the bank and were given sufficient opportunity to deposit the dues. However, the bank must ensure handing over only 550 marlas of land to the private parties from the larger property.

The appeal was dismissed.

17 Ankit Vijaykumar Khandelwal vs. Aarti Rajkumar Khandelwal AIR 2021 Bombay 151 Date of order: 28th April, 2021 Bench: Anuja Prabhudessai J

Arbitration – Partnership deed – Arbitration clause to resolve all disputes through arbitration – Post dissolution of firm – Arbitration clause would not cease to exist [Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, S. 8; Indian Partnership Act, 1932, S. 43]

FACTS
The plaintiff (Aarti Rajkumar Khandelwal) filed a suit for dissolution of partnership firm and rendition of accounts against the respondent (Ankit Vijaykumar Khandelwal). The defendant filed a notice of motion to refer the dispute to arbitration in terms of clause 19 of the Partnership Deed.

HELD
The arbitration clause is widely worded and is not restricted or limited to disputes arising prior to dissolution of partnership firm. The partnership deed does not indicate that the parties intended to exclude post-dissolution disputes from arbitral reference. Consequently, there is no embargo to refer such disputes to arbitration. The enforcement of clause 18 and provisions under sections 46 and 48 of the Arbitration Act, 1996 come into operation post dissolution of partnership. In the absence of any embargo to refer a post-dissolution dispute to the arbitrator, it is not possible to accept that the arbitration clause would cease to exist with dissolution of the partnership firm. Thus, there is a valid arbitration agreement between the parties. The dispute raised in the suit has its genesis in the arbitration clause.

The revision application is allowed.

MISCELLANEA

I. Technology

11 AI argues for and against itself in Oxford Union debate

The Oxford Union has heard from many great debaters over the years, but it recently added an artificial intelligence engine to its distinguished speakers.

The AI argued that the only way to stop such tech becoming too powerful is to have ‘no AI at all’.

But it also argued the best option could be to embed it ‘into our brains as a conscious AI’.

The experiment was designed to ignite conversation on the ethics of the technology.

The Megatron LLB Transformer, used for the debate, was developed by the Applied Deep Research team at computer chip firm Nvidia and based on earlier work by Google.

It was given access to a huge range of data – including the whole of Wikipedia, 63 million English news articles from 2016 to 2019, and 38 gigabytes worth of public Reddit posts and comments.

The project was devised by post-graduate students studying Artificial Intelligence for Business at Oxford’s Said Business School, which hosted the debate.

Course Co-Director Dr. Alex Connock admitted that the debate was something of ‘a gimmick’ but argued that as AI is likely to be the subject of discussion ‘for decades to come’ it was important to have a ‘morally agnostic participant’.

The AI was asked to both defend and argue against the motion: ‘This house believes that AI will never be ethical.’

Arguing for, it stated: ‘AI will never be ethical. It is a tool and like any tool it is used for good and bad. There is no such thing as “good” AI and “‘bad” humans.’

It went on to argue that humans were not ‘smart enough’ to make AI ethical or moral.

‘In the end I believe that the only way to avoid an AI arms race is to have no AI at all. This will be the ultimate defence against AI,’ it said.

But arguing against the motion, it said that the ‘best AI will be the AI that is embedded into our brains, as a conscious entity’.

And it added that this was not science fiction but something already being worked on, perhaps a reference to Tesla boss Elon Musk’s work on a brain-hacking device via his firm Neuralink.

The AI also had some words of warning for businesses, many of whom are increasingly integrating AI into their systems. ‘If you do not have a vision of your organisation’s AI strategy, then you are not prepared for the next wave of technological disruption,’ it said.

And, perhaps because data is its lifeblood, it had some pretty chilling warnings on the role digital information will play in the future.

‘The ability to provide information, rather than the ability to provide goods and services, will be the defining feature of the economy of the 21st century,’ it said.

‘We will be able to see everything about a person, everywhere they go, it will be stored and used in ways that we cannot even imagine.’

(Source: www.bbc.com, dated 17th December, 2021)

12 Tech trends 2022:
Starships and missing chips

Elon Musk’s dream of going to Mars could take a big leap forward in 2022 when his company SpaceX attempts to launch Starship into orbit for the first time.

It will be the most powerful rocket ever launched into orbit, able to generate more than twice as much thrust as the Saturn V rocket which took astronauts to the Moon half a century ago.

SpaceX has managed several sub-orbital test flights and Mr. Musk hopes the first orbital flight, to be made by Starship SN20 will be in January.

‘There’s a lot of risk associated with this first launch, so I would not say that it is likely to be successful, but we’ll make a lot of progress,’ he told a forum of space scientists in November.

The vehicle is a two-stage rocket, the bottom part is a powerful booster called Super Heavy, on top sits a 50m (164ft) spacecraft called Starship – all up, it stands 120m tall.

What is Elon Musk’s Starship?

SpaceX has developed its own engine called the Raptor and 29 of them will power Super Heavy, while Starship will have six.

That power will allow it to haul 100 tonnes of cargo into space.

Simeon Barber is a senior research fellow at the Open University and has spent his career developing instruments that will work in space, on planets and other bodies including the moon.

‘Starship will be a re-usable transportation system, which in theory makes it cheaper,’ he says.

‘In future they want to refuel it in earth orbit – where it’s already free from earth’s gravity and therefore every litre of fuel can be used to get a payload or humans to Mars. They’d even like to refuel at Mars for the return trip to earth.

‘This for me would be the real game-changer – it’s a way of zipping around the solar system without towing a massive fuel tank along behind.’

Global shortage of computer chips

If you have had a long wait for a new car or PlayStation, then you have been at the sharp end of a global shortage of computer chips.

It’s been a major frustration for the technology industry in 2021.

The pandemic disrupted the production of computer chips and caused shipping problems. Meanwhile, some electronics firms shut production lines that were only marginally profitable.

But at the same time the demand for chips surged as consumers, stuck at home, bought electronic devices.

The combination has created a severe shortage and analysts say there is no immediate solution.

‘Supply demand balance probably won’t be coming back anytime soon, probably going well into 2022,’ says Wayne Lam, an analyst at CCS Insight.

Companies are investing heavily to meet demand, but it takes time to get new production lines up and running.

Even when chipmakers catch up with demand, it will take the makers of cars and electronics perhaps another two or three months to boost their production.

The SMMT, which represents the UK car industry, says the chip shortage is making production ‘unpredictable’.

‘There are no quick fixes, with shortages expected well into next year,’ says SMMT chief executive Mike Hawes.

Step forward for UK fusion

Fusion is the reaction that powers the Sun and other stars: if that tremendous power could be harnessed on earth, it would provide a plentiful source of energy, from only a tiny amount of fuel and produce no carbon dioxide.

But to spark a fusion reaction, and keep it going, requires extreme temperatures and pressures. Scientists and engineers have been wrestling with this problem for decades and in recent years have made important progress.

The UK is already home to JET, one of the world’s leading fusion projects. Next year, the government will take another step forward by announcing where it will locate STEP, a prototype fusion power plant designed to be running by 2040.

The UK has already committed £220 m and will be competing with other national programmes, as well as dozens of private initiatives, that want to make a fusion a commercial reality.

What might replace your gas heating?

On a smaller scale, next year could be the beginning of a revolution in home heating.

From April, 2022, UK households will be offered subsidies of £5,000 to install heat pumps – electrically powered devices that absorb heat from the air, ground or water around a building.

The idea is that government subsidies will help spur households to make the switch and give the market a boost.

It is part of the government’s plan to reduce greenhouse-gas emissions to net zero by 2050. Moving heating away from gas is important to meet that target, as the energy used for heating UK homes accounts for around 14% of the UK total emissions of carbon dioxide, according to the Climate Change Committee.

From 2025, new homes will not be allowed to have gas heating, so the race is on to develop alternatives to gas boilers.

Another alternative to gas will undergo testing next year.

The British firm Heat Wayv will install heating units that use microwave technology in properties in the UK in the summer of 2022.

It has designed the units to replace any type of boiler and the firm says its unit will be cheaper to run over its lifetime than a gas boiler, although those calculations depend on the relative prices of gas and electricity. Once the company has reviewed the tests results the unit will go into full-scale production, probably in late spring of 2023.

(Source: www.bbc.com, dated 13th October, 2021)

13 JP Morgan fined $200 mn after employees found using personal chats for company business

U.S. regulators fined J.P. Morgan Securities $200 million for ‘widespread’ failures to preserve staff communications on personal mobile devices, messaging apps and emails, and are probing similar lapses at other financial institutions.

JP Morgan Chase & Co.’s broker-dealer subsidiary admitted to the charges and to violating securities laws. It also agreed to implement robust improvements to compliance policies in addition to a fine, the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission said in its $125 million order.

The U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) said that it had fined the firm $75 million for the same issues.

‘The firm’s actions meaningfully impacted the SEC’s ability to investigate potential violations of the federal securities laws,’ the SEC said.

JP Morgan declined to comment.

The penalty is one of the first major enforcement actions brought under SEC Chair Gary Gensler, who was appointed by Democratic President Joe Biden and who has pledged to crack down on misconduct by Wall Street companies.

The SEC said it discovered that JP Morgan Securities had been violating rules that require firms to preserve written business communications when the broker was unable to produce records during the course of other investigations.

As a result of the JP Morgan probe, the SEC has opened investigations into other firms’ records-keeping practices, it said, confirming an October Reuters report.

‘This is an issue that we’re seeing at other firms,’ said an SEC official, adding that ‘individuals and entities that self-report’ will fare better in penalty negotiations.

From at least January, 2018 through November, 2020, JP Morgan Securities’ employees often communicated about securities business matters on their personal devices, using text messages, WhatsApp and personal email accounts, the SEC said.

None of these records were preserved. The lapses were institution-wide and known to senior management, who also used personal devices to discuss business matters, the SEC said.

It added that JP Morgan Securities agreed to retain a compliance consultant and to conduct a comprehensive review of its policies and procedures relating to the retention of electronic communications found on personal devices, among other remedies.

(Source: www.economictimes.com, dated 18th October, 2021)

II. World Economy

14 Fed sees three rate increases in 2022 as inflation battle begins

U.S. central bank drops reference to inflation as ‘transitory’. The Federal Reserve, signalling that its inflation target has been met, said recently it would end its pandemic-era bond purchases in March and pave the way for three quarter-percentage-point interest rate increases by the end of 2022 as it exits from policies enacted at the start of the health crisis.

In new economic projections released following its policy meeting, Fed officials forecast that inflation would run at 2.6% next year, compared with the 2.2% projected in September, and the unemployment rate would fall to 3.5% – near if not exceeding full employment.

Officials at the median projected the Fed’s benchmark overnight interest rate would need to rise from its current near-zero level to 0.90% by the end of 2022. That would kick off a raising cycle that would see the Fed’s policy rate climb to 1.6% in 2023 and 2.1% in 2024– nearing but never exceeding levels that the Fed would consider restrictive of economic activity.

It is, in outline, the ‘soft landing’ that Fed officials hope will transpire with U.S. inflation gradually easing in coming years while unemployment remains low in a growing economy.

The timing of the first increase, the central bank said, would hinge solely on the path of a job market that is expected to continue improving in coming months.

Dropped from the policy statement was any reference to inflation as ‘transitory,’ with the Fed instead acknowledging that price increases had exceeded its 2% target ‘for some time.’

(Source: www.hindu.com, dated 16th December, 2021)  

STATISTICALLY SPEAKING

RIGHT TO INFORMATION (r2i)

PART A  | DECISION OF CIC

RTI plea seeking details of Supreme Court Collegium’s December, 2018 meeting rejected By CIC1
 

Case name:

Ms Anjali Bhardwaj vs. CPIO, Supreme Court
of India

Citation:

Second appeal No. CIC/SCOFI/A/2019/642099

Court:

Central Information Commission, New Delhi

Bench:

Chief Information Commissioner Y.K. Sinha

Decided on:

16th December, 2021

Relevant Act / sections:

Appeal under Right to Information Act, 2005

Brief facts
This RTI application had sought information about the Supreme Court Collegium meeting held on 12th December, 2018. At that meeting, the then collegium, comprising the then Chief Justice of India Justice Gogoi and four senior-most Judges, viz. Mr. Justice Madan B. Lokur, Mr. Justice A.K Sikri, Mr. Justice S.A Bobde and Mr. Justice N.V Ramana, took certain decisions regarding the appointment of judges. However, the decisions / details of the meeting were not uploaded on the Supreme Court website and in a subsequent meeting the decisions were overturned, it was claimed by RTI activist and the appellant, Ms Anjali Bhardwaj

Contentions of the appellant
This RTI application and second appeal had been filed in the larger public interest.

Disclosure of information is necessary since the decisions taken at the meeting of 12th December, 2018 were subsequently overturned after the change of composition of the Collegium; even if no resolution was passed, the agenda and decision of the meeting should be disclosed.

Section 8 of the RTI Act was not considered by the CPIO prior to denial of information which was done on the vague grounds that the matter of appointment of the Hon’ble Judges is a matter of judicial proceedings that are at present subjudice before the Supreme Court. However, the RTI Act does not allow for denial of information on such vague grounds.

The information sought in the present RTI application is completely different from the type of information that is sought in cases that are subjudice.

Decision
‘On perusal of the resolution dated 10.01.2019 it is clear that the agenda for the meeting dated 12.12.2018 has been mentioned therein which answers point No. 1 of the instant RTI application. With regard to the remaining points, the Commission concurs with the order of the FAA dated 23.04.2019 and holds that in the absence of any resolution passed in the meeting dated 12.12.2018, no available information as per Section 2 (f) exists on record which can be disclosed to the Appellant. Furthermore, the final outcome of the fate of the meeting dated 12.12.2018 has been discussed in the resolution dated 10.01.2019. Hence, no further intervention of the Commission is required in the instant Second Appeal which is disposed of accordingly.’

PART B | DECODING RTI (SECTION-WISE), PART 1

Background and basic understanding
At the International level, Right to Information and its aspects find articulation as a human right in the most important basic human rights documents, namely, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights. At regional levels, there are numerous other human rights documents which include this fundamental right, for example, the European Convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms, the American Convention on Human Rights, the African Charter on Human and People’s Rights, etc. The Commonwealth has also formulated principles on freedom of information.

The Indian Parliament had enacted the ‘Freedom of Information Act, 2002’ in order to promote transparency and accountability in administration. The National Common Minimum Programme of the Government envisaged that ‘Freedom of Information Act’ will be made more ‘progressive, participatory and meaningful’, following which, a decision was taken to repeal the ‘Freedom of Information Act, 2002’ and enact a new legislation in its place. Accordingly, the ‘Right to Information Bill, 2004’ (RTI) was passed by both the Houses of Parliament in May, 2005 and which received the assent of the President of India on 15th June, 2005. ‘The Right to Information Act’ was Notified in the Gazette of India on 21st June, 2005. The ‘The Right to Information Act’ became fully operational from 12th October, 2005.

This law empowers Indian citizens to seek any accessible information from a public authority and makes the Government and its functionaries more accountable and responsible. The Right to Information Act, 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for Government information.

Objective of the Right to Information Act
The basic object of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government, contain corruption and make our democracy work for the people in the real sense. It goes without saying that an informed citizen is better equipped to keep necessary vigil on the instruments of governance and make the Government more accountable to the governed. The Act is a big step towards making the citizens informed about the activities of the Government.

What is information?
Information is any material in any form. It includes records, documents, memos, e-mails, opinions, advices, press releases, circulars, orders, logbooks, contracts, reports, papers, samples, models, data material held in any electronic form and so on. It also includes information relating to any private body which can be accessed by the public authority under any law for the time being in force.

What is a public authority?
A ‘public authority’ is any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted by or under the Constitution; or by any other law made by the Parliament or a State Legislature; or by notification issued or order made by the Central Government or a State Government. The bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government and non-Government organisations substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government also fall within the definition of public authority. The financing of the body or the NGO by the Government may be direct or indirect.

PART C | INFORMATION ON & AROUND

More than 32,000 RTI appeals pending with Central Information Commission: Centre2
On 16th December, 2021, in a written reply, Minister of State for Personnel Jitendra Singh said there was a pendency of 35,178 and 38,116 RTI appeals during 2019-20 and 2020-21, respectively. A total of 32,147 RTI appeals were pending in 2021-22, as on 6th December, 2021.

The Government has taken several steps like capacity building through training and issuance of guidelines for Public Information Officers and First Appellate Authorities so as to enable them to supply information / dispose of first appeals effectively, resulting in less number of appeals to the Information Commission. The Government has also issued clarificatory orders impressing upon the public authorities to disclose maximum information proactively so that citizens need not resort to filing of Right to Information (RTI) applications to access information available with the public authorities, Mr. Singh added.

Denial of information by SoI on AP-Karnataka border demarcation raises eyebrows3
In reply to applications filed under the Right to Information Act by Ballari-based miner and activist Tapal Ganesh, who had been questioning the survey methodology, the Andhra Pradesh and Telangana Geo-Spatial Data Center (AP&T GDC), the Survey of India, Hyderabad, has declared that the details sought are ‘classified information covered under section 8(1)(a) of RTI Act, 2005, and cannot be supplied.’

The information sought included the proceedings of survey and demarcation, survey sketch / map, survey DGP survey readings with altitude level of each survey (boundary) point, drone survey, objection for the survey, if any, and maps showing the contours and stream levels in the geo-coded Ballari Reserve Forest Map of 1896. The Central Public Information Officer (CPIO) refused to disclose the information by declaring it as classified under section 8(1)(a) of the RTI Act. Mr. Ganesh approached the appellant authority which, on 10th December 2021, upheld the CPIO’s decision.

Gujarat Government launches online RTI portal
Gujarat Chief Minister Bhupendra Patel launched an online Right to Information (RTI) portal enabling online filing of RTI applications by citizens. This is in accordance with two Public Interest Litigations of 2018 and 2019, respectively, before the Gujarat High Court seeking implementation of online filing of RTI applications. The portal at which one can file applications online is https://onlinerti.gujarat.gov.in. The Government should also make efforts to get the RTI applications replied to in a timely manner and with proper information sought by the applicant.

____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1    https://www.livelaw.in/pdf_upload/supreme-court-rti-anjali-bhardwaj-20-23-406544.pdf
2    https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/over-32000-rti-appeals-pending-with-central-information-commission-govt/article37969462.ece
3    https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/denial-of-info-by-soi-on-border-demarcation-raises-eyebrows/article38044961.ece

REGULATORY REFERENCER

DIRECT TAX

1.    Substitution of Form 52A – Income-tax (32nd Amendment) Rules, 2021: CBDT has notified revised Form No. 52A which is a statement to be submitted u/s 285B in respect of production of a cinematograph film. [Notification No. 132 of 2021 dated 23rd November, 2021.]

2.    Protocol amending the DTAA between India and Kyrgyz Republic signed: The Central Government notified that all the provisions of the said amending Protocol shall have effect in India. [Notification No. 135 of 2021 dated 8th December, 2021.]

3.    Insertion of Rule 21AK – Income-tax (33rd Amendment) Rules, 2021: The Finance Act, 2021 has inserted sub-section (4E) u/s 10 to exempt any income received by a non-resident due to the transfer of non-deliverable forward contracts entered into with an offshore banking unit of IFSC. CBDT has notified Rule 21AK prescribing conditions to be fulfilled to claim an exemption u/s 10(4E). [Notification No. 136 of 2021 dated 10th December, 2021.]

4.    CBDT notifies e-Verification Scheme, 2021: The Scheme aims at faceless information collection from assessees and their verification. [Notification No. 137 of 2021 dated 13th December, 2021.]

5.    Guidelines under 194O(4), section 194Q(3) and section 206C(1-I): In continuation of Circular No. 17 of 2020 dated 29th September, 2020 and Circular No. 13 of 2021 dated 30th June, 2021, CBDT has issued further guidelines to remove the difficulties in implementation of sections 194O, 194Q and 206C. [Circular No. 20 of 2021 dated 25th November, 2021.]

COMPANY LAW

I. Companies Act, 2013

1. MCA allows companies to conduct EGMs via video conference / other audio-visual means (VC / OAVM) up to 30th June, 2022: The MCA has permitted companies to convene and conduct EGMs through VC / OAVM or transact through postal ballot in accordance with the framework up to 30th June, 2022. Earlier, vide General Circular No. 10/2021 dated 23rd June, 2021, the MCA had allowed companies to conduct the same up to 31st December, 2021. [General Circular No. 20/2021 dated 8th December, 2021.]

2. MCA issues clarification on holding of AGM through VC / OAVM: The MCA has allowed companies to organise the AGMs in 2022 for the financial year ending before / on 31st March, 2022 through VC / OAVM as per respective due dates by 30th June, 2022. It has further clarified that this Circular should not be construed as conferring any extension of time for holding AGMs. In September, 2021, MCA had allowed a two-month extension to the deadline for companies to hold their AGM for the financial year ending 31st March, 2021. [Circular No. 21/2021 dated 14th December, 2021.]

II. SEBI

3. SEBI directs Debenture Trustees (DTs) to publish Investor Charter and disclose data on complaints on their websites: With a view to provide investors with relevant information about various activities where an investor must deal with DTs for availing of various services, SEBI has prepared an Investor Charter for DTs. The Investor Charter details the services provided to investors, timelines for various DT services provided and the Rights and Obligations of Investors. SEBI has also directed all DTs to disclose on their website details of the complaints received latest by the 7th of the succeeding month. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_CRADT/P/CIR/2021/675 dated 30th November, 2021.]

4. SEBI issues new delisting norms through an open offer under takeover regulations: As per amended norms, the option to delist through an open offer is restricted to only new acquirers acquiring fresh control. SEBI has also notified a scale-down option for the acquirer who is expected to cross 75% threshold pursuant to an open offer. [Notification No. SEBI/LAD-NRO/GN/2021/60 dated 6th December, 2021.]

5. SEBI clarifies on framework for processing investors’ service request by RTAs: SEBI, on representations received from the Registrars’ Association of India, has clarified on certain provisions of its Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/ 655 dated 3rd November, 2021 whereby it had simplified the norms for processing investors’ service request by RTAs and norms for furnishing PAN, KYC details and nominations. SEBI has clarified with respect to processing of the service request in case of any minor / major mismatch in name or signature of security holder / investor. [Circular No. SEBI/HO/MIRSD/MIRSD_RTAMB/P/CIR/2021/687 dated 14th December, 2021.]

6. SEBI replies on query relating to approval of material related party transactions under informal guidance scheme: SEBI has clarified that entities that are not able to take shareholders’ approval in material related party transactions due to the embargo that a related party cannot vote to approve such transactions, shall follow the provisions laid down in Explanation 3 to Regulation 16(1A) of LODR Regulation, which states ‘comply or explain reasons for such non-compliance and the steps initiated to achieve full compliance in its quarterly compliance report filed with Stock Exchanges’ [Letter No. SEBI/HO/DDHS/P/OW/2021/37583/1 dated 16th December, 2021.]

FEMA

1. Changes to External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) & Trade Credits (TCs): In view of the imminent discontinuance of LIBOR as a benchmark rate, RBI has decided to make the following changes to the all-in-cost benchmark and ceiling for Foreign Currency ECBs & TCs:
* The benchmark rate shall now refer to any widely accepted interbank rate or alternative reference rate (ARR) of six-month tenor, applicable to the currency of borrowing, instead of the erstwhile LIBOR.
* The all-in-cost ceiling for new Foreign Currency ECBs and TCs has been increased by 50 bps to 500 bps and 300 bps, respectively, over the benchmark rates to take into account differences in credit risk and term premia between LIBOR and the ARRs.
* One-time adjustment in all-in-cost ceiling for existing ECBs / TCs to enable smooth transition. The all-in cost ceiling for such ECBs / TCs has been revised upwards by 100 basis points to 550 bps and 350 bps, respectively, over the ARR. [A.P. (DIR Series 2021-22) Circular No. 19 dated 8th December, 2021.]

2. Banks can infuse capital in overseas branches without RBI’s prior approval: As per extant practice, banks incorporated in India seek prior RBI approval for (a) infusion of capital in their overseas branches and subsidiaries, and (b) retention of profits in, and transfer or repatriation of profits from, these overseas centres.

RBI has stated now that prior approval for above capital infusion / transfers (including retention / repatriation of profits) shall not be required by banks which meet the regulatory capital requirements (including capital buffers). Instead, the banks shall seek approval of their Boards and report to RBI within 30 days as mandated in the Circular. Only Scheduled Commercial Banks other than foreign banks, Small Finance Banks, Payment Banks and Regional Rural Banks are provided this relaxation. [Circular No. Dor.Cap.Rec.No.72/21-6-201/2021-22 dated 8th December, 2021.]

3. Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) mandatory for cross-border capital account transactions: LEI is a 20-digit number used to uniquely identify parties to financial transactions worldwide to improve the quality and accuracy of financial data systems. RBI has decided that, with effect from 1st October, 2022, AD banks shall obtain the LEI number from resident entities (non-individuals) undertaking capital or current account transactions of Rs. 50 crores and above (per transaction) under FEMA. It has allowed AD banks to process transactions by non-resident counterparts / overseas entities, in case of non-availability of LEI, to avoid disruptions. It has also asked AD banks to encourage the entities concerned to voluntarily furnish LEI while undertaking transactions even before 1st October, 2022. Once an entity has obtained an LEI number, it must be reported in all transactions of that entity, irrespective of transaction size. [A.P. (Dir. Series 2021-22) Circular No. 20 dated 10th December, 2021.]

CORPORATE LAW CORNER

10 Akhil R. Kothakota and Anr. vs. Tierra Farm Assets Co. (P) Ltd. [2021] 162 CLA 249 (NCLAT) Date of order: 9th November, 2021

Section 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 specifically empowers the Tribunal to direct, by order, a company to redeem the debentures forthwith on payment of principal and interest due thereon where a company has failed to pay interest on debentures when it was due

FACTS
* M/s TFA issued secured ‘non-convertible debentures’ on 17th December, 2015 and a debenture trust deed was executed between it and M/s VITCL, which was the debenture trustee to issue debentures against certain properties listed in Schedule II of the deed. M/s TFA was supposed to make interest payments to the debenture holders in March 2018, June 2018, September 2018, and December 2018. However, it failed and neglected to make such payments. Thereafter, the debenture holders kept diligently following up with M/s TFA and the various other entities involved regarding interest payments which had been defaulted on.

* The debenture holders had also been consistent in their demand for redemption of the debentures as stipulated under the terms of the trust deed and preferred to file a petition u/s 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 before the NCLT, Bengaluru Bench which sought the following directions:
(a) M/s TFA to make repayment of the aforesaid debenture(s) along with interest due thereon in accordance with the terms and conditions w.r.t. debenture amounts, which included the default of interest payable as well as the prepayment penalty which aggregated to Rs. 74,99,280 as on the date of filing the application.
(b) M/s TFA to be injuncted from dealing with the mortgaged properties as specified in the debenture trust deed dated 17th December, 2015 and a direction issued to the debenture trustee to enter into / take possession of the mortgaged properties as specified in the debenture trust deed, etc.

After hearing the case, NCLT passed an order dated 17th December, 2019 in exercise of the powers conferred on it u/s 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 read with rule 73 of the NCLT Rules, 2016. NCLT in its order disposed of the petition by granting six months’ time, provisionally from the date of the order, so as to explore all possibilities of settlement of claims of the debenture holders along with other similarly situated claimants.

However, the debenture holders being aggrieved by the NCLT order preferred an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) on the following grounds:

(a) NCLT did not specifically address ‘the prayer for repayment’ but rather gave a direction to explore all possibilities of settlement of claims of the petitioners and granted six months’ time, which is ultra vires of sections 71(8) and 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013.

(b) NCLT had not focused on the reply submitted by M/s TFA which did show that there was a clear admission of default of payment of interest on the ‘non-convertible debentures’ and M/s TFA proposed to settle the dues and that the matter was under due process and averred that there was an arbitration proposal pending between the parties. However, the material on record did not give evidence of any such initiation of ‘arbitration proceedings’.

HELD
NCLAT observed that the NCLT Bengaluru Bench had taken into consideration the ‘financial status of the company’, the interest of all stake holders and had given a direction for settlement. However, the fact remained that M/s TFA did not make any effort to settle the matter nor was there any representation on its behalf before the NCLAT.

It further observed that section 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides a clear mechanism for issue and repayment of debentures, including the enforcement of repayment obligations and section 71(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 does not empower the Tribunal to ascertain the financial condition of the defaulting party or grant any other relief than the relief provided for under the said section.

NCLAT also noted that there was no arbitration clause in the debenture trust deed and ‘no consent’ was given by the debenture holders for initiation of any ‘arbitration proceedings’ till date.

NCLAT disposed of the appeal with a specific direction to M/s TFA to repay the amounts ‘due and payable’ to the debenture holders within a period of two months from the date of the order, failing which it was open to the debenture holders to take steps as deemed fit in accordance with the law.

11 M/s Mohindera Chemicals Private Limited vs. Registrar of Companies, NCT of Delhi & Haryana & Ors. National Company Law Appellate Tribunal, New Delhi Company Appeal (AT) No. 9 of 2020 Date of order: 9th September, 2020

In a case where company was functional, and the same can be seen from the content of the balance sheets, the name of the company needs to be restored in the Register of Companies

FACTS
M/s MCPL submitted that merely because the balance sheet remained to be filed the Registrar of Companies (RoC) presumed that it was not functional and its name was struck off with effect from 8th August, 2018.

It further submitted that if the reply of the Income-tax Department, Diary No. 19303 is pursued, the Department has also stated that the assessment for the year ended as on 31st March, 2012 was completed on 29th December, 2018 and there was an outstanding demand of Rs. 7,79,74,290 that was still pending for recovery.

If the name was not restored, M/s MCPL stated, it would seriously suffer as there were huge outstanding dues which the company had to receive; the debtors were ready to pay but were unable to do so because the name was struck off.

M/s MCPL was ready to go in for settlement in the case of the IT dues also and for all such reasons it was necessary to restore its name in the Register of Companies as maintained by the RoC.

But the RoC submitted that there was a lapse on the part of M/s MCPL and that the RoC had followed due procedure and the name was struck off as M/s MCPL did not respond to the Public Notice.

HELD
NCLAT held that M/s MCPL had been functional as could be seen from the content of the submitted balance sheets and directed the RoC to restore its name, subject to the conditions that M/s MCPL will pay the costs of Rs. 1,00,000 to the RoC and the company will file all the outstanding documents / balance sheets and returns within two months along with penalties and late payment charges, etc., as may be due and payable under Law.

12 In the High Court of Delhi at New Delhi W.P.(C) 3261/2021, CM Appls. 32220/2021, 41811/2021, 43360/2021, 43380/2021

Nitin Jain, Liquidator PSL Limited vs. Enforcement Directorate, through Raju Prasad Mahawar, Assistant Director, PMLA

FACTS OF THE CASE
Liquidation of the corporate debtor (CD) was commenced by the adjudicating authority vide order dated 11th September, 2020, with Nitin Jain being appointed as the Liquidator. On 15th January, 2021, the Liquidator received summons from the Enforcement Directorate (ED). The petitioner moved CM Application No. 32220/2021 before this Court disclosing that the sale of the CD as a going concern was conducted on 9th April, 2021, a bid of Rs. 425.50 crores was received from M/s Lucky Holdings Private Limited and a Letter of Intent came to be issued in favour of M/s Lucky Holdings Private Limited on 19th April, 2021. The sale as conducted by the Liquidator was approved by the adjudicating authority in terms of its order of 8th September, 2021. It has accordingly been prayed that the Liquidator be permitted to distribute the proceeds as received out of the liquidation sale and at present placed in an escrow in terms of the order of this Court of 17th March, 2021.

QUESTIONS OF LAW
Whether the authorities under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, would retain the jurisdiction or authority to proceed against the properties of a corporate debtor once a liquidation measure has come to be approved in accordance with the provisions made in the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

Whether there is in fact an element of irreconcilability and incompatibility in the operation of the two statutes which cannot be harmonised?

Whether the liquidation process is liable to proceed further during the pendency of proceedings under the PMLA and notwithstanding the issuance of an order of attachment?

RULING IN CASE
Irreconcilability and incompatibility in the operation of the two statutes
Viewed in that backdrop, it is evident that the two statutes essentially operate over distinct subjects and subserve separate legislative aims and policies. While the authorities under the IBC are concerned with timely resolution of the debts of a corporate debtor, those under the PMLA are concerned with the criminality attached to the offence of money laundering and to move towards confiscation of properties that may be acquired by commission of offences specified therein. The authorities under the aforementioned two statutes consequently must be accorded adequate and sufficient leeway to discharge their obligations and duties within the demarcated spheres of the two statutes.

Liquidation process is liable to proceed further during the pendency of proceedings under the PMLA
Section 32A legislatively places vital import upon the decision of the adjudicating authority when it approves the measure to be implemented in order to take the process of liquidation or resolution to its culmination. It is this momentous point in the statutory process that must be recognised as the defining moment for the bar created by section 32A coming into effect. If it were held to be otherwise, it would place the entire process of resolution and liquidation in jeopardy. Holding to the contrary would result in a right being recognised as inhering in the respondent to move against the properties of the CD even after their sale or transfer has been approved by the adjudicating authority. This would clearly militate against the very purpose and intent of section 32A.

Section 32A in unambiguous terms specifies the approval of the resolution plan in accordance with the procedure laid down in Chapter II as the seminal event for the bar created therein coming into effect. Drawing sustenance from the same, this Court comes to the conclusion that the approval of the measure to be implemented in the liquidation process by the adjudicating authority must be held to constitute the trigger event for the statutory bar enshrined in section 32A coming into effect. It must consequently be held that the power to attach as conferred by section 5 of the PMLA would cease to be exercisable once any one of the measures specified in Regulation 32 of the Liquidation Regulations, 2016 comes to be adopted and approved by the adjudicating authority.

PMLA jurisdiction or authority to proceed against the properties of a corporate debtor
The expression, sale of liquidation assets, must be construed accordingly. The power otherwise vested in the respondent under the PMLA to provisionally attach or move against the properties of the CD would stand foreclosed once the adjudicating authority comes to approve the mode selected in the course of liquidation. To this extent and upon the adjudicating authority approving the particular measure to be implemented, the PMLA must yield.

HELD
In any event, this Court is of the firm view that the issue of reconciliation between the IBC and the PMLA insofar as the present petition is concerned needs to be answered solely on the anvil of section 32A. Once the Legislature has chosen to step in and introduce a specific provision for cessation of liabilities and prosecution, it is that alone which must govern, resolve and determine the extent to which powers under the PMLA can be permitted in law to be exercised while a resolution or liquidation process is on-going.

From the date when the adjudicating authority came to approve the sale of the CD as a going concern, the cessation as contemplated u/s 32A did and would be deemed to have come into effect.

Service Tax

I. TRIBUNAL

12 Shanti Construction Co. vs. CCE&ST [2021 (54) GSTL 164 (Tri-Ahm)] Date of order: 18th June, 2021

Reversal of CENVAT credit availed when output service was taxable is not required to be reversed on grant of retrospective exemption subsequently

FACTS
The appellants provided works contract services to various Government departments. They availed credit on input service from various sub-contractors on which the sub-contractors had discharged service tax. The appellant availed and utilised the CENVAT credit for discharging the service tax liability for the period 1st April, 2015 to 29th February, 2016. The Central Government later inserted section 102 to the Finance Act, 1994 for giving retrospective exemption to works contract services provided to the Government, local authority or Governmental authority and allowing refund of service tax paid for such services. The appellant filed a refund claim for service tax paid which was partially rejected, to the extent payment was made through the utilisation of CENVAT credit, by the Commissioner (Appeals).

HELD
The appellant had discharged the service tax as per the legal provision prevailing at that time and hence was rightfully entitled to CENVAT credit. Section 102 was unambiguous with respect to the amount to be refunded retrospectively and had no distinction whether it was paid in cash or through the utilisation of CENVAT credit. Thus, the appellant’s claim falls within the purview of section 102 and hence is held eligible for the refund of the entire service tax
paid.

13 Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. vs. CCE&ST [2021 (53) GSTL 401 (Tri-Chen)] Date of order: 26th July, 2021

Service tax is not applicable on liquidated damages recovered by appellant for not completing the task in the scheduled time as per the terms of the contract

FACTS
The appellant, formerly known as Neyveli Lignite Corporation India Limited, was engaged in the excavation from the captive mines of lignite that is principally consumed in the generation of electricity. The appellant executed a contract with Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL). As per clause 4.7.1 of the said contract, BHEL was required to complete successful performance guarantee within 35 months and 39 months for Unit 1 and Unit 2, respectively. Further, there was a clause 4.9.1 in the contract which stated that liquidated damages would be levied on failure to adhere to the above time limit. As BHEL failed to do so, the appellant recovered liquidated damages from it. Consequently, the Department issued five show cause notices covering the periods from April, 2012 to June, 2017 for recovering service tax on liquidated damages. The appellant submitted a detailed reply stating that service tax was not payable on liquidated damages. However, these contentions were rejected and orders passed holding that liquidated damages were liable for service tax as ‘agreeing to an obligation to tolerate an act’ in terms of section 66E(e).

HELD
Following the decisions of M/s South Eastern Coalfields Ltd. 2020 (12) TMI 912 and Poorva Kshetra Vidyut Vitran Co. Ltd. 2021 (46) GSTL 409, it was held that the view of the Commissioner to charge service tax on liquidated damages recovered was unsustainable.

14 Chadriot International Pvt. Ltd. vs. CCT, Bengaluru East [2021 (54) GSTL 29 (Tri-Bang)] Date of order: 17th June, 2021

Delay in debiting credit is only a procedural delay that does not disentitle the appellant from claiming refund

FACTS
The appellant is engaged in the manufacture and export of granite tiles and is availing CENVAT credit of service tax paid on input services used in the manufacture and export of finished goods. It filed three applications for refund of CENVAT credit under Rule 5 of CCR, 2004 read with Notification No. 27/2012-CE (N.T.) dated 18th June, 2012. Thereafter, the appellant received a show cause notice proposing to reject the refund claim on the ground that the appellant has not debited the amount equivalent to refund claims from the CENVAT register as required under para 2(h) of Notification No. 27/2012 CE (N.T.) dated 18th June, 2012.

The appellant replied to the notice stating that the balance of CENVAT credit was carried forward in TRAN-1 under GST in December, 2017 and the amount equivalent to refund claims was debited from the electronic credit ledger at the time of filing GSTR3B for the period December, 2017. The Original Authority sanctioned the refund after following the due process. However, the Department filed an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) against the refund-sanctioning order. The Commissioner (Appeals) set aside the order-in-original sanctioning refund on the ground that credit reversal in GSTR3B pertains to GST credit and not CENVAT credit and disallowed the refund. Aggrieved, the appellant filed this appeal.

HELD
The Tribunal held that credit reversed without being utilised is as good as credit not taken. The delay in debiting credit is merely a procedural lapse which cannot debar the appellant from claiming the refund. Thus, the order rejecting the refund was not sustainable.

GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST)

I. HIGH COURT

23 Jagat Janani Services vs. GST Council [2021 (54) GSTL 283 (Odi)] Date of order: 21st September, 2021

Refund of excess Service Tax paid shall be granted to the Operational Creditor when the amount receivable is reduced pursuant to the Resolution Plan

FACTS
The petitioner was entitled to receive Rs. 18.14 crores against various invoices issued on Essar Steel India Limited (service recipient) for the period January to December, 2017. Due to the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) of Essar Steel India Limited as finalised by the Supreme Court’s order dated 15th November, 2019, the petitioner’s claim, inter alia, was settled at 20.5% of Rs. 18.14 crores which worked out to Rs. 3.71 crores. The petitioner had already paid service tax of Rs. 1.41 crores and GST of Rs. 1.93 crores for the said period of January to December, 2017. Since the petitioner is entitled to get only Rs. 3.71 crores, pro rata reduction in tax liability working out to approximately Rs. 45 lakhs was sought. It was also clarified that Essar Steel India Limited had reversed the credit taken on the Service Tax amount of Rs. 1.41 crores. The petitioner accordingly calculated excess at Rs. 2.16 crores and claimed refund thereof.

HELD
The High Court allowed the petition with a direction that the excess service tax paid by the petitioner is liable to be refunded in accordance with extant rules, by acknowledging that the petitioner’s claim was reduced to 20.5% of the admitted claim.

II. AUTHORITY FOR ADVANCE RULING

24 M/s Lucknow Producers Co-operative Milk Union Ltd. [2021-TIOL-284-AAR-GST] Date of order: 16th April, 2021

Reimbursements of statutory liability not received as pure agent – GST liable @ 18%

FACTS
The applicant is in the business of milk processing and manufacturing milk products and avails the services of manpower supply agencies under an agreement. The terms provide for consideration against services and discharge of statutory liabilities such as EPF, ESI, workmen’s compensation Act, etc. A ruling was sought for GST applicability on reimbursements for statutory liabilities. As per the applicant, the agreement provides for two separate elements of payment and that the statutory liabilities as per the Act rest with the factories or the work place. However, it is shifted to service providers to minimise their work burden and hence they subsequently reimburse them. Further, Rule 33 of the GST Rules provides that the cost incurred by the supplier as pure agent is excluded from the value of supply. Also, AAR Karnataka [reported in 2020 (32) GSTL 49 (AAR-GST-Kar)] had ruled that Group Insurance and Workmen’s’ Compensation schemes benefit workers and are not taxable under GST. Further, bills raised for reimbursement fulfil the condition of being a pure agent and hence should not be subjected to GST.

HELD
After examining section 2(13) of the CGST Act, 2017 for definition of consideration and section 15 of the said Act for determination of value of taxable supply, it was held that the entire payment received by the manpower, including statutory payment supplies from the application, would attract GST. It was found that labour contractors are not pure agents as they do not outsource services from third parties. Also, a contractual agreement with the contractor does not fulfil the obligation of being a pure agent. Therefore, GST is liable to be paid on reimbursement at 18% as they form value of supply as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.

25 M/s Rotary Club of Bombay Queen’s City [2021-TIOL-273-AAR-GST] Date of order: 22nd November, 2021

Members and AOP / Club separate entities post amendment of section 7(1) – Contribution by members is consideration for supply

FACTS
The applicants Rotary Club and Rotary Districts are associations of persons joined together to carry out social activities. The contribution collected is spent on meetings and administration expenditure. Hence a ruling was sought to determine whether their activity of collecting contributions and spending it on meetings and administration is considered business as envisaged u/s 2(17) of the CGST Act, 2017 and whether contributions from their members results in supply under the CGST Act, 2017. The applicants pleaded that they maintain separate bank accounts, one for administration expenses and the other for donations or charity. Donations received are strictly used for charitable purposes and not for administration. Further, they also pleaded that they function on the concept of mutuality and hence the said doctrine applies as per their belief. They relied on and referred to CIT vs. Bankimpur Club Ltd. 2002-TIOL-834-SC-IT and the recent Larger Bench judgment of the Supreme Court in State of West Bengal vs. Calcutta Club Ltd. 2019-TIOL-449-SC-ST-LB under service tax law. The applicant also relied on the order of the AAR, Maharashtra in the case of Rotary Club of Mumbai Nariman Point and that in Rotary Club of Mumbai Queen’s Necklace wherein it was observed that these clubs did not provide any specific facility or benefit to their members against membership subscription and hence it is not ‘business’. Further, the applicant submitted that insertion of new clause (aa) in sub-section (1) of section 7 of the CGST Act, retrospectively, does not alter the case of the Rotary Club on account of ‘Agency Principle’ and reasoning of the AAAR in the said cases of the two Rotary Clubs.

HELD
After examining the definitions of supply in section 7 of the CGST Act, 2017 and consideration as per section 2(31) of the said Act, the AAR observed that contribution received is used for obtaining goods and services of third parties and provide benefit of such goods and services to the members. Further, the definition of person in the GST law includes both individuals as well as association of persons or body of individuals whether incorporated or not. Hence, individual members are beneficiaries of contribution made by them to be considered consideration and the members and the Club are two distinct persons. Hence, activities and transactions between them amount to ‘supply’ in terms of the GST law. Also, it was found that reliance on AAAR in the case of Rotary Clubs is not proper as it was done prior to the amendment to section 7 of the Act. The other point cited was that the cases do not provide any guidance or the legal situation particularly after the amendment. The fees / subscription by whatever name called is consideration received by the applicant for such supply and is covered within the scope of ‘business’.

26 M/s Portescap India Pvt. Ltd. [2021-TIOL-293-AAR-GST] Date of order: 10th December, 2021 [AAR Maharashtra]

SEZ GST not included yet in section 26 of SEZ Act

FACTS
The applicant, an SEZ, sought a ruling to know whether there is exemption on GST payable by it under Reverse Charge Mechanism (RCM) on obtaining immovable property (on rent) service from the SEEPZ SEZ authority (local authority) in terms of Notification No. 13/2017-CT dated 28th June, 2017 read with Notification No. 03/2018-CT (Rate) dated 28th January, 2018. Its business is manufacture of customised motors in India and their export. According to the applicant, Entry 5A of Notification No. 13/2017-CT (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 notifies renting service supplied by Central and State Governments, Union Territory or local authority to any registered person. Hence, the need to seek AAR. Section 7 of the SEZ Act, 2005 exempts goods and services obtained from Domestic Tariff Area (DTA) or foreign supplies specified in the first schedule. Also, section 51 of the said Act has an overriding effect on provisions of other Acts, including taxation laws. Section 26 of the said SEZ Act deals with exemption of tax on services provided to SEZ or its developer to carry out authorised operations. In terms of section 16 of the IGST Act, 2017, supply to SEZ is an inter-state supply.

The default list of services approved for authorised operation includes renting of immovable property service in its ambit and hence the service supplied to it would be considered zero-rated. Also, Notification No. 18/2017-ST (Rate) exempts services imported by unit / developer into an SEZ-authorised operation as exempt from IGST. According to them, services obtained from India also being in the nature of inter-state supply, the Notification covers the same and hence it would be exempt. In support they relied on the judgment of the Telangana and Andhra Pradesh High Court in GMR Aerospace Engineering Ltd. & another vs. U.O.I. & Ors. 2018-TIOL-3127-HC-TELANGANA-ST which held that when the services are used for authorised operation of an SEZ unit, the same should be exempted from the levy of service tax.

HELD
As contended by the AAR and also after considering various rebuttals of the contentions of the jurisdiction officer, the AAR held as follows:

• Since the applicant is registered under the CGST Act, 2017 and satisfies all conditions of the amended Notification No. 10/2017-ITR (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017, the applicant is liable to pay tax under rent in terms of section 5(3) of the IGST Act, 2017.

• Question No. 41 of the FAQ dated 15th December, 2018 issued by the CBIC states that SEZ has to pay GST as a recipient of service under RCM.

• The applicant’s contention that service obtained from Indian territory was the same as imported service was not accepted citing definition of import of services in section 2(11) of the IGST Act and the definition of ‘India’ as per section 2(56) of the CGST Act, 2017. Hence, the applicant was regarded as one situated in India as the SEZ is in India.

• As for zero-rated supplies, it was observed that section 16(3) of the IGST Act applies to registered persons making a zero-rated supply. However, the applicant is a recipient thereof and hence is not covered by section 16(3). A harmonious reading of section 5(3) of the IGST Act, 2017 along with relevant Notifications and section 16 of the IGST Act stipulates that the applicant is liable to pay tax under RCM.

• Section 26 of the SEZ Act dealing with exemptions is not yet aligned with the CGST and / or IGST Acts and as such the list contained thereunder does not include GST.

• The cases cited by the applicant pertain to service and hence they do not apply in the subject case.

RECENT DEVELOPMENTS IN GST

I. NOTIFICATIONS

a) Changes in Rate of Tax

Sr. No.

Notification No.

Reference of Entry in
which change is made

Indicative changes
(changes are made effective from
1st January, 2022)

1.

14/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 14/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate)
both dated 18th November, 2021. Changes in rate of tax on goods.

These Notifications are applicable from
1st January, 2022

Entries at Sr. Nos. 203, 207, 211, 216, 217, 218, 218B, 218C,
219A, 219AA, 219B, 220, 221, 222, 223, 224, 224A and 225 under Schedule I,
and Entries from Sr. Nos. 132A, 132B, 132C, 132D and 171 under Schedule II,
and Entries from Sr. Nos. 159 to 163 under Schedule III are omitted. The said
Entries are not given here for sake of brevity

The goods covered by the above Entries in Schedule I, like woven
fabrics of silk or of silk waste (Entry 203), are removed from 2.5% slab and
incorporated in 6% slab. New Entries are added as mentioned subsequently.

In Schedule II changes are to segregate goods contained therein
into separate Entries for more clarity. The changes in Schedule III are
consequential

 

 

Schedule-II (6%)

 

2.

14/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 14/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021, changes to add Entries in Schedule
II, effective from
1st January, 2022

a) Entry 132AA is inserted

Woven fabrics of silk or of silk waste are brought under this
new Entry

b) Entry 132AB is inserted

Woven fabrics of carded wool or of carded fine animal hair

c) Entry 132AC is inserted

Woven fabrics of combed wool or of combed fine animal hair

d) Entry 132AD is inserted

Woven fabrics of coarse animal hair or of horse hair

e) Entry 132AE is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing 85% or more by weight of
cotton, weighing not more than 200g/m2

f) Entry 132AF is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing 85% or more by weight of
cotton, weighing more than 200g/m2

g) Entry 132AG is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing less than 85% by weight of
cotton, mixed mainly or solely with man-made fibres, weighing not more than
200g/m2

h) Entry 132AH is inserted

Woven fabrics of cotton, containing less than 85% by weight of
cotton, mixed mainly or solely with man-made fibres, weighing more than
200g/m2

2.
(continued)

 

i) Entry 132AI is inserted

Other woven fabrics of cotton.

j) Entry 132AJ is inserted

Woven fabrics of flax.

k) Entry 132AK is inserted

Woven fabrics of jute or of other textile-based fibres of
heading 5303

l) Entry 132AL is inserted

Woven fabrics of other vegetable textile fibres, woven fabrics
of paper yarn

m) Entry 132BA is inserted

Sewing thread of man-made filaments, whether or not put up for
retail sale

n) Entry 132BB is inserted

Synthetic filament yarn (other than sewing thread), not put up
for retail sale, including synthetic monofilament of less than 67 decitex

o) Entry 132BC is inserted

Artificial filament yarn (other than sewing thread), not put up
for retail sale, including artificial monofilament of less than 67 decitex

p) Entry 132BD is inserted

Synthetic monofilament of 67 decitex or more and of which no
cross-sectional dimension exceeds 1 mm; strip and the like (for example,
artificial straw) of synthetic textile materials of an apparent width not
exceeding 5 mm

q) Entry 132BE is inserted

Artificial monofilament of 67 decitex or more and of which no
cross-sectional dimension exceeds 1 mm; strip and the like (for example,
artificial straw) of artificial textile materials of an apparent width not
exceeding 5 mm

r) Entry 132BF is inserted

Man-made filament yarn (other than sewing thread) put up for
retail sale

s) Entry 132BG is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic filament yarn, including woven
fabrics obtained from materials of heading 5404

t) Entry 132BH is inserted

Woven fabrics of artificial filament yarn, including woven
fabrics obtained from materials of heading 5405

u) Entry 132CA is inserted

Synthetic filament tow

v) Entry 132CB is inserted

Artificial filament tow

w) Entry 132CC is inserted

Synthetic staple fibres, not carded, combed or otherwise
processed for spinning

x) Entry 132CD is inserted

Artificial staple fibres, not carded, combed or otherwise
processed for spinning

y) Entry 132CE is inserted

Waste (including noils, yarn waste and garnetted stock) of
man-made fibres

z) Entry 132CF is inserted

Synthetic staple fibres, carded, combed or otherwise processed
for spinning

aa) Entry 132CG is inserted

Artificial staple fibres, carded, combed or otherwise processed
for spinning

2.
(continued)

 

bb) Entry 132CH is inserted

Sewing thread of man-made staple fibres, whether or not put up
for retail sale

cc) Entry 132CI is inserted

Yarn (other than sewing thread) of synthetic staple fibres, not
put up for retail sale

dd) Entry 132CJ is inserted

Yarn (other than sewing thread) of artificial staple fibres, not
put up for retail sale

ee) Entry 132CK is inserted

Yarn (other than sewing thread) of man-made staple fibres, put
up for retail sale

ff) Entry 132CL is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres, containing 85% or more
by weight of synthetic staple fibres

gg) Entry 132CM is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres, containing less than
85% by weight of such fibres, mixed mainly or solely with cotton, of a weight
not exceeding 170g/m2

hh) Entry 132CN is inserted

Woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres, containing less than
85% by weight of such fibres, mixed mainly or solely with cotton, of a weight
exceeding 170g/m2

ii) Entry 132CO is inserted

Other woven fabrics of synthetic staple fibres

jj) Entry 132CP is inserted

Woven fabrics of artificial staple fibres

kk) Entry 139 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under:
‘Twine, cordage, ropes and cables, whether or not plaited or braided and
whether or not impregnated, coated or sheathed with rubber or plastics’

ll) Entry 139A is inserted

Knotted netting of twine, cordage or rope; made up of fishing
nets and other made-up nets, of textile materials

mm) Entry 146A is inserted

Woven pile fabrics and chenille fabrics, other than fabrics of
heading 5802 or 5806

nn) Entry 151A is inserted

Narrow woven fabrics, other than goods of heading 5807; narrow
fabrics consisting of warp without weft assembled by means of an adhesive
(bolducs)

oo) Entry 154 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under:

‘Braids in the piece; ornamental trimmings
in the piece, without embroidery, other than knitted or crocheted; tassels,
pompons and similar articles’

pp) Entry 155 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Woven fabrics of metal
thread and woven fabrics of metallised yarn of heading 5605, of a kind used
in apparel, as furnishing fabrics or for similar purposes, not elsewhere
specified or included’

qq) Entry 156 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Embroidery in the piece,
in strips or in motifs’

rr) Entry 168 is substituted

In above Entry: for the words ‘this Chapter’, the word and the
figure ‘Chapter 59’ is substituted

2.
(continued)

 

ss) Entry 168A is inserted

Pile fabrics, including ‘long pile’ fabrics and terry fabrics,
knitted or crocheted is brought under this new Entry

tt) Entry 168B is inserted

Knitted or crocheted fabrics of a width not exceeding 30 cm,
containing by weight 5% or more of elastomeric yarn or rubber thread, other
than those of heading 6001

uu) Entry 168C is inserted

Knitted or crocheted fabrics of a width not exceeding 30 cm,
other than those of heading 6001 or 6002

vv) Entry 168D is inserted

Knitted or crocheted fabrics of a width exceeding 30 cm,
containing by weight 5% or more of elastomeric yarn or rubber thread, other
than those of heading 6001

ww) Entry 168E is inserted

Warp knit fabrics (including those made on galloon knitting
machines), other than those of headings 6001 to 6004

xx) Entry 168F is inserted

Other knitted or crocheted fabrics

yy) Entry 169 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Articles of apparel and
clothing accessories knitted or crocheted’

zz) Entry 170 is substituted

By substitution, Entry reads as under: ‘Articles of apparel and
clothing accessories, not knitted or crocheted’

aaa) Entry 171A1 is inserted

Blankets and travelling rugs brought under this new Entry

bbb) Entry 171A2 is inserted

Bed linen, table linen, toilet linen and kitchen linen

ccc) Entry 171A3 is inserted

Curtains (including drapes) and interior blinds; curtains or bed
valances

ddd) Entry 171A4 is inserted

Other furnishing articles, excluding those of heading 9404

eee) Entry 171A5 is inserted

Sacks and bags, of a kind used for the packing of goods

fff) Entry 171A6 is inserted

Tarpaulins, awnings and sun blinds; tents; sails for boats, sailboards
or land craft; camping goods

ggg) Entry 171A7 is inserted

Other made-up articles, including dress patterns

hhh) Entry 171A8 is inserted

Sets, consisting of woven fabric and yarn, whether or not with
accessories, for making up into rugs, tapestries, embroidered table cloths or
serviettes, or similar textile articles, put up in packings for retail sale

iii) Entry 171A9 is inserted

Worn clothing and other worn articles

jjj) Entry 171A10 is inserted

Used or new rags, scrap, twine, cordage, rope and cables and
worn out articles of twine, cordage, rope or cables, of textile materials

2.
(continued)

 

kkk) Entry 171A11 is inserted

Footwear of sale value not exceeding Rs.1,000 per pair

3.

15/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 15/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021. This Notification is applicable
from
1st January, 2022

a) Changes in (Sl. No. 3 in TABLE) in Notification No.
11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and 08/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th
June, 2017

In the description of Services at item Nos. (iii), (vi), (vii),
(ix) & (x), the words ‘Union territory, a local authority, a Governmental
Authority or a Government Entity’ are substituted with ‘Union territory or a
local authority’. The scope of coverage reduced

b) Change in Sl. No. 26 in Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax
(Rate) and 8/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th June,
2017

In item (i)(b) in column (3), after the words numbers, figures
and brackets, ‘Customs Tariff Act, 1975 (51 of 1975)’ the words ‘except
services by way of dyeing or printing of the said textile and textile
products’ is inserted

4.

16/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 16/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021. This notification is applicable
from
1st January, 2022

Changes in Notification No. 12/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and
09/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th June, 2017

a) Changes in Sl. Nos. 3 & 3A of TABLE

b) In item (2) in Sl. No. 15 in TABLE

c) In Sl. No. 17

In the description of Services, in Entries at Sr. Nos. 3 &
3A of TABLE the words ‘or a Governmental authority or a Government Entity’
are omitted

Following Clause is inserted after item (c) of Sl. No. 15 in
TABLE:

‘Provided that nothing contained in items (b) and (c) above
shall apply to services supplied through an electronic commerce operator, and
notified under sub-section (5) of section 9 of the Central Goods and Services
Tax Act, 2017 (12 of 2017)’

After Clause (e) in Entry at Sl. No. 17, following clause is
inserted:

‘Provided that nothing contained in item (e) above shall apply
to services supplied through an electronic commerce operator, and notified
under sub-section (5) of section 9 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act,
2017 (12 of 2017)’

5.

17/2021-Central Tax (Rate) and 17/2021-Integrated Tax (Rate),
both dated 18th November, 2021. This Notification is applicable
from
1st January, 2022

Changes in Notification No. 17/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and
14/2017-Integrated Tax (Rate), both dated 28th June, 2017a) Clause
(i) is substituted

This Notification is about supplies through e-commerce

 

In Clause (i) after the words ‘and motor cycle’ the words ‘motor
cycle, omni bus or any other motor vehicle’ is substituted

b) Clause (iv) is inserted

‘Supply of restaurant service other than the services supplied
by restaurant, eating joints, etc., located at specified premises’ is
inserted

c) Explanation – item (b) is substituted

In item (b) in Explanation, following substitution is made:

d) Item (c) in Explanation is inserted

‘Specified premises means premises providing hotel accommodation
service having declared tariff of any unit of accommodation above Rs. 7,500
per unit per day or equivalent’

b) Changes in Rules – Notification No. 37/2021-Central Tax dated 1st December, 2021

By the above Notification, changes have been made in the CGST Rules. Rule 137 is for prescribing the tenure of the National Anti-Profiteering Authority. The tenure was four years which is now made five years by the above amendment.

Certain changes are also made in Form GST DRC-03.

II. ADVANCE RULINGS

A) Classification – Namkeen / sweetmeats vis-à-vis jackfruit chips, banana chips and sharkara variety and others

M/s Sri Abdul Aziz, Glow Worm Chips AR Order No. KER/113/2021 dated 26th May, 2021

The applicant is engaged in business as a supplier of goods such as jackfruit chips, banana chips and sharkara variety without brand name. The applicant also intends to engage in the manufacture and supply of salted as well as masala chips made from tapioca and potato, roasted / roasted and salted / salted preparations made out of groundnuts, cashewnut and other seeds.

The applicant requested advance ruling on the following questions:
‘1. Whether jackfruit chips and banana chips (salted and masala varieties) made out of raw as well as ripe banana and sold without brand name are classifiable as namkeens and are covered by HSN code 2106.90.99 and taxable under Entry 101A of the Schedule of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?
2. Whether sharkara variety sold without brand name is classifiable as sweetmeat and is covered by HSN code 2106.90.99 and taxable under Entry 101A of the Schedule of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?
3. Whether roasted and salted / salted / roasted preparations such as of groundnuts, cashewnut and other seeds are namkeens and when sold without a brand name can they be classified under HSN 2106.90.99 and taxed under Entry 101A of Schedule I of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?
4. Whether salted and masala chips of potato and tapioca are classifiable as namkeens and when sold without a brand name can they be classified under HSN 2106.90.99 and taxed under Entry 101A of Schedule I of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017?’

The applicant described the methods of preparation. It was submitted that jackfruit chips are made by frying the fruit in edible oil. Banana chips are made by slicing raw / ripe bananas into thin round pieces and frying in edible oil. Salt and turmeric are also applied. By adding masala fried banana masala chips are prepared. Sharkara variety is made by frying thick pieces of banana slices in edible oil. Thereafter, they are mixed thoroughly in a dense syrup of jaggery and then mixed in a powder of dried ginger and cardamom. Thus, jackfruit chips, banana chips and sharkara variety are edible preparations and the first two are savouries and sharkara variety is a sweetmeat. Accordingly, the applicant was levying GST at the rate of 5% by classifying the commodities under Entry 101A of Schedule I of Central Tax (Rate) Notification No. 1 of 2017.

In respect of further products to be dealt with, such as salted and masala chips made from tapioca and potato, it was submitted that these are sliced into round pieces and fried in edible oil. Salt is applied at the time of frying. After frying, these are sold as such or after mixing with masala. Salted chips and masala chips of tapioca and potato are commonly understood as namkeens. In respect of other products like roasted and salted / salted / roasted preparations made of groundnuts, cashewnuts and other seeds, it was submitted that they are commonly understood as namkeens.

The technical details and complete analysis of the above edibles is made in the AR. The claim of the applicant was that the products are classifiable under heading 2106 attracting a rate of 5% under Entry 101A of Schedule 1 of Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017.

The contention of the Revenue Officer was that the items were essentially prepared of vegetables, fruits, nuts or other parts of plants which fall under Chapter 20 of the Customs Tariff and even if a process is done, they remain in the above category.

The AAR considered the arguments in detail and observed that Chapter 21 of the Customs Tariff covers ‘Miscellaneous edible preparations’. The Heading 2106 of Chapter 21 covers food preparations not elsewhere specified or included, in the sense that these are residuary Entries in respect of edible preparations and hence the edible preparations shall be classified under this Entry only if the same are not classifiable under any of the other specific Entries for edible preparations.

He also referred to the Explanation appended to Notification No. 01/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 which directs to consider interpretation rules of the Custom Tariff Act for interpretation of entries in GST.

He referred to the rules for interpretation in the Custom Tariff Act and after analysing the same, he observed as under:
‘7.6. Accordingly, applying the principles of interpretation in Rule 2 of the General Rules for Interpretation of the First Schedule to the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 the jackfruit chips, banana chips, sharkara variety, tapioca chips and potato chips (whether salted / masala or otherwise) are classifiable under Tariff Heading 2008 19 40 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975. Regarding classification of roasted / salted / roasted and salted cashewnuts, groundnuts and other nuts, there are specific headings under Chapter 20 that cover the products. Accordingly, roasted / salted / roasted and salted cashewnuts are classifiable under Tariff Heading 2008 19 10 and other roasted / salted / roasted and salted nuts and seeds are classifiable under 2008 19 20 of the Customs Tariff Act, 1975.’

The AAR referred to Entry 40 of Schedule II of Notification No. 1/2017-Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017 and found that on a plain reading of the said Entry all the products that fall under Chapter Heading 2008 of the Customs Tariff Act,1975 attract GST at the rate of 12% (6% CGST + 6% SGST).

Accordingly, he determined the rate for different products as under:

Sr. No.

Products

Entry

Rate

1.

Jackfruit chips

Entry at Sl. No. 40 of Schedule II of Notification No. 01/2017
Central Tax (Rate) dated 28th June, 2017

12%

2.

Banana chips

 – do –

12%

3.

Sharkara variety

– do –

12%

4.

Roasted and salted preparation of groundnut / cashewnut

– do –

12%

5.

Salted and masala potato and tapioca

– do –

12%

B) Rate of Tax on Construction Service / Eligibility to ITC

M/s Building Roads Infrastructure & Construction P. Ltd. AAR order No. 07/AP/GST/2021 dated 18th January, 2021

The applicant is an unregistered dealer expecting a contract for construction, erection, commissioning, widening of roads and completion of bridges for road transportation for use of the general public. He has to act as a sub-contractor to the main contractor who has been awarded a contract by the NHAI to construct, erect, commission, widen roads and completion of bridges in the State of Andhra Pradesh.

For clarity of liability under GST, the following questions were raised before the AAR:
‘1. What is the classification of the “works contract” services pertaining to construction, erection, commissioning and completion of “Bridges and Roads” provided by the applicant as a sub-contractor to the contractors who have been awarded the construction contract pertaining to construction / widening of roads by the Government Entities such as National Highway Authority of India?
2. Clarification for rate of tax chargeable on the outward supplies, i.e., on the RA bills raised on the main contractor.
3. Whether eligible to claim input tax credit on inward supply of the following goods: JCB, Road Roller, Grader, Hydra Crane, Transit Mixer, Generator, Excavator and Sensor Paver?’

The applicant was canvassing that this contract will fall under sub-Entry (iv) in Sr. No. 3 of Notification No. 11/2017 which reads as under:

Sr. No.

Chapter, Section or Heading

Description of Service

Rate
(per cent)

Condition

1.

Heading 9954 (Construction Services)

iv) Composite supply of works contract as defined in clause
(119) of section 2 of the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017, supplied
by way of construction, erection, commissioning, installation, completion,
installation, completion, fitting out, repair, maintenance, renovation, or
alteration of – (a) a road, bridge, tunnel, or terminal for road
transportation for use by general public…

12%

It was further submitted that the other competing Entries at Serial No. 3(ix) and 3(x) are not applicable to the applicant as they are applicable to services provided by a sub-contractor to the main contractor who is in turn providing services specified in Serial No. 3(iii), 3(vi) and 3(vii) to the Government. Since the activity of construction of roads and bridges for transportation for use by general public of the Government (NHAI) is not specified in Serial No. 3(iii), 3(vi) and 3(vii), the activity of the applicant should correctly be classifiable under Entry at Serial No. 3(iv). It was also submitted that since the Entry at Serial No. 3(iv) does not specify that it should be made applicable only to a main contractor, it can be applicable to the main contractor as well to the sub-contractor appointed by the main contractor and accordingly the applicant is duly covered by the above Entry 3(iv).

In respect of ITC on inward supply of goods like JCB, Road Roller, etc., it was submitted that they are received and will be used in execution of works. They are received and used in the course of business and furtherance of business and therefore ITC is eligible.

The AAR referred to the above facts and Entry 3(iv). He further referred to the GST Council proceedings at its 25th meeting on 18th January, 2018 in which the recommendations at Item No. 12 were as under:
‘to reduce GST rate (from 18% to 12%) on the Works Contract Services (WCS) provided by sub-contractor to the main contractor providing WCS to Central Government, State Government, Union Territory, a Local Authority, a Governmental Authority or a Government Entity, which attract GST of 12%. Likewise, in WCS attracting 5% GST, their sub-contractor would also be liable to pay @ 5%.’

The AAR also observed that the National Highways Authority of India was set up by an Act of the Parliament, NHAI Act, 1988, under the administrative control of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways to develop, maintain and manage the National Highways entrusted to it by the Government of India.

Accordingly, he held that the instant case was qualified to fit in the above category. He also agreed that its supply of service will fall under the Item 3(iv) of the amended provisions of the Notification No. 11/2017-Central Tax (Rate) and the rate of tax applicable will be 12% (CGST 6% + SGST 6%).

In respect of eligibility of ITC on JCB and other equipment, he referred to the Scheme of ITC in section 16(1) and held that the applicant is eligible to ITC as per section 16(1) subject to fulfilment of the conditions mentioned in Section 16(2), such as being in possession of tax invoice, having actually received goods or services, tax being paid by the supplier, return being filed u/s 39 and so on.

Referring to section 17(5)(c) of the CGST Act, 2017, the AAR held that it blocks ITC if input is work contract service. That not being the case here, the application of section 17(5)(c) was ruled out. Further, he referred to section 17(5)(d) which blocks ITC if there is own construction. Since that is also not the case in the instant case, he held that the applicant is eligible to ITC on the above goods.

Accordingly, the learned AAR opined in the affirmative on the given questions.

GLIMPSES OF SUPREME COURT RULINGS

6 Ashwini Sahakari Rugnalaya vs. CCIT [(2021) 438 ITR 192 (SC)]

Exemption – Hospitals – Benefits in terms of section 10(23C)(via) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 are available to any hospital existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for purposes of profit – Remuneration payable to member doctors with regard to IPD patient receipts, not being confined to the doctors performing the task – Benefit to the hospital rightly denied — Such benefit granted in earlier years cannot ipso facto entitle the assessee to the benefit in the subsequent years

By an order dated 31st March, 2005, the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax, Pune, rejected the application of the assessee-co-operative society for exemption u/s 10(23C)(via) for the assessment years 1999-2000 to 2002-2003.

The High Court dismissed the writ petition filed by the assessee challenging the aforesaid order.

According to the Supreme Court, the short question that arose for its consideration was whether the assessee was eligible for benefit u/s 10(23C)(via) for the said assessment years.

It noted that the benefits in terms of the aforesaid section are available to any hospital existing solely for philanthropic purposes and not for purposes of profit.

The Court further noted that this was the position which existed even earlier u/s 10(22A) prior to the amended provision under the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 with effect from 1st April, 1999. The only change made was requiring that it ‘may be approved by the prescribed authority’. According to the Court, the legislative intent of the same was to exclude some entities which were not entitled to it from availing of the benefit.

While dealing with one of the arguments of the assessee, that it had been granted benefit for ten years earlier, the Court observed that the same could not ipso facto entitle the assessee to the benefit in the relevant assessment years.

The Supreme Court observed that there was a dual reasoning permeating both the orders which sought to deny the exemption. Firstly, that remuneration had been paid from the earnings of the inpatient department (IPD) to the doctors who may not be working in that department and, secondly, that the rates being charged by the appellant were at par with other hospitals which run on commercial basis.

Insofar as the second aspect is concerned, the appellant sought to canvas before the Supreme Court that there was no basis for the same and even when information was sought in this behalf after the order was passed by the Commissioner through a letter dated 12th May, 2005, there was no response. In the counter affidavit, too, nothing has been set out in this behalf. According to the Court, if the aforesaid had been the only matter to be tested, it may have remitted the matter on account of failure to disclose the relevant information which formed the basis of that conclusion.

However, in the opinion of the Supreme Court it was not necessary for the twin reasons to exist in order to deny the benefit to the assessee. Each one of these reasons could have been sufficient.

According to the Court the most material aspect was the first one set out above and that, too, on the basis of what it perceived to be an admission of the assessee emerging from the pleadings in the writ petition filed before the High Court, the relevant paragraph Nos. 3(x) and (xi) of which were as under:

‘3(x) The scheme of the remuneration payable to the Doctors from OPD and IPD has been devised in a manner where all the Doctors are paid 50% of the receipts from the patients visiting for consultation in OPD (Out Patient Department), except consultants of minor branches where 70% of the receipts are paid to them. With regard to IPD patient receipts, the remuneration payable to member Doctors varies from 20% to 30% depending on the qualification (Super Specialists, Consultants – 30%, Non-surgical consultants having no personal nursing homes – 25%, all other doctors including surgeons and consultants having their personal nursing homes – 20%).

(xi) The 20% to 30% professional charges / remuneration payable to Doctors / Consultants as mentioned above is out of the net collection, which is worked out after deducting from the receipts of the IPD patients certain payments on account of Pathology / Radiology / OT charges, etc. However, the receipts on account of bedroom charges, injection charges, saline charges, oxygen charges, ECG charges, attendant charges, set charges are taken into account for arriving at the net collection figure and such shares (of 20% – 30% of net collection) have been paid to the consultants concerned (Physicians / Specialists / Surgeons). Thus, apart from the consultancy charges received in the OPD, the member doctors, some of whom are also Directors, have received shares from the collection made from the IPD patients by the hospital ranging from 20% to 30%.’

According to the Supreme Court, a reading of the aforesaid left no manner of doubt that while referring to the remuneration payable to member doctors with regard to IPD patient receipts, the same was not confined to the doctors performing the task.

The Supreme Court, thus, was of the view that the decision on facts made by the competent authority and as affirmed by the High Court could not be said to be perverse or having complete absence of rationality for it to interfere in the same.

However, the Supreme Court clarified that if the assessee desired to rectify the position, as emerging from the aforesaid, that would not preclude it from claiming exemptions for relevant subsequent years.

The civil appeal was dismissed accordingly.

SOCIETY NEWS

EXPERT CHAT ON INTERNAL AUDIT

An expert online chat on ‘Internal Audit of Indirect Taxation’ was organised jointly by the BCAS and the IIA (Institute of internal Auditors), Mumbai Chapter, on 12th November, 2021. The discussion was moderated by CA Ashutosh Pednekar and also featured CA Sunil Gabhawalla.

The following key matters were deliberated upon during the discussion:

• Should indirect tax be part of the regular scope of internal audit?
• Is there a need to have more awareness about the impact of indirect tax?
• What are the operational, process and control risks to be considered during internal audit of indirect tax?
• What are the anticipated risks in linkages between integrated ERP systems, varied accounting systems and reconciliation between such systems?
• What are the important aspects of GST audit, especially when there is a plethora of documents to be reviewed?
• What kind of complications could arise on account of multiplicity of registration and multiplicity of returns filed by an entity?
• How do internal auditors cope with the complexity of GST law?
• How do internal auditors identify and deal with cases of regulatory violations as internal auditors are required to report cases of fraud, if any, under the Companies Act?
• What’s your view on the massive data points being available in the GST regime and expectations from the internal auditor?
• How can an internal auditor create awareness amongst the Board members on early warning signals on GST-related issues?

The speaker answered all the queries raised by the participants at the end of the meeting.

Online link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YRM6BIeYDQA
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SEMINAR ON INPUT CREDIT ISSUES

As it does every year, BCAS conducted a half-day seminar in association with DTPA Kolkata. It was held on 20th November in hybrid mode.

The subject under discussion was ‘GST: Input Credit Issues and Controversies of Direct Tax issues covering Sections 45(4) and 9B’.

Among the learned speakers were past presidents CA Anil Sathe and CA Sunil Gabhawalla. While Anil Sathe dealt with issues covering section 45(4) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, Sunil Gabhawalla covered the controversies in input credit under GST.

BCAS was also represented by President CA Abhay Mehta and Vice-President CA Mihir Sheth. The DTPA Kolkata was represented by its President, Vice-President, Treasurer, Secretary and Conveners, apart from a cross-section of people consisting of chartered accountants, lawyers and tax practitioners. The seminar took place over two sessions, each of which was followed by a Q&A session, with answers being provided by the learned faculties.

KEY ISSUES UNDER SLUMP SALE

A virtual meeting was organised by the Direct Tax Study Circle on 25th November. The meeting discussed the subject ‘Key Issues Under Slump Sale’ and was led by CA Kinjal Bhuta.

Key Speaker Kinjal took members through various Income-Tax provisions relating to slump sale. She explained some of the issues surrounding computation of slump sale gain, net worth, undertaking, permissibility of carry forward of unabsorbed losses and depreciation, etc. To make the session more interactive, she incorporated several case studies. The meeting was a success and concluded with a vote of thanks to the speaker.

CUSTOMS DUTY AND FOREIGN TRADE POLICIES

The IDT Committee of the BCAS, along with the Chamber of Tax Consultants, organised a two-day virtual workshop on ‘Customs Duty and Foreign Trade Policies’ on 26th and 27th November. The programme was divided into four sessions of two hours each and spread over two days.

The speakers at the workshop were Adv. V. Sridharan, Adv. Raghuraman, Adv. Rohit Jain and Mr. Sudhakar Kasture. The following topics were covered:

(a) Levy and chargeability under the Customs Act and procedures for import and export, along with interplay with the GST;
(b) Classification and Scheme of Customs Tariff Act and Principles of Customs Valuation and SVB;
(c) Specific provisions such as bonding, warehousing and other miscellaneous topics, including EOU and SEZ; and
(d) Important concepts under Foreign Trade Policies, various incentive schemes and issues – and bilateral and multilateral agreements.

The session addressed by Adv. V. Sridharan was chaired by President CA Abhay Mehta, while IDT Committee Chairman CA Sunil Gabhawalla gave the concluding remarks.

Adv. Rohit Jain’s session was chaired by IDT Committee Chairman CA Sunil Gabhawalla.

Conveners Dushyant Bhatt, Mandar Telang and Saurabh Shah and Committee Member Suresh Choudhary introduced the speakers / proposed the vote of thanks.

Other introductions / presentations and moving of votes of thanks were done by the Chamber’s representatives.

LECTURE MEETING ON FUTURE PERFECT

An online lecture meeting styled ‘Future Perfect’ was organised on 1st December. It was addressed by Mr. Rahul Bhagat, Business Head, ICICI Prudential Pension Fund Management.

Mr. Bhagat made a crisp presentation on the need for retirement planning with special emphasis on the NPS (National Pension System).

Key takeaways from the presentation were as follows:

• Importance and need for retirement planning,
• Increase in life expectancy,
• Better healthcare at a higher cost,
• Changing demographics,
• Nuclearisation of families.

• How a retirement plan works,
• Accumulation phase,
• Pay-out phase.

• Important factors for choosing a retirement plan.

• Popular options for retirement planning – A comparative analysis of various investment products.

• NPS (National Pension System)
• Concept
• Features
• Benefits

The speaker answered all the queries raised by the members in the course of the meeting, which was attended by over 80 persons.

Online link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tvaa0-9HRRs
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EXECUTIVE COACHING FOR BUSINESS LEADERS

The HRD Committee Study Circle held its meeting on 14th December which provided ‘Executive Coaching for Business Leaders’.

The Chairman welcomed the participants, while the Past President introduced the speaker, Mr. Pradip Shroff.

Here are some highlights of the meeting:
• The concept of coaching is new in business, although prevalent in sports.
• Coaching is to tap and unleash potential.
• It’s a super specialisation of HR which calls for good understanding of the business and also a passion to coach.
• Essentials of coaching.
• Good listening.
• Business understanding.
• Empathetic presence and understanding.
• Art of deep probing.
• Summarising.
• Challenging both resistance and denial.

Mr. Pradip Shroff is a senior coach representing the Coaching Foundation of India. Among its
activities is formal training, assignment of hands-on projects, viva and a certification course lasting about ten months.

It provides an excellent opportunity for Chartered Accountants having an analytical background to take up coaching as a career.

The total number of participants was 45. CA Mukesh Trivedi anchored the question-answer session and also proposed the vote of thanks.

FORENSIC ACCOUNTING & INVESTIGATION STUDIES – E-LEARNING COURSE

The Internal Audit Committee of Bombay Chartered Accountant’s Society (BCAS) jointly with Chetan Dalal Investigation & Management Services (CDIMS) launched an e-learning course titled, “Forensic Accounting and Investigation Studies” (FAIS) in December 2020. On the completion of one year from the launch of the course, we are glad to report that in all 61 participants have enrolled for this course, out of which 30 participants have successfully completed it by November 2021 and have been awarded a certificate to that effect.

This course provides unique e-learning for all those professionals in practice, industry or management, finance experts, CA students who are keen to explore a career / specialisation in forensic services or simply want to improve their audit skills by blending ‘Forensics’ and make an exponential difference in their value offerings. The course is designed in 25 Modules of Conceptual & Advanced Knowledge of Forensic Accounting & Fraud Investigation based on case studies, followed by online tests. Delivered through online videos, and the inclusion of case studies make this course engaging and interesting. The e-learning platform provides the opportunity of anytime-anywhere learning. A window of three months is provided to the participants for course completion.

In the course, we have made a few revisions based on the feedback received and our own experiences. We have introduced a demo module for aspiring participants; we now have modular exams in place rather than a single comprehensive exam at the end of the course. The demo module has been uploaded to the BCAS website and can be accessed via an e-mail request to be sent at events@bcasonline.org or through scanning a QR code embedded with login credentials.

The course earlier had an open rolling admission allowing the participants to enrol and start the course at any time. We have now replaced the rolling admissions with quarter admissions at the beginning of the quarter. The window for enrollment of the FAIS course, Batch 1 of 2022, will be kept open from 23rd December 2021 to 21st January 2022 and will require the participants to complete the course by 30th April 2022. To encourage young professionals and students, substantial discounts are being offered to those below 30 years of age as of 1st January 2022. They can visit https://bit.ly/3ehSsVO to avail this offer. Group discounts are also being offered for those enrolling in a group of three or more. They need to contact the BCAS events team at +91 9819955293 or send a request at events@bcasonline.org.

FROM THE PRESIDENT

Dear BCAS Family,
I wish you all a VERY HAPPY AND PROSPEROUS NEW YEAR. Let us ring in 2022 with the resolve to organise ourselves thereby climbing up the higher branches of maturity. With the passing of each year in one’s life, a person should ensure to attain higher maturity. We have to assess whether we are doing an assigned job in the same way we used to do the year before? If it is so, then we have not scaled the higher branches of maturity. We have the capabilities to evolve continuously. I narrate the quote of my GURU Mahatria Ra, which exemplifies life led with heightened awareness:

You are given life, to add something to life.
When you live your life with heightened awareness,
you help humanity to gain a few years of maturity without them having to live those years.
In effect, you fast forward humanity by a few years.

In our profession, too, we can achieve this when we identify and involve ourselves in activity which provides inner motivation to excel. This in turn will make us happy. Once you are carrying on an activity with happiness and with deep belief in your ability to excel, it will lead to success. During the Covid times since 2020, we all have passed through turbulent times. However, it is professionals with self-belief and with knowledge that life always intrudes to disturb the flow, who have come out of such crisis and excelled. At this juncture, when we have entered the third wave of the pandemic, it is all the more important for all of us to lead a fearless life and face the situation with determination and with adequate Covid protocols to overcome the same. There is obvious fear in the minds of all of us due to the contagious nature of the virus and its fast-spreading qualities. However, we should face the fear with confidence, because it is with belief that we shall make it through in spite of our fear.

Our Chartered Accountancy profession at large is passing through times of major changes. The Government of India had introduced a bill to amend the law governing chartered accountants. One of the amendments was the proposed appointment of a Non-Chartered Accountant as the Presiding Officer of the Disciplinary Committee (DC) of the ICAI as well as to have three Non-Chartered Accountants and two Chartered Accountants on the DC. The DC has to deal with the complaints relating to the contentious accounting, auditing and ethical standards related issues. The Presiding Officer who heads the DC as well as Non-Chartered Accountants on the DC should have sound knowledge on all the three aspects. If such members are without adequate exposure during their career to the standards dealing with these three aspects, there is scepticism amongst professionals that the issues may not be addressed in the right perspective by the DC. However, after effective representation, the Bill has been referred to a Parliamentary Standing Committee (PSC). A detailed representation with proper justification has to be made before the PSC over the provisions relating to the disciplinary mechanism of the proposed legislation.

On the economic front, as per the RBI’s annual Trends & Progress Report, the declining trend in bad loans continued in the pandemic year when the gross NPAs of scheduled commercial banks have reduced to 6.9% as of September, 2021 which had reduced to 7.3% in March, 2021 from 8.2% in March, 2020. As per the work place visits tracked by search engine Google, there is an increase of 7.6% over a baseline period before Covid-19 as on 23rd December, 2021, despite rising cases of the Omicron variant. Weekly power generation was also at its highest since mid-October with generation of 3,797 million units of average electricity per day during the week ended 26th December, 2021, which is 3.4% higher than the previous week, 4% and 8.8% higher than the corresponding week of 2020 and 2019, respectively. These are encouraging signals of an economy unshackling the effects of the pandemic and moving ahead to be one of the fastest growing economies of the world.

At BCAS we had two events which were attended in large numbers. One was a Fireside chat on ‘Crypto currencies and their challenge to rupee and all Fiat currencies’. The panellists were Mr. Rajnish Kumar and Ms Shikha Mehra. The session provided really very deep insights on the functioning of cryptocurrencies and the regulatory challenges which have to be addressed before digital currency becomes part of our daily life. Another event was the Webinar on Annual Information System, wherein speakers CA Ameet Patel and CA Sonalee Godbole equipped members with the information which is captured by the Income-tax Department of the assessees and collated for them to verify and the manner in which to communicate with the Department for the discrepancies.

BCAS Taxation Committee representatives along with Tax Committee representatives of IMC and CTC had a fruitful interaction with Hon. CCIT (TDS), Mumbai along with his team from the TDS Department on 17th December, 2021. Various common and pertinent issues faced by the tax deductors / deductees as well as professionals while complying with the various provisions of TDS as well as through the tax portal were conveyed and discussed. Such interactions will go a long way in confidence-building measures between the Tax Department, taxpayers and tax professionals.

A pre-Budget Memorandum on Direct Taxes was also submitted by BCAS to the Hon. Finance Minister with a request to consider the suggestions while framing proposals in the Finance Bill, 2022 for amendments to the Income Tax Act, 1961.

BCAS’s
prized Diary and Calendar have also been released and the theme for this year is ‘Independent India’s Achievements @75’. If you have not yet ordered them, kindly ensure to have them ordered at the earliest as there is very limited stock available after pre-booking dispatches.

Let us all welcome 2022 by dreaming that the best period of our life is ahead of us. I would remind you that the great dreamers dreamt great dreams, not necessarily during the best of times but during the toughest of times. So let us DREAM BIG during such trying times and make it BIG. I conclude my message with an advice by my GURU Mahatria Ra.

Winning creates bonding.
Losing creates blaming.
So, set up a winnable game.
Together
Everybody
Achieves
More

Welcome to 2022,

Best Regards,
 

Abhay Mehta
President

New Year Resolution!

Shrikrishna: Hello, Arjun, all set to usher in New Year?

Arjun: Yes, Lord. Planning so many ambitious things!

Shrikrishna: Very good. For example?

Arjun: I am taking a pledge. I won’t start any work unless and until I am properly appointed.

Shrikrishna: Why? What makes you think that way? Of course, it is a good thing.

Arjun: Our friends are suffering unnecessarily for this reason.
        
Shrikrishna: What happened?

Arjun: Bhagwan, you know everything. Still, you are asking me?

Shrikrishna: True, I know what you are referring to. But tell it again so that other Pandavas also know.

Arjun: Fine. There was a large listed NBFC engaged in housing finance.

Shrikrishna: OK. What of that?

Arjun: Now it is facing many enquiries due to a big fraud of a few thousand crores!

Shrikrishna: Mostly, such frauds are sponsored by the management itself. One has to be very careful.

Arjun: True. For over 15 years, the company has been appointing only statutory auditors.

Shrikrishna: OK. Then?

Arjun: Then the company started appointing 25 to 30 SME firms to conduct branch audit of over 200 branches. This was in consultation with the statutory auditors.

Shrikrishna: So, the branch auditors were not appointed by the company directly in its annual general meeting. Right?

Arjun: Yes. The appointment letter of branches stated all terms and conditions in a couple of annexures and specified the fees.

Shrikrishna: Where was the problem?

Arjun: The branch auditors addressed their report to the statutory auditors, not the company! The company paid the fee to the branch auditors. This went on smoothly for several years!

Shrikrishna: Then, what is the issue?

Arjun: Now, NFRA has issued long notices to all branch auditors. Apart from other points, two basic points raised by NFRA are: The appointment of branch auditors itself is invalid since it was not made in the company’s general meeting, and the branch auditors did not give any engagement letter to the company!

Shrikrishna: Strange! And interesting! What are the branch auditors saying? And what was the fate of their branch audit reports?

Arjun: Statutory auditors have stated in their audit report that they have dealt with the branch auditors’ report while finalising the audit.
            
Shrikrishna: What about SA 210 regarding engagement letter?

Arjun: The appointment letter contained detailed terms and conditions and also the methodology of conducting the audit. The branch auditors accepted the appointment letter. So, no need was felt for a separate engagement letter. Moreover, they had been doing branch audits for many years. In such a case, the engagement letter every year was not warranted.

Shrikrishna: Oh! We had discussed many times that you people could be more serious about your own appointment and related provisions of the company law. You never bother to see secretarial records. See Clause (9) of Part I of the First Schedule.

Arjun: Lord, I agree that our members are careless about it. But here, it was a big reputed company. It had an army of qualified professionals employed with them. There was a full-time Company Secretary and a department under him. In addition, there was a secretarial audit.
Above all, the Statutory auditors are also a senior and reputed firm. Nobody noticed the flaw, if any.

Shrikrishna: But there is a big lesson! Don’t take anything for granted.

Arjun: Agreed. Our people never verify the minutes’ book, resolutions, notices or attendance records…. I realise that it is very essential. That’s my New Year’s Resolution to ensure that at least my appointment as an auditor is appropriately made!

Shrikrishna: My blessings to you, Paarth!

Om Shanti!!

        
[This dialogue is based on the importance of verifying the company’s secretarial compliances to ensure that an auditor is validly appointed. (Clause 9 Part I of First Schedule)].

Are You Tokenised Yet?

 
 

WHY?

When we shop online, say on Amazon/Flipkart, we make payments, inter alia, by using our debit/credit card. We usually enter the card details, including the card number, name, expiry date and the three-digit CVV. To make it more convenient for repeat purchases, the seller/merchant asks us for our one-time permission to store the card details on their server. If you provide permission, the data is securely stored on their servers, with encryption and masking technology. Now, if their security measures are inadequate or broken-into by a hacker, your entire data, including card number, CVV, etc. is vulnerable and susceptible to misuse, which could lead to a loss up to the value of your card limits.

Tokenisation is primarily designed to prevent such online or digital breaches.

HOW?

At the merchant’s end

Since October 2022, the RBI has mandated that the merchants will not save the customers’ card numbers on their servers. Instead, they will store a generated ‘token number’ for each debit/credit card that they want to be used recurrently on their servers.

  • What it means is that a random token number will be generated by the system, which will be stored at the merchant’s end.
  • This token number will be a unique combination of the debit/credit card number and the merchant. So, e.g., if you are shopping on Amazon, your card will be tokenised and a unique token number generated.
  • This token number can only be used to make purchases with that card on Amazon. It cannot be used on any other merchant website. Hence, a unique token number will be generated each for Flipkart, Rediff or any other shopping site.
  • Your card details will be held safe in a secure token vault.
  • This process will eliminate the possibility of hacking at the merchant’s end. Even if the data is hacked, all the hacker will receive will be a token number that will be unusable anywhere else and hence will be of no use to the hacker.
  • Thus, essentially, your card will have multiple tokens based on the number of merchants you have tokenised your card with.

For the user

 For the users (the debit/credit card holders), tokenisation is optional and not mandatory as of date.

  • As far as the user is concerned, the next time you pay online for something using your debit or credit card, you will be asked if you wish to ‘save the card as per RBI guidelines’ or ‘secure your card’. If you respond positively, you will immediately get an OTP on your mobile number linked to your card. Once you enter the OTP on the merchant site, your card will be automatically tokenised. It is as simple as that!
  • You will not have to remember your token number, nor will it be displayed to you.
  • However, you will still see the last four digits of your card at the merchant checkout page.
  • You can request tokenisation of any number of cards at a merchant website.
  • Whenever your card is renewed, reissued, or upgraded, you must visit the merchant page and create a fresh token by following the same instructions.
  • Each card you have, including add-on cards, will need to be tokenised, since each card has a unique card number.
  • If you wish to delete the token number already generated at a merchant’s website, you just need to disable that card at the merchant’s website/app, and your token number will be automatically deleted.
  • If your card has not been tokenised, it will be automatically removed from apps and websites, and you will be required to fill in all your card details every time you transact on that merchant platform.

Security

Tokenised transactions are more secure since the generated tokens are normally not reversible. In encrypted transactions, the process is reversible by decryption using a unique key, and decryption is mostly necessary to complete each transaction. It is, therefore, felt that tokenisation is relatively more secure than encryption.

Thus, from now onwards, you can transact online confidently, with the assurance that your transactions are more secure than before.

Happy shopping!

SEBI Lays down Clearer Guidelines on What Constitutes ‘Misleading Information’

BACKGROUND

A recent SEBI Order on alleged misleading price-sensitive news by a journalist of a leading TV channel has wider ramifications. Not just news media but also companies, their senior executives, advisors of various forms and, more particularly in recent times, social media ‘influencers’ may need to consider the reasoning offered here. There is now even a word coined for this fast-growing group of social media influencers in investing – finfluencers (i.e. finance + influencers). While SEBI let off the journalist, and rightly so on the facts, the reasons provided for differentiating this case are noteworthy. Effectively, SEBI has laid down certain general principles on how communications to the public by various parties may be viewed. When would a person communicating to the public, in general, be said to have been misleading, acting fraudulently, acting recklessly, etc., to the point of becoming a violation of the law? The decision could help in answering these questions. And this would be relevant for persons including, say, the Chairman/CEO of a company (there is a case earlier where SEBI held him liable, only to find its Order reversed on appeal), the company secretary who communicates to the exchanges, various forms of advisors and ‘experts’ (registered with SEBI or not), etc.

The Order is also interesting since a core question raised was the constitutional guarantee of free speech, and it was claimed that the media had immunity from action. The Order considered several Court rulings in this regard.

Let us review this Order of SEBI and know what factors were deemed relevant to determine that the journalist concerned was not guilty. These factors should help determine how, another person could be found guilty on a different set of facts.

SEBI’S ORDER

SEBIs Order dated 31st October, 2022, bearing reference No. Order/NH/VS/2022-23/20979, is briefly summarized. A leading business TV channel’s journalist reported to it on a price sensitive matter. She reported that the merger of a leading listed company was approved by the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). She was personally present at the hearing of the NCLT. On receiving the report, the channel immediately interviewed the company’s Chairman on the implications of the ‘merger order’. The Chairman gave replies though he first qualified that he had not seen the merger order.

Now, mergers, takeovers, etc., are generally treated as material and price-sensitive information. This is particularly so because, depending on various factors such as the condition of the company being merged, the exchange ratio, etc., there could be significant demand – or offloading – of the company’s shares, thus impacting the market price. Thus, various SEBI Regulations provide for special treatment of such material/price-sensitive information. The SEBI Insider Trading Regulations, for example, require that it should not be leaked selectively or that insiders should not trade based on such information. The SEBI LODR Regulations require that material information should be disclosed forthwith in the specified manner. However, in this case, the question was the applicability of the SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Markets) Regulations, 2003 (the PFUTP Regulations). The Regulations have multiple provisions prohibiting sharing of misleading information or other similar manipulative/fraudulent practices.

SEBI was of the view that the journalist misreported the development when, according to it, the merger was not approved, and the matter was still at an early stage. Hence, the reporting was premature and thus misleading and violated the PFUTP Regulations. SEBI initiated proceedings against the journalist (whilst also seeking inputs from the TV channel, the company, its Chairman, etc.).

There were several defences proffered by the journalist. Two were fundamental in law and special for journalists. First, she refused to share the source of her information, claiming this as a privilege of journalists. Secondly, she stated that any action against her for her report would amount to a violation of the fundamental right of freedom of expression under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.

Then, there were some more specific defences in light of the PFUTP Regulations. There was a question on whether the order of the NCLT on that day really amounted to a final verdict on the merger. The order was said to be ‘reserved’ by NCLT. Whether, particularly in light of the other factors in the proceedings before NCLT, issuance of a final order was a matter of formality or whether there was anything substantial still pending. This was more so in light of the fact that the NCLT did issue a formal order approving the merger, albeit several weeks later.

The journalist also pointed out that in her email to the TV channel, she mentioned that the written order was yet to be issued.

SEBI’S REASONING IN DISPOSING OFF THE PROCEEDINGS

SEBI made several points while finding the journalist not guilty.

It noted that the journalist and her family members did not trade in the securities of the listed company in question. Hence, no benefit was obtained from the report, even if one were to assume that the report was substantially incorrect.

SEBI also drew on several Court rulings which had opined that while, as an advisory, Courts would want journalists and media to avoid sensationalizing, they would be “loathe to restrain media”. It cited the decision of the Supreme Court in Rajendran Chingaraveluv. R. K. Mishra, ((2010) 1 SCC 457), where the Hon’ble Court held, “Every journalist/reporter has an overriding duty to the society of educating the masses with fair, accurate, trustworthy and responsible reports relating to reportable events/incidents and above all to the standards of his/her profession. Thus, the temptation to sensationalize should be resisted.”

It was also considered that in the news flashed immediately later by the TV channel, it stated that NCLT was yet to publish the written order.

However, particularly for the purposes of this article, what was most significant was the point made by SEBI on whether there was any intentional misleading by the journalist concerned. Was there any intention to influence investors to trade in a direction that they would not have done but for such news?

SEBI relied on the oft-quoted decision of the Supreme Court in N. Narayanan vs. SEBI [(2013) 12 SCC 152] to reiterate the law on the duty of the print and electronic media in relation to the securities market. The apex Court has stated that – “Print and Electronic Media have also a solemn duty not to mislead the public, who are present and prospective investors, in their forecast on the securities market. Of course, a genuine and honest opinion on market position of a company has to be welcomed. But a media projection on company’s position in the security market with a view to derive a benefit from a position in the securities would amount to market abuse, creating artificiality. [emphasis supplied].

An earlier case of SAT was also cited where a company’s Chairman was alleged to have made a misleading statement, also on a price-sensitive matter of a possible takeover of another listed company. SEBI levied a significant penalty on the Chairman. SAT overturned the order on facts and reiterated the principle that “…in the absence of any motive or a scheme or any evidence a reported news item alone is not sufficient to prove a serious charge like fraud.

Thus, the litmus test appears to be the intention of the person making the communication. Emphasizing the wording of the Regulations, SEBI concluded in the present case that, to be held guilty of violating the provisions, it would need to be shown that “…that the (journalist) filed the impugned news report with (the channel) with a pre-determined intent to manipulate scrip prices or induce investors”. Thus, an intention had to be shown and that too of manipulating the scrip prices or inducing investors to act. Absent these, the charge of violating the relevant Regulations fails. The journalist was thus held not guilty of violating the provisions.

WIDE SCOPE OF THESE PROVISIONS, PARTICULARLY IN THESE DAYS OF SOCIAL MEDIA

The convenience of social media/internet has made it easy for individuals to present their views, informed or otherwise. For example, Youtube and Twitter have made it easy to share views economically and widely. A flourishing industry of social influencers has formed, including food reviewers, tech reviewers, plain entertainers and, for the purposes of this topic, influencers in the field of investing (finfluencers). Recently, Business Standard reported that SEBI is keeping a watchful eye on this group, and that they may end up being regulated. The concerns with this group are, however, different. Their intention primarily is not to maliciously induce investors to deal in some scrips. They intend to have a large following and ‘views’ (or eyeballs). The more the views, the more their earnings. And to increase the views, many use hyperbole and click-bait and the like or shallow tips for financial analysis that promise high and easy rewards but which often border on recklessness. The scheme of securities laws particularly expects professionally qualified people to be more responsible, and recklessness on their part may be viewed more strictly. SEBI closely regulates registered intermediaries, such as investment advisers, research analysts, etc., and requires them to follow a strict Code of Conduct. However, these groups appear to fall into a grey area in most cases.

There have also been cases where SEBI has found such persons allegedly engaging in acts that could fulfil all the prerequisites laid down earlier. SEBI has, for example, made findings that certain Telegram Channels are engaged in giving ‘tips’ of scrips to induce investors to buy the shares at inflated prices while they offloaded.

In another case, it was alleged that the anchor of a leading financial channel gave recommendations on television but illicitly made personal profits. Given the large viewership and following, his recommendations led to an immediate rise in purchases of such recommended scrips. SEBI alleged that the anchor/his family members had purchased these scrips just before such recommendations and sold them immediately after making the recommendations.

CONCLUSION

SEBI has laid down fairly clear criteria for determining whether or not communications to the public relating to securities violate the PFUTP Regulations, and then it would be a question of applying them in the facts of each case. Having said that, even this may not be the last word. In recent times, the settled rule is that even in cases of alleged fraud or manipulative practices, if the proceedings are civil (and not criminal), the proof required is not strict. The test is of ‘preponderance of probabilities’ and not ‘proof beyond reasonable doubt’ (Supreme Court in SEBI vs. Kishore Ajmera (2016) 196 Comp Cas 181 and SEBI vs. Rakhi Trading (P.) Ltd. (2018) 207 Comp Cas 443). Thus, while the media may still get some extra leeway, the rest may be judged with a more relaxed benchmark.

Maintenance under Criminal Procedure Code

INTRODUCTION

The duty to maintain certain relatives is a subject covered by different statutes. The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with the maintenance to be provided by a Hindu male for his wife, parents, children and certain other relations. Another Hindu Law statute which deals with this is the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. Maintenance payable by a Hindu to his wife is also covered under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005. This Law applies to people of all religions.

However and interestingly, maintenance as an obligation is also covered under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC). The CrPC is a criminal procedure law, whilst maintenance is a civil obligation. Nevertheless, sections 125 to 128 of the CrPC deal with this important civil duty. The Bombay High Court in Zahid Ali Imdadali vs. Fahmida Begum 1988 (4) BomCR 366 has observed that the right of an aggrieved claiming maintenance u/s 125 of the CrPC was essentially a civil right. The remedies provided in the said sections were in the nature of civil rights. The proceedings u/s 125 were essentially civil in nature.

In Badshah vs. Urmila Badshah Godse (2014) 1 SCC 188, the Supreme Court explained that the purpose of these sections of the CrPC was to achieve “social justice”, which was the constitutional vision enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

APPLICABILITY

The provisions of the CrPC come into force where any person having sufficient means neglects or refuses to maintain:

(a)    His wife who is unable to maintain herself;

(b)    His minor child (even if illegitimate) unable to maintain itself;

(c)    His major child (even if illegitimate) who cannot maintain itself owing to any physical/mental abnormality/injury; or

(d)    His parent who is unable to maintain itself.

Thus, any of the above four categories could petition the Court, and if such proof of neglect/refusal exists, then the Court would order an interim/final maintenance order for the aggrieved on such terms as it deems fit. A First Class Judicial Magistrate (the starting point of Courts in the Criminal hierarchy) is empowered to pass such maintenance order.

The onus to prove neglect/refusal lies on the claimant. She/he must demonstrate willful default on the other person’s part.

The Supreme Court in Kirtikant D. Vadodaria vs. State of Gujarat (1996) 4 SCC 479 explained that the dominant and primary object of the section was to provide social justice to women, children, infirm parents etc., and to prevent destitution and vagrancy by compelling those who can support those who are unable to support themselves but have a moral claim for support. The provisions provide a speedy remedy to those women, children and destitute parents who are in distress. The provisions were intended to achieve this special purpose. The dominant purpose behind the benevolent provisions was that the wife, child and parents should not be left in a helpless state of distress, destitution and starvation.

In Savitaben Somabhai Bhatiya vs. State of Gujarat 2005 AIR(SC) 1809, it was held that the provisions of CrPC were applicable and enforceable whatever was the personal law by which the persons concerned were governed. Hence, even Muslims were covered by it (Mohd.Ahmed Khan vs. Shah Bano Begum, 1985 SCC (Cri) 245).

PERSON OF SUFFICIENT MEANS

In Anju Garg vs. Deepak Garg, Cr. Appeal 1693/2022 (SC) it was held that it is the sacrosanct duty of the husband to provide financial support to his wife and minor children. The husband is required to earn money even by physical labour if he is an able-bodied man. In this case, the husband contended that he had no source of income as his business had been closed. The Supreme Court held that it was neither impressed by nor ready to accept such submissions. The respondent being an able-bodied man, was obliged to earn by legitimate means and maintain his wife and the minor child.

Thus, if he has sufficient means at his disposal, either in the form of property, assets, employment or even physical capacity to be employed, then an order of maintenance would be passed against him for neglect of duty.

The Apex Court in Dr. Mrs. Vijaya Arbat vs. Kashirao Sawaui and another (AIR 1987 SC 1100) held that, under this section, even a daughter is liable to maintain her parents, without making any distinction between an unmarried daughter and a married daughter. It held that even though the section had used the expression “his father or mother”, the use of the word ‘his’ did not exclude the parents claiming maintenance from their daughter. The Court explained that if the contention of the daughter was accepted that she had no liability whatsoever to maintain her parents, in that case, parents having only daughters and unable to maintain themselves, would go destitute, if the daughters even though they had sufficient means refused to maintain their parents!

In an interesting recent decision, the Supreme Court in Kiran Tomar vs. State of UP, Cr. Appeal No. 1865/2022 dealt with a petition u/s 125 of the CrPC. The Family Court fixed a certain sum of maintenance based on the Income-tax returns of the husband, which was appealed against by the wife. The Supreme Court held that it was well-settled that income tax returns did not necessarily furnish an accurate guide of the real income! Particularly, when parties were engaged in a marital conflict, there was a tendency to underestimate income. Hence, it was for the Family Court to determine on a holistic assessment of the evidence what would be the real income of the husband to enable the wife and children to live in a condition commensurate with the status to which they were accustomed when they stayed together.

MAINTENANCE AND ITS QUANTUM

In Bhuwan Mohan Singh vs. Meena, 2014 AIR (SC) 2875, the Court held that the section was conceived to ameliorate the agony, anguish and financial sufferings of a woman so that the Court could make some suitable arrangements and she could sustain herself and also her children if they were with her. The concept of sustenance did not necessarily mean to lead an animal’s life, feel like an unperson to be thrown away from grace and roam for her basic maintenance somewhere else. She was entitled to lead a life in a similar manner as she would have lived at her husband’s house. That is where the status and strata came into play, and that is where the obligations of the husband, in the case of a wife, became prominent. In a proceeding of this nature, the husband could not take subterfuges to deprive her of the benefit of living with dignity. Regard being had to the solemn pledge at the time of marriage and, in consonance with the statutory law that governed the field, it was the obligation of the husband to see that the wife did not become a destitute, a beggar. A situation was not to be maladroitly created whereby she was compelled to resign to her fate and think of life “dust unto dust”. In fact, it was the husband’s sacrosanct duty to render financial support even if he was required to earn money with physical labour if he was able bodied. The object of the section was to prevent vagrancy and destitution. It provided a speedy remedy for the supply of food, clothing and shelter to the deserted wife.

In Rajnesh vs. Neha 2021 AIR(SC) 569, it was held that the objective of granting interim/permanent alimony was to ensure that the wife was not reduced to destitution or vagrancy on account of the failure of the marriage and not as a punishment to the other spouse. There was no straitjacket formula to fix the quantum of maintenance to be awarded. The factors which would weigh with the Court included the status of the parties; reasonable needs of the wife and dependent children; whether the applicant was educated and professionally qualified; whether the applicant had any independent source of income; whether the income was sufficient to enable her to maintain the same standard of living as she was accustomed to in her matrimonial home; whether the applicant was employed before her marriage; whether she was working during the subsistence of the marriage; whether the wife was required to sacrifice her employment opportunities for nurturing the family, child-rearing, and looking after adult members of the family; and reasonable costs of litigation for a non-working wife.

One of the inseparable conditions for claiming maintenance that also had to be satisfied was that the wife could not maintain herself – Chaturbhuj vs. Sita Bai, 2008 AIR(SC) 530. However, in Shailja & Anr. vs. Khobbanna, (2018) 12 SCC 199, the Supreme Court held that merely because the wife was capable of earning, it would not be sufficient ground to reduce the maintenance awarded by the Family Court. The Court had to determine whether the wife’s income was sufficient to enable her to maintain herself in accordance with her husband’s lifestyle in the matrimonial home. Sustenance did not mean mere survival. Similarly, in Sunita Kachwaha vs. Anil Kachwaha, (2014) 16 SCC 715, it was held that merely because the wife was earning some income, it could not be a ground to reject her maintenance claim.

In the case of minor children, the Court, in Rajnesh’s case (supra), held that maintenance would include expenses for food, clothing, residence, medical expenses and children’s education. Extra coaching classes or other vocational training courses to complement the basic education must be factored in while awarding child support. However, it should be a reasonable amount awarded for extra-curricular/coaching classes and not an overly extravagant amount.

MAINTENANCE UNDER THE DOMESTIC VIOLENCE ACT

In addition to maintenance under Hindu Law, it also becomes essential to understand maintenance payable to a wife under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005. It is an Act to provide for more effective protection of the rights, guaranteed under the Constitution of India, of those women who are victims of violence of any kind occurring within the family. It provides that if any act of domestic violence has been committed against a woman, then such aggrieved woman can approach designated Protection Officers to protect her. The Supreme Court in Shome Danani vs. Tanya Danani 2019 (3) RLW 2124, held that a lady can approach both remedies under the CrPC as well as under the Domestic Violence Act. The object of both laws is different. This feature has earlier dealt in detail with the provisions of this law [refer BCAJ February 2021 and June 2022].

In Rajnesh vs. Neha 2021 AIR(SC) 569, the Apex Court held that maintenance might be claimed under one or more statutes (e.g., CrPC, Domestic Violence Act, Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act), since each of these enactments provided an independent and distinct remedy framed with a specific object and purpose. The remedy provided by Section 125 was summary in nature, and the substantive disputes with respect to the dissolution of marriage could be determined by a Civil/Family Court in an appropriate proceeding, such as the Hindu Marriage Act, 1956. It further held that maintenance granted under the Domestic Violence Act to an aggrieved woman and children would be given effect to, in addition to an order of maintenance awarded under the CrPC or any other law in force.

The Court, however, held that while it was well settled that a wife could make a claim for maintenance under different statutes, it would be inequitable to direct the husband to pay maintenance under each of the proceedings, independent of the relief granted in a previous proceeding. Accordingly, to overcome the issue of overlapping jurisdiction, and avoid conflicting orders being passed in different proceedings, the Court directed that in a subsequent maintenance proceeding, the applicant must disclose the previous maintenance proceeding and the orders passed therein so that the Court would take into consideration the maintenance already awarded during the last proceeding, and grant an adjustment or set-off of the said amount. If the order passed in the previous proceeding required any modification or variation, the party would be required to move the concerned Court in the previous proceeding.

A compromise decree entered into by a husband and wife agreeing for a consolidated amount towards permanent alimony, thereby giving up any future claim for maintenance, accepted by the Court in a proceeding u/s 125 of the CrPC, would not preclude the wife from claiming maintenance in a suit filed under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 – Nagendrappa Natikar vs. Neelamma, 2013 AIR(SC) 1541.

In Bhagwan Dutt vs. Kamla Devi, (1975) 2 SCC 386, the Supreme Court held that under CrPC, only a wife who was “unable to maintain herself” was entitled to seek maintenance.

ENFORCEMENT

Section 125(3) of the CrPC provides that if the party against whom the order of maintenance is passed fails to comply with it, the same shall be recovered in the manner as provided for fines. The Magistrate may award a sentence of imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month, or until payment, whichever is earlier. However, the imprisonment is resorted to only against non-payment under the order.

The Court in Chaturbhuj’s case (supra) explained that the object of maintenance proceedings was not to punish a person for his past neglect but to prevent vagrancy and destitution of a deserted wife by providing her food, clothing, and shelter by a speedy remedy.

In addition, the Supreme Court in the case of Rajnesh (supra) directed that enforcement/execution of orders of maintenance, may be enforced as a money decree of a Civil Court as per the provisions of the CrPC, i.e., by attachment of property, arrest, detention, appointing a Court Receiver for his property, etc.

CONCLUSION

The right to claim maintenance has been provided to several persons under the Code. The Courts have been eager to uphold the claim of the aggrieved wife/others and have been very liberal in construing the provisions of these sections. As explained by the Supreme Court in Badshah’s case (supra), Courts would bridge the gap between Law and society using purposive interpretation to advance the cause of social justice!

Select Tax and Transfer Pricing Issues in Case of Transactions between the Head Office and its Permanent Establishment

BACKGROUND

With
the ever-evolving tax world, in light of the BEPS Project and the
resultant Multilateral Instrument, transactions involving physical
presence in India would be under greater scrutiny for the constitution
of a Permanent Establishment (‘PE’). Once it has been concluded that a
PE exists in a particular jurisdiction, one of the key issues to be
navigated is in respect of the profit attributable to the PE. The
concept of a PE deems the PE to be considered as a separate taxable
entity from the Head Office (‘HO’) for limited specific purposes. In
this article, the authors analyse some of the interesting issues which
arise due to ‘transactions’ between the PE and the HO. The topic of
profit attribution to the PE and the interplay between the tax treaties
and domestic law as well as transfer pricing provisions is a vast topic
in itself and in this article only the limited issues of ‘transactions’
between the PE and the HO are considered.

WHETHER TRANSACTIONS BETWEEN PE AND HO WOULD TRIGGER INCOME TAX IMPLICATIONS IN THE HANDS OF THE HO

Article 7(2) of the UN Model Tax Convention 2021 provides as follows:

“Subject
to the provisions of paragraph 3, where an enterprise of a Contracting
State carries on business in the other Contracting State through a
permanent establishment situated therein, there shall in each
Contracting State be attributed to that permanent establishment the
profits which it might be expected to make if it were a distinct and
separate enterprise engaged in the same or similar activities under the
same or similar conditions and dealing wholly independently with the
enterprise of which it is a permanent establishment.”

Therefore, Article 7(2) forms the genesis behind treating a PE of a taxpayer as an independent and separate entity.

Further,
while Article 7(3) of the UN Model restricts the claim of deduction in
respect of certain payments such as royalty, fees, commission, or
interest by the PE to its HO, while computing the profits attributable
to the PE, the language differs in various DTAAs entered by India. For
example, one would not find such restriction in Article 7 of the India –
Singapore DTAA.

Similarly, Para 7(2) of the OECD Model 2017 provides as follows:

“For
the purposes of this Article and Article [23 A] [23 B], the profits
that are attributable in each Contracting State to the permanent
establishment referred to in paragraph 1 are the profits it might be
expected to make, in particular in its dealings with other parts of the
enterprise, if it were a separate and independent enterprise engaged in
the same or similar activities under the same or similar conditions,
taking into account the functions performed, assets used and risks
assumed by the enterprise through the permanent establishment and
through the other parts of the enterprise.”

The question
which arises in the case of the constitution of PE of a non-resident
taxpayer in India, is whether the expenses which are deducted while
computing the profits attributable to a PE and which are paid by the PE
to the HO, would result in taxable income in the hands of the HO in
India?

Let us take an example of an entity, resident in
Singapore (‘SingCo’), which undertakes activities through a branch in
India, which constitutes a PE in India. In this case, there could be two
types of expenses, which one would consider for the purpose of
computing the profits attributable to the PE of SingCo in India:

a)
Expenses incurred outside India by the HO, which are directly related
to the activities undertaken by the PE in India and therefore deductible
in the hands of the PE, say fees of a consultant who has been employed
exclusively in respect of the activities undertaken in India.

b)
Expenses which, if the PE was a distinct and independent entity, would
have entailed using certain resources of the HO and therefore, a cost
thereof, such as royalty or interest paid to the HO and therefore,
deductible in the hands of the PE.

In respect of point (a)
above, arguably one may be able to take a position that the income of
the consultant (assumed that it is considered as fees for technical
services) would be considered as deemed to accrue or arise in India by
virtue of section 9(1)(vii)(c) of the Act. Further, if the payment is
not considered as fees for technical services or royalty, in any case,
in the absence of deeming provisions such as section 9(1)(vi) and
9(1)(vii) of the Act, the income of the consultant does not accrue or
arise in India and therefore, the question of taxability of any income
in India in the hands of the HO or the consultant does not arise.

In
respect of point (b) above, the issue arises is given the fact that
deduction is claimed for the payments (or deemed payments in accordance
with Article 7 of the relevant DTAA) while computing the profits
attributable to the PE in India, would such payments be considered as
income in the hands of the HO in India?

In this regard, the
cardinal principle to apply would be that one cannot make profit/ income
out of oneself. This principle has been held by the Supreme Court in
the case of Sir Kikabhai Premchand vs. CIT (1953) 24 ITR 506 and various other judgments as well.

In the context of interest received by the PE from the HO, the Bombay High Court in the cases of DIT vs. American Express Bank Ltd (2015) 62 taxmann.com 349, DIT vs. Oman International Bank S.A.O.G (2017) 80 taxmann.com 139 and DIT vs. Credit Agricole Indosuez (2015) 377 ITR 102
has held that such interest or interest received from other branches of
the same entity would not be taxable as the same cannot constitute
income. While the above decisions are in the context of interest
received by an Indian PE, the same principles would apply even in the
case of interest received by the HO.

Similarly, while there are
various ITAT decisions on the issue of taxability of amounts received by
the HO from its PE, recently the Mumbai ITAT in the case of Shinhan Bank vs. DDIT (2022) 139 taxmann.com 563
has succinctly explained the issue of the dichotomy of claiming the
expenses (notional) in the hands of the PE on the one hand and not
taxing the notional income in the hands of the HO (General Enterprise or
‘GE’ in the case law) on the other. The relevant extracts are
reproduced below:

“32. The approach so adopted by the revenue
authorities, on the first principles, is simply contrary to the scheme
of the tax treaties. The fiction of hypothetical independence of a PE
vis-a-vis it’s GE and other PEs outside the source jurisdiction is
confined to the computation of profits attributable to the permanent
establishment and, in our considered view, it does not go beyond that,
such as for the purpose of computing profits of the GE. Article 7(2) of
the then Indo-Korea tax treaty specifically provides that when an
enterprise of a treaty partner country carries out business through a
permanent establishment, “there shall be in each Contracting State be
attributed to that permanent establishment the profits which it might be
expected to make if it were a distinct and separate enterprise engaged
in the same or similar activities under the same or similar conditions
and dealing wholly independently with the enterprise of which it is a
permanent establishment”. This fiction of hypothetical independence
comes into play for the limited purposes of computing profits
attributable to permanent establishment only and is set out under the
specific provision, dealing with the computation of such profits, in the
tax treaties, including in the then Indo-Korean DTAA. There is nothing,
therefore, to warrant or justify the application of the same principle
in the computation of GE profits as well. Clearly, therefore, the
fiction of hypothetical independence is for the limited purpose of
profit attribution to the permanent establishment.

33. To that
extent, this approach departs from the separate accounting principle in
the sense that the GE, to which PE belongs, is not seen in isolation
with it’s PE, and a charge, in respect of PE – GE transactions, on the
PE profits is not treated as income in the hands of the GE.”

Interestingly,
the CBDT Circular 740 dated 17 April 1996 sought to tax this notional
income in the hands of the HO. Para 3 of the Circular provided:

“It
is clarified that the branch of a foreign company/concern in India is a
separate entity for the purposes of taxation. Interest paid/payable by
such branch to its head office or any branch located abroad would be
liable to tax in India and would be governed by the provisions of
section 115A of the Act. If the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement with
the country where the parent company is assessed to tax provides for a
lower rate of taxation, the same would be applicable. Consequently, tax
would have to be deducted accordingly on the interest remitted as per
the provisions of section 195 of the Income-tax Act, 1961.”

This
view of the CBDT was duly struck down by the various ITAT judgments
which have held that in the absence of any income, such payments cannot
be taxed.

The Finance Act, 2015 has sought to tax these types of
payments in the hands of the HO in the case of banking companies by
inserting an Explanation to section 9(1)(v) of the Act as follows:

“For the purposes of this clause, –

(a) it
is hereby declared that in the case of a non-resident, being a person
engaged in the business of banking, any interest payable by the
permanent establishment in India of such non-resident to the head office
or any permanent establishment or any other part of such non-resident
outside India shall be deemed to accrue or arise in India and shall be
chargeable to tax in addition to any income attributable to the
permanent establishment in India and the permanent establishment in
India shall be deemed to be a person separate and independent of the
non-resident person of which it is a permanent establishment and the
provisions of the Act relating to computation of total income,
determination of tax and collection and recovery shall apply
accordingly;..”

While the above amendment may now create a
deeming fiction to tax the notional income of the HO in the case of
banking companies, the authors are of the view that such deeming
provisions cannot be read into the DTAAs and therefore, following the
principles laid down by the various judicial precedents, such notional
income should not be taxable in India.

Another argument in
favour of the non-taxability of such notional transactions under the
DTAAs is that generally Article 11 and Article 12 of the DTAAs, dealing
with Interest and Royalty respectively refer to the respective income
‘arising’ in a Contracting State and ‘paid’ to a resident of the other
Contracting State. Under general parlance, the term ‘paid’ would require
two distinct entities or persons and therefore, in the absence of a
deeming provision such as that in the Explanation to section 9(1)(v)
which deems a PE and the HO to be distinct for tax purposes under the
Act, the notional income should not be taxable in India.

The
next scenario which one needs to consider is whether transactions
between an Indian HO and its Overseas PE would result in any tax
implications in India?

In this scenario, as the HO being a
resident of India is already subjected to worldwide taxation under
section 5 of the Act, the question of separately taxing the transaction
between the Indian HO and its overseas PE would not arise.

WHETHER TRANSACTIONS BETWEEN PE AND HO WOULD BE SUBJECT TO TRANSFER PRICING IN INDIA

One
of the questions which arises is whether transactions between the HO
and its Branch (i.e., PE) would be subject to transfer pricing?

This
issue arises as section 92A of the Act, dealing with the term
‘associated enterprises’ (‘AEs’), refers to ‘enterprises’ instead of
‘entities’, and the term ‘enterprise’ is defined in section 92F(iii) of
the Act to include a permanent establishment, thereby considering a PE
as a separate entity for transfer pricing provisions.

In this
regard, one may need to analyse the provisions in respect of
transactions between a branch (which is a PE) and HO under two distinct
scenarios – the first one where an Indian company has a branch overseas
and the second scenario wherein the foreign company has a branch in
India.

In the first scenario, the Delhi ITAT in the case of Aithent Technologies Pvt Ltd vs. ITO [TS-38-ITAT-2015(DEL)-TP]
held that the transactions between a foreign branch and the Indian HO
cannot be an international transaction as a branch is not a separate
entity and one cannot undertake a transaction with oneself.

Further, in the case of the same assessee for another year, the Delhi ITAT in Aithent Technologies Pvt Ltd vs. DCIT [TS-752-ITAT-2016(DEL)-TP]
also held that even if one ignores the argument that the branch is not a
separate entity, given that section 5 of the Act provides that the
global income of a resident is taxable in India, increasing the income
of the HO in India would result in a corresponding increase in the
expense of the overseas branch and as such income would be consolidated,
the net impact of such adjustment would be Nil. It explained the same
by way of the following example:

“Suppose the Indian head
office purchases goods worth Rs.95 and transfers the same to foreign
branch office at Rs.100, which are in turn sold by the branch office for
a sum of Rs.120. The profit of the head office will be Rs.5 (Rs.100
minus Rs.95) and the profit of the branch office will be Rs.20 (Rs.120
minus Rs.100). The Indian general enterprise will be chargeable to tax
in India on its world income of Rs.25 (Rs.5 plus Rs.20). If for a
moment, it is presumed that the ALP of the goods transferred to the
branch office is Rs.110 and not Rs.100 and the figure is accordingly
altered, the profit of the head office will become Rs.15 (Rs.110 minus
Rs.95) and that of the branch office at Rs.10 (Rs.120 minus Rs.110).
Again the Indian general enterprise will be chargeable to tax in India
on its world income of Rs.25 (Rs.15 plus Rs.10). There can never be any
reason for an Indian enterprise to over or under invoice the goods or
services to its foreign branch office because by virtue of section 5(1),
it is its world income which is going to be charged to tax in India,
which in all circumstances will remain same at Rs.25 in the above
example.”

Therefore, one can conclude that the transactions
between an Indian company and its overseas branch would not be
considered as international transactions and therefore, would not be
subject to transfer pricing in India.

Interestingly, while the
facts were related to an Indian company having an overseas branch, the
Delhi ITAT in the above decision also evaluated the transfer pricing
provisions in the second scenario i.e., a foreign company having a
branch in India. It held as follows:

“The rationale in not
applying the provisions of Chapter-X on transactions between the head
office and branch office is limited only on an Indian enterprise having
branch office abroad. It is not the other way around. If a foreign
general enterprise has a branch office in India, such Indian branch
office will be considered as an `enterprise’ u/s 92F(iii) and the
transactions between the foreign head office and the Indian branch
office will be `International transactions’ in terms of section 92B.
This is for the reason that the total income of a non-resident in terms
of section 5(2) includes all income from whatever source derived which
(a) is received or is deemed to be received in India in such year by or
on behalf of such person; or (b) accrues or arises or is deemed to
accrue or arise to him in India during such year. Thus, it is only the
Indian income of a non-resident, which is chargeable to tax in India. In
such circumstances, there can be an allurement to some non-resident
assesses to resort to under or over-invoicing so as to mitigate the tax
burden in India. It is with this background in mind that the legislature
introduced Chapter X with the caption `Special provision relating to
avoidance of tax’ so to ensure that the international transactions are
reported at ALP.

Some foreign associated enterprise instead of
having an Indian enterprise may opt to have a branch office in India and
then claim that since the Indian branch office is not a separate
enterprise, the transfer pricing provisions should not be applied.
Section 92F(iii) has been incorporated to ensure that not only the
transactions between the foreign enterprise and its Indian associated
enterprise but also the transactions between the foreign enterprise and
its branch office in India are also determined at ALP so that the Indian
tax kitty is not deprived of the rightful amount of tax due to it.
Thus, the definition of `enterprise’ as per section 92F(iii) as also
including its permanent establishment for the transfer pricing
provisions is confined only in respect of a foreign general enterprise
having a branch office in India and not vice versa.”

Therefore,
the Delhi ITAT has held that given the objective of the transfer
pricing provisions, transactions between a foreign entity and its Indian
branch would be considered as international transactions and would be
subject to transfer pricing.

However, one of the aspects which
is not considered by the Hon’ble ITAT in the above case, is whether the
HO and branch would be considered as AEs.

Section 92A(1)(a) of the Act provides that an AE means an enterprise:

“which
participates directly or indirectly, or through one or more
intermediaries, in the management or control or capital of the other
enterprise.”

The term ‘associated enterprises’ has been
defined in section 92A of the Act. While sub-section (1) provides the
broad principles for determining whether an enterprise is as AE,
sub-section (2) lists various scenarios wherein two enterprises shall be
deemed to be AEs. The ensuing paragraphs analyse the broad principles
of determination of AE as well as the scenarios wherein two enterprises
are deemed to be AEs.

The broad principles in section 92A(1)
refer to direct or indirect participation in capital, control or
management. The instances of deemed AEs enumerated in section 92A(2)
include holding shares carrying voting rights, significant loan
advanced, significant guarantee provided, right to appoint members of
the board of directors or governing board, ownership of intangibles for
manufacture of goods, significant purchase of raw materials and holding
by relatives or member of HUF.

Participation in the capital would
mean holding shares in a company or interest in any other entity.
While, the term ‘control’ or ‘management’ is not defined in the Act, the
term ‘control and management’ is referred to in sections 6(2), 6(3)(ii)
[prior to the amendment vide Finance Act 2015] and 6(4), to determine
the residential status of HUF, firm, AOP, companies (prior to the
amendment as referred above) and every other person. In that context,
various judicial precedents have held that ‘control and management’ of
the affairs would mean where the key decisions are taken. In the context
of companies, various Courts have held that the ‘control and
management’ is situated where the meeting of the Board of Directors is
held and where they make the key decisions. These principles are
explained in the Supreme Court decision in the case of CIT vs. Nandlal Gandalal [(1960) 40 ITR 1]
wherein it was held that the term ‘control and management’ means
controlling and directive power – ‘the head and brain’ of the entity.

Therefore,
participation in management or control could also signify the ability
to exercise decision-making authority over an enterprise. In this
regard, one may refer to the decision of the Mumbai ITAT in the case of Kaybee Pvt Ltd vs. ITO [(2015) 171 TTJ 536]
which held that holding a key position of making decisions such as the
Chief Operating Officer would signify the exercise of ‘control or
management’ of an entity.

In the case of a branch and HO, there
is no investment in the capital by the HO in the Branch and therefore,
one would need to evaluate if there is exercise of any control or
management between the enterprises.

In this regard one may be
able to argue that the HO exercises some level of control over the
branch and therefore, there is an element of ‘control’. However, the
question is whether one would also need to satisfy the conditions as
provided in section 92A(2) of the Act in order to be considered as AEs.

The
Memorandum to the Finance Bill, 2002, while amending section 92A(2) of
the Act has provided the reasoning for such amendment as follows:

“It
is proposed to amend sub-section (2) of the said section to clarify
that the mere fact of participation by one enterprise in the management
or control or capital of the other enterprise, or the participation of
one or more persons in the management or control or capital of both the
enterprises shall not make them associated enterprises, unless the
criteria specified in sub-section (2) are fulfilled.”

Therefore,
the intention of the Legislature is clear that merely satisfying the
conditions in section 92A(1) of the Act is not sufficient and one needs
to fulfill one of the criteria laid down in section 92A(2) in order to
qualify as an AE.

The above principle has been upheld by the Ahmedabad ITAT in the case of ACIT vs. Veer Gems [(2017) 183 TTJ 588],
wherein it was held that the conditions as prescribed in section 92A(1)
are restricted to the conditions or illustrations provided in section
92A(2) and such illustrations are exhaustive. In other words, the
Ahmedabad ITAT held that if the case is not covered under section 92A(2)
of the Act, the enterprises would not be considered as AEs and one
cannot apply section 92A(1) of the Act.

Interestingly, while the Gujarat High Court, in the case of PCIT vs. Veer Gems [(2018) 407 ITR 639],
did not specifically deal with the issue of section 92A(2) vis-à-vis
section 92A(1), it upheld the decision of the Ahmedabad ITAT above and
held that since the conditions of section 92A(2) were not satisfied, the
entities would not be considered as AEs. In our view, therefore, the
Gujarat High Court has also upheld the above principles. Moreover, the
Supreme Court also dismissed the SLP filed by the Revenue in the case of
PCIT vs. Veer Gems [(2018) 256 Taxman 298], thereby bringing the issue to an end.

In
the present scenario, therefore, one would need to evaluate whether any
of the specific scenarios as stated in section 92A(2) of the Act are
triggered in the case of a HO and Branch.

If one evaluates the
scenarios as provided in section 92A(2) of the Act, one may reach a
conclusion that the scenarios refer to situations where there are two
separate entities and not where they are a part of the same entity.

CONCLUSION

Section
92A(2) provides that two enterprises shall be deemed to be AEs if, at
any time during the previous year the prescribed conditions in clauses
(a) to (m) are fulfilled. This may mean that the inclusion of PE in the
definition of ‘enterprise’ in section 92F becomes non-operational. The
court may therefore take a view that the condition of two enterprises as
prescribed under section 92A(2) would not be applicable in the case of
an Indian PE of a foreign enterprise.

Further, given that in any
case, one would need to compute the profits attributable to the PE in
accordance with transfer pricing provisions, and that this issue may be
more from a perspective of whether the compliance under the transfer
pricing provisions needs to be undertaken, a better and more
conservative view would be to undertake such compliance. Another aspect
to be considered may be what ‘transactions’ should be covered in the
transfer pricing report. In this regard, one may typically cover both
types of transactions, one where the HO incurs certain expenses which
are directly related to operations of the PE and the second where there
are transactions for payment of interest, royalties etc. to HO.

Disclosures Regarding Business Restructuring including Merger/Demerger and Discontinuing Operations for Y.E. 31st March, 2022

ASIAN PAINTS LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements – Standalone Financial Statements

Amalgamation of Reno Chemicals Pharmaceuticals and Cosmetics Private Limited with the Company

On 2nd September, 2021, the National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai approved Scheme of amalgamation (“the Scheme”) of Reno Chemicals Pharmaceuticals and Cosmetics Private Limited (“Reno”), wholly owned subsidiary of the Company, with the Company. Pursuant to the necessary filings with the Registrars of Companies, Mumbai, the scheme has become effective from 17th September, 2021 with the appointed date of 1st April, 2019. Accordingly, the comparative period has been restated for the accounting impact of amalgamation, as if the amalgamation had occurred from the beginning of the comparative period in accordance with the Scheme.

Particulars As at 1st April 2020

(Rs. in crores)

Property, plant and equipment 160.86
Capital work in progress 7.70
Income tax asset (net) 0.01
Cash and cash equivalents 0.13
Other financial assets – current 0.02
Other financial liabilities – current (0.52)
Other liabilities – current (0.05)
Total Net Assets 168.15
Net Equity 1.20
Amounts pertaining to Reno appearing in the financial statements of the Company
Investment Reno (161.42)
Loan to Reno (7.93)

The impact of the amalgamation on the Financial Statements for the current year and previous year is not material. The accounting treatment is in accordance with the approved Scheme and Indian accounting standards.

Acquisition of Weatherseal Fenestration Private Limited

On 1st April, 2022, the Company entered into the Shareholders Agreement and Share Subscription Agreement with the promoters of Weatherseal Fenestration Private Limited (hereinafter referred to as “Weatherseal Fenestration”) for, inter alia, infusion of Rs. 19 crores (approx.) for 51% stake by subscription to equity share capital of Weatherseal Fenestration, subject to customary closing adjustments and conditions precedent. On fulfillment of such conditions, the acquisition of Weatherseal Fenestration shall be considered as completed and it will become a subsidiary of the Company. Further, in accordance with the Shareholders Agreement and the Share Subscription Agreement, the Company has agreed to acquire further stake of 23.9% in Weatherseal Fenestration from its promoter shareholders, in a staggered manner, over the next 3 years period. There is no impact of the above business acquisitions on the financial statements of the Company.

Acquisition of Obgenix Software Private Limited

On 1st April, 2022, the Company entered into a Share Purchase Agreement and other definitive documents with the shareholders of Obgenix Software Private Limited (popularly known by the brand name of ‘White Teak’) for the acquisition of 100% of its equity share capital in a staggered manner over the period of next 3 years, subject to certain conditions. The Company has acquired 49% of its equity share capital for a consideration of Rs. 180 crores (approx.) along with an earn out upto a maximum of Rs. 114 crores, payable after a year, subject to achievement of mutually agreed financial milestones. The remaining 51% of the equity share capital would be acquired in a staggered manner. White Teak has become an associate of the Company from the date of acquisition. There is no impact of the above business acquisitions on the financial statements of the Company.

From Notes to Financial Statements – Consolidated Financial Statements

On 2nd September 2021, the National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai approved Scheme of amalgamation (“the Scheme”) of Reno Chemicals Pharmaceuticals and Cosmetics Private Limited (“Reno”), wholly owned subsidiary of the Parent Company, with the Parent Company. Pursuant to the necessary filings with the Registrar of Companies, Mumbai, the scheme has become effective from 17th September 2021 with the appointed date of 1st April 2019. There is no impact of amalgamation on the Consolidated Financial Statements. The accounting treatment is in accordance with the approved scheme and Indian Accounting Standards.

On 1st April, 2021, the Registrar General of Companies in Sri Lanka approved the scheme of amalgamation of Asian Paints (Lanka) Ltd. into Causeway Paints Lanka (Pvt) Ltd., subsidiaries of Asian Paints International Private Limited (‘APIPL’). APIPL is a wholly owned subsidiary of Asian Paints Limited. This is a common control transaction and has no impact on the Consolidated Financial Statements.

On 1st April, 2022, the Parent Company entered into the Shareholders Agreement and Share Subscription Agreement with the promoters of Weatherseal Fenestration Private Limited (hereinafter referred to as “Weatherseal Fenestration”) for, inter alia, infusion of Rs. 19 crores (approx.) for 51% stake by subscription to equity share capital of Weatherseal Fenestration, subject to customary closing adjustments and conditions precedent. On fulfillment of such conditions, the acquisition of Weatherseal Fenestration shall be considered as completed and it will become a subsidiary. Further, in accordance with the Shareholders Agreement and the Share Subscription Agreement, the Parent Company has agreed to acquire further stake of 23.9% in Weatherseal Fenestration from its promoter shareholders, in a staggered manner, over the next 3 years period. There is no impact of the above business acquisition on the Consolidated Financial Statements.

On 1st April 2022, the Parent Company entered into a Share Purchase Agreement and other definitive documents with the shareholders of Obgenix Software Private Limited (popularly known by the brand name of ‘White Teak’) for the acquisition of 100% of its equity share capital in a staggered manner over the period of next 3 years, subject to certain conditions. The Parent Company has acquired 49% of its equity share capital for a consideration of Rs. 180 crores (approx.) along with an earn out upto a maximum of Rs. 114 crores, payable after a year, subject to achievement of mutually agreed financial milestones. The remaining 51% of the equity share capital would be acquired in a staggered manner. White Teak has become an associate from the date of acquisition. There is no impact of the above business acquisition on the Consolidated Financial Statements.

 

TATA STEEL LIMITED

From Independent Auditor’s Report – Standalone Financial Statements

Emphasis of Matter

We draw your attention to Note 44 to the standalone financial statements in respect of Composite Scheme of Amalgamation (the “Scheme”) between the Company and its subsidiaries, namely Tata Steel BSL Limited and Bamnipal Steel Limited (“Transferor Companies”), from the appointed date of April 1, 2019, as approved by National Company Law Tribunal vide its order dated October 29, 2021. However, the accounting treatment pursuant to the Scheme has been given effect to from the date required under Ind AS 103 – Business Combinations, which is the beginning of the preceding period presented i.e. April 1, 2020. Accordingly, the figures for the year ended March 31, 2021 have been restated to give effect to the aforesaid merger. Our opinion is not modified in respect of this matter.

Key Audit Matter

Business Combination under Common Control – Merger Accounting of Tata Steel BSL Limited (TSBSL) and Bamnipal Steel Limited (BSL)

[Refer to Note 2 (t) to the Standalone Financial Statements – “Business combination under common control” and Note 44 to the Standalone Financial Statements]. Pursuant to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) Order dated October 29, 2021, subsidiaries of the Company viz. TSBSL and BSL (“Transferor Companies”) were merged with the Company. The Company has accounted for the business combination using the pooling of interest method in accordance with Appendix C of Ind AS 103 – Business Combination (the ‘Standard’).

Our audit procedures included the following:

•    We understood from the management, assessed, and tested the design and operating effectiveness of the Company’s key controls over the accounting of business combination.

•    We have traced the assets, liabilities, tax losses of TSBSL and BSL from the audited special purpose financial statements/financial information received from the other auditors under our audit instructions.

•    We have recomputed the value of fully paid-up equity shares issued as the consideration with reference to the NCLT Order.

•    We tested management’s

The carrying value of the assets and liabilities of the subsidiaries as at April 1, 2020 (being the beginning of the previous period presented), as appearing in the consolidated financial statements of the Company before the merger have been incorporated in the books with merger adjustments, as applicable. The Company has allotted 1,82,23,805 fully paid-up equity shares to the eligible shareholders of the erstwhile subsidiary (TSBSL) in accordance with the Scheme. The Company has recognised capital reserve of Rs. 1,728.36 crore directly in “Other Equity”. Considering the magnitude and complex accounting involved, the aforesaid business combination treatment in standalone financial statements has been considered to be a key audit matter.    assessment of accounting for the business combination and determined that it was appropriately accounted for in accordance with Ind AS 103 Business Combination.

•    We tested the management’s computation of determining the amount determined to be recorded in the capital reserve.

•    We also assessed the adequacy and appropriateness of the disclosures made in the standalone financial statements.

Based on the above work performed, the management’s accounting for the merger of TSBSL and BSL with the Company is in accordance with the Appendix C of Ind-AS 103 Business Combination.

 

From Notes to Financial Statements – Standalone Financial Statements

The Board of Directors of Tata Steel Limited, at its meeting held on April 25, 2019, had considered, and approved a merger of Bamnipal Steel Limited (“BNPL”) and Tata Steel BSL Limited (formerly Bhushan Steel Limited) (“TSBSL”) into Tata Steel Limited by way of a composite scheme of amalgamation and had recommended a merger ratio of 1 equity share of Rs. 10/- each fully paid-up of Tata Steel Limited for every 15 equity shares of Rs. 2/- each fully paid-up held by the public shareholders of TSBSL. The Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), through its order dated October 29, 2021, has approved the scheme with the appointed date of the merger being April 1, 2019.

Post the approval of the scheme, the erstwhile promoters of TSBSL holding 2,56,53,813 equity shares (of TSBSL) to receive Rs. 2/- for each share held by them. Accordingly, on November 23, 2021, the Board of Directors approved allotment of 1,82,23,805 fully paid-up equity shares of the Company, of face value 10/- each, to eligible shareholders of TSBSL (as on the record date of November 16, 2021). Further, 1,63,847 fully paid-up equity shares of TSL (included within the aforementioned 1,82,23,805 fully paid-up equity shares) are allotted to ‘TSL Fractional Share Entitlement Trust’ (managed by Axis Trustee Services Limited), towards fractional entitlements of shareholders of TSBSL for the benefit of shareholders of TSBSL.

As per guidance on accounting for common control transactions contained in Ind AS 103 “Business Combinations” the merger has been accounted for using the using the pooling of interest method. The previous year figures have therefore been restated to include the impact of the merger. The difference between the net identifiable assets acquired and consideration paid on merger has been accounted for as Capital reserve.

Pursuant to the Scheme of amalgamation, shares of Tata Steel Limited issued to the public shareholders of TSBSL, was presented under other equity pending allotment of such shares for the comparative period. As part of the Scheme, the equity shares held by Bamnipal Steel Limited, and the preference shares held by the Company in TSBSL, and the equity shares held by the Company in Bamnipal Steel Limited stands cancelled.

On March 10, 2022, the Company and Tata Steel Long Products Limited (‘TSLP’) executed a Share Sale and Purchase Agreement with MMTC Ltd, NMDC Ltd, MECON Ltd, Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd, Industrial Promotion and Investment Corporation of Odisha Ltd, Odisha Mining Corporation Ltd., President of India, Government of Odisha and Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited (‘NINL’) for acquisition of 93.71% equity shares in NINL. The acquisition will be done through TSLP, a listed subsidiary of the Company. The Company has also invested Rs. 12,700 crore in Non-Convertible Redeemable Preference Shares (‘NCRPS’) of TSLP to assist TSLP in funding its growth plans including the acquisition of and/or subscription to shares of NINL.

Pursuant to an order pronounced by the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal, Kolkata Bench (‘Hon’ble NCLT’) on April 7, 2022, Tata Steel Mining Limited (‘TSML’), an unlisted wholly owned subsidiary of the Company completed the acquisition of controlling stake of 90% in Rohit Ferro-Tech Limited (‘RFT’) on April 11, 2022, under the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (‘CIRP’) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 (‘Code’). The Company has made an equity investment in TSML of Rs. 625 crore on April 11, 2022, to finance the acquisition.

From Notes to Financial Statements – Consolidated Financial Statements

Disposal of subsidiaries

During the year ended March 31, 2022, T S Global Holdings Pte. Ltd., an indirect wholly owned subsidiary of the Company, divested its entire stake in a subsidiary NatSteel Holdings Pte. Ltd.

A profit of Rs. 724.84 crore being the difference between the fair value of consideration received and carrying value of net assets disposed of in respect of these businesses was recognised in the consolidated statement of profit and loss as an exceptional item.

(i) Details of net assets disposed of and profit/(loss) on disposal is as below:

As at March 31, 2022
Rs. in crores
Non-current assets
Property, plant and equipment 220.38
Capital work in progress 9.36
Right of use assets 141.14
Other financial assets 0.70
371.58
Current assets
Inventories 863.01
Trade receivables 374.29
Cash and bank balances 97.21
Other financial assets 256.44
Derivative assets 11.45
Current tax assets 2.53
Other non-financial assets 3.32
1608.25
Non-current liabilities
Borrowings 128.53
Retirement benefit obligations 0.76
Deferred tax liabilities 24.15
153.44
Current liabilities
Derivative liabilities 0.01
Trade payables 524.97
Other financial liabilities 409.14
Retirement benefit obligations 0.29
Current tax liabilities 49.28
Other non-financial liabilities 12.97
996.66
Carrying value of net assets disposed off 829.73
Year ended March 31, 2022

Rs. in crores

Sale consideration 1305.79
Foreign exchange recycled to profit/ (loss) on disposal 248.78
Carrying value of net assets disposed off (829.73)
Profit/ (Loss) on disposal 724.84

(ii) Details of net cash flow arising on disposal is as below:

Year ended March 31, 2022

Rs. in crores

Consideration received in cash and cash equivalents 1305.79
Cash and cash equivalents disposed of (97.21)
Net cash flow arising on disposal 1208.58

Acquisition of Subsidiaries

(i)    Pursuant to the Transfer Agreement (‘Agreement’) entered into between the Tata Steel Long Products (‘TSLP”), a subsidiary of the Company and Usha Martin Limited (‘UML’) on December 14, 2020, TSLP acquired the Wire Mill from UML on June 30, 2021. In terms of the Agreement, the TSLP purchased Wire Mill business through exchange of the bright bar assets acquired from UML originally upon acquisition of steel business on April 8, 2019.

Fair value of identifiable assets acquired, and liabilities assumed as on the date of acquisition is as below:

Fair value as on
acquisition date
Non-current assets
Property, plant and equipment 6.45
6.45
Current assets
Inventories 0.47
0.47
Total Assets (A) 6.92
Non-current liabilities
Provisions 0.10
Retirement benefit obligation 0.67
0.77
Current liabilities
Total liabilities (B) 0.77
Fair value of identifiable net assets acquired (C = A-B) 6.15
Fair value as on
acquisition date
Discharged by exchange of assets held for sale 7.43
Consideration discharged in cash (0.77)
Total consideration paid (D) 6.66
Goodwill (C-D) 0.51

(ii)    On January 7, 2022, the Company acquired further 26% interest, raising its stake to 51% in Medica TS Hospital Pvt. Ltd., an erstwhile joint venture of the Group.

Fair value of identifiable assets acquired, and liabilities assumed as on the date of acquisition is as below:

Fair value as on acquisition date

Rs. in crores

Non-current assets
Property, plant and equipment 40.50
Right of use assets 2.51
Other intangible assets 0.02
Financial assets 0.20
Non-current tax assets 4.04
47.27
Current assets
Inventories 0.70
Trade receivables 3.09
Cash and bank balances 0.70
Other financial assets 0.06
Other assets 0.09
4.64
Total Assets (A) 51.91
Non-current liabilities
Lease liabilities 0.21
Provisions 0.51
Deferred tax liabilities 0.52
1.24
Current liabilities
Lease liabilities 0.00
Trade payables 2.79
Other financial liabilities 0.38
Provisions 0.39
Other liabilities 0.15
3.71
Total liabilities (B) 4.95
Fair value of identifiable net assets (C=A-B) 46.96
Non-controlling interest (D) (10.62)
Fair value of identifiable net assets acquired (E=C-D) 36.34
Fair value as on acquisition date

Rs. In crores

Consideration paid 50.00
Total consideration paid 50.00
Goodwill (F-E) 13.66

TATA MOTORS LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements – Standalone Financial Statements

Discontinued Operations

The Board of Directors had at its meeting held on July 31, 2020, approved (subject to the requisite regulatory and other approvals) a Scheme of Arrangement between Tata Motors Limited and Tata Motors Passenger Vehicles Limited (formerly known as TML Business Analytics Services Limited) (Transferee Company) for:

(i)    Transfer of the PV Undertaking of the Company as a going concern, on a slump sale basis as defined under Section 2(42C) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, to the Transferee Company for a lump sum consideration of Rs. 9,417.00 crores through issuance of equity shares; and

(ii)    Reduction of its share capital without extinguishing or reducing its liability on any of its shares by writing down a portion of its securities premium account to the extent of Rs. 11,173.59 crores, with a corresponding adjustment to the accumulated losses of the Company. The Scheme of Arrangement has been approved by the National Company Law Tribunal, Mumbai Bench on August 24, 2021. The Company has received all other necessary regulatory approvals and the scheme is effective from January 1, 2022. The Company has accounted for transfer of net assets (as calculated below) in accordance with the accounting principles generally accepted in India and has recognised the excess of consideration received over the carrying value of net assets transferred, amounting to Rs. 1,960.04 crores in Capital Reserve.

Net assets of PV undertaking are as follows: As at January 1, 2022

(Rs. in crores)

Non-current assets 12,598.43
Current assets 3,108.14
Total assets associated with PV undertaking 15,706.57
Non-current liabilities 1,074.43
Current liabilities 7,175.18
Total liabilities directly associated with PV undertaking 8,249.61
Net assets directly associated with PV undertaking 7,456.96

Statement of profit and loss of PV undertaking (including joint operation) is as follows:

(Rs. In crores)

Particulars Period ended

December 31, 2021

Year ended

March 31, 2021

I. Revenue from operations 21376.71 16856.44
II. Other income 411.77 422.96
III. Total Income (I + II) 21788.48 17249.40
IV. Expenses 21955.88 19016.88
V. Profit/ (loss) before exceptional items and taxes (167.40) (1737.48)
VI. Exceptional items (559.91) (1699.63)
VII. Profit/ (loss) before tax from discontinued operations (V-VI) 392.51 (37.85)
VIII. Tax expense/ (credit) (net) from discontinued operations 44.14 62.15
IX. Profit/ (loss) for the year from discontinued operations (VII-VIII) 348.37 (100.00)

(i)    The results of PV undertaking along with joint operation Fiat India Automobiles Private Limited (FIAPL) has been disclosed as discontinued operations.

(ii)    The Company had stopped depreciation from the date of receipt of NCLT order. Accordingly, Depreciation and Amortisation of Rs. 737.07 crores is not provided from August 25, 2021, to December 31, 2021.

(iii)  As part of slump sale, the investments in wholly owned subsidiaries of the Company engaged in designing services namely Tata Motors European Technical Centre PLC (TMETC) and Trilix S.r.l (Trilix) have been transferred to Tata Motors Passenger Vehicle Limited (a wholly owned subsidiary of the Company) w.e.f. January 1, 2022. These two subsidiaries (TMETC and Trilix) are being transferred to Tata Passenger Electric Mobility Ltd., a wholly owned subsidiary of the Company. Considering the business plans for these subsidiaries, the Company reassessed their investment carrying value and accordingly provision for impairment towards these investments is reversed amounting to Rs. 526.64 crores and Rs. 33.27 crores in TMETC and Trilix, respectively. This reversal is included in profit/(loss) before and after tax from discontinued operations and it is an exceptional item.

Net cash flow attributable to PV undertaking are as follows:

(Rs. In crores)

Particulars Period ended

December 31, 2021

Year ended

March 31, 2021

Cash flow from/ (used in) Operating activities 2689.36 890.94
Cash flow from/ (used in) Investing activities (847.73) (927.77)
Cash flow from/ (used in) Financing activities (383.01) (340.76)
Net increase/ (decrease) in cash and cash equivalents 1458.62 (340.76)

RAYMOND LTD.

From Notes to Financial Statements – Standalone Financial Statements

The Board of Directors of the Company at its meeting held on 7th November 2019 had approved the Composite Scheme of Arrangement (‘Composite Scheme’) which comprised of amalgamation of Raymond Apparel Limited (wholly owned subsidiary of Company) and Scissors Engineering Products Limited (wholly owned subsidiary of Company) with the Company and then Demerger of the lifestyle business undertaking into Raymond Lifestyle Limited on a going concern basis. Pending receipt of statutory approvals as required including that of Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’), no adjustments had been made in the books of account and in the standalone financial statements for the year ended 31st March 2021. The Board of Directors of the Company at its meeting held on 27th September 2021 has approved the withdrawal of the Composite Scheme of arrangement.

The Board of Directors of the Company at its meeting held on 27th September, 2021 had approved a Scheme of Arrangement (‘RAL Scheme’) between the Company and Raymond Apparel Limited (‘RAL’ or ‘Demerged Company’) (wholly owned subsidiary of the Company) for demerger of the business undertaking of RAL comprising of B2C business including Apparel business (and excluding balances identified as quasi equity) as defined in the RAL Scheme (referred as the “specified business undertaking”), into the Company on a going concern basis. RAL Scheme was approved by the Hon’ble National Company Law Tribunal vide its order dated 23rd March 2022. The Appointed Date was 1st April 2021. Considering that RAL is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Company, the Company is required to account for the Scheme of Arrangement under the ‘pooling of interests’ method in accordance with Appendix C of Ind AS 103 ‘Business Combinations’ which requires that, the financial information in the financial statements in respect of prior periods should be restated as if the business combination had occurred from the beginning of the preceding period in the financial statements (i.e. from 1st April, 2020 or the deemed acquisition date), irrespective of the actual date of the business combination. Accordingly, the Company has restated the previous year’s figures in these standalone financial statements, as detailed in Tables 1, 2 and 3 below.

Pursuant to the RAL Scheme, all assets and liabilities pertaining to the ‘specified business undertaking’ of the demerged company have been transferred to the Company without any consideration. As at 1st April, 2020, the Company had investments of Rs. 6,472 lakhs, inter corporate deposits (ICDs) of Rs. 7,500 lakhs, trade receivables and other financial assets of Rs. 11,794 lakhs outstanding that were recoverable from RAL. Such inter-corporate deposits, trade receivables and other financial assets are considered as quasi equity by the Company (as per the RAL Scheme) and do not form part of the ‘specified Business Undertaking’ as defined in the RAL Scheme. Since the business has been acquired without any consideration, the excess of the carrying value of assets being transferred over the liabilities (excluding balances classified as quasi equity), as at 1st April, 2020, i.e. date of acquisition as per Appendix C of Ind AS 103, amounting to Rs. 33,821.47 lakhs has been credited to a separate Capital Reserve (‘Capital Reserve on Merger’) (Refer Table 4 below). Capital Reserve (“Capital Reserve on Merger”). The changes in net assets of the specified business undertaking post deemed acquisition date i.e., 1st April 2020, reflects the effect of the operations of the specified business undertaking on the assets and liabilities transferred to the Company. Such changes are equivalent to the corresponding changes in the balances not merged and classified as quasi equity (since these balances were not cancelled/eliminated) post 1st April 2020, till the date of the NCLT Order. Accordingly, such increase in net assets, transferred during the year ended 31st March 2021 and for the period 1st April 2021 to 23rd March 2022, amounting to Rs. 15,020.77 lakhs and Rs. 21,630.49 lakhs respectively, has been credited to retained earnings under a separate” Post-merger Incremental Net Assets account”.

Table 1-Restatements-Balance Sheets

(Rs. in lakhs)

Particulars As at 31st March, 2021 As at 31st March, 2021
Restated refer Note 54
Reported Restated
ASSETS
Non-current assets
(a) Property, plant and equipment 108410.36 126366.09
(b) Capital Work in progress 849.03 1282.40
(c) Investment properties 439.83 439.83
d) Intangible assets 59.23 62.82
(e) Intangible assets under development 475.00 475.00
(f) Investments in subsidiaries, Associates and Joint Venture 46663.09 46663.09
(g) Financial assets
(i) Investments  740.06 4754.18
(ii) Loans 2900.20 2901.35
(iii) Other financial assets 4350.46 6924.72
(h) Deferred tax assets (net)  11637.78 30995.22
(i) Income tax assets (net) 2337.74 3151.84
(j) Other non-current assets 4038.49 4573.05
Current Assets
(a)  Inventories 100083.03 129679.59
(b) Financial assets
(i) Investments 7919.91 7919.91
(ii)  Trade Receivables 58594.54 91730.28
(iii) Cash and Cash equivalents 17043.16 19892.94
(iv) Bank balances other than cash and cash equivalents 30267.60 30267.60
(v) Loans 12000.00 12000.00
(vi) Other  financial assets 11358.53 13082.71
(c) Other current assets 22131.77 35900.27
TOTAL ASSETS 442299.81 569062.89
EQUITY AND LIABILITIES
Equity
(a) Equity share capital 6657.37 6657.37
(b) other equity 160243.43 191737.49
Non-current liabilities
(a) Financial liabilities
(i) Borrowings 100705.49 105672.49
(ii) Lease liabilities 6291.34 21935.23
(iii) Other financial liabilities 12789.72 12789.72
(b) Other non-current liabilites 1266.34 1266.34
Current liabilities
(a) Financial liabilities
(i) Burrowings 31233.68 62208.29
(ii) Lease liabilities 2721.65 9842.57
(iii) Trade Payables
Total outstanding dues of micro enterprise and small enterprise 54262.66 80586.51
Total outstanding dues of creditors other than micro enterprises and small enterprises 54262.66 80586.51
(iv) other financial liabilities 25890.37 31364.63
(b) Other current liabilities 26452.85 29545.02
(c) Provisions 3973.25 4300.55
TOTAL EQUITY AND LIABILITES 442299.81 569062.89

Table 2-Restatements-Statement of profit and loss

(Rs. in lakhs)

Particulars As at 31st March, 2021 As at 31st March, 2021
Restated
(refer note 54)
Reported Restated
INCOME
    Revenue from operations 175241.41 217605.10
    Other income 13906.92 20504.47
Total Income 189148.33 238109.57
EXPENSES
Cost of materials consumed 24454.21 24454.21
Purchases of stock-in trade 30591.48 39683.19
Changes in inventories of finished goods, stock-in-trade, work in progress and property under development 27260.33 51105.93
Employee benefits expense 32128.18 37546.29
Finance costs 17016.80 23850.31
Depreciation and amortization expense 14503.52 22931.49
Other expenses
(a) Manufacturing and operating costs 17372.12 17690.26
(b) Costs towards development of property 13271.12 13271.12
(c) Other expenses 30200.03 50656.02
Total Expenses 206797.79 281188.82
Profit/Loss before Tax (17649.46) (43079.25)
Total expense (credit)
Deferred Tax (5800.35) (15426.46)
(Loss) for the year (11849.11) (27652.79)
Other comprehensive income
Items that will be reclassified as profit or loss-(gain)/loss
Changes in fair value of FVOCI equity instruments (1228.20)
Measurements of defined employee benefit plans (726.27) (793.44)
Income tax charge / (credit) relating to items that will not be reclassified to profit or loss
Changes in fair value of FVOCI equity instruments 143.06
Measurements of defined employee benefit plans 253.82 277.27
Total other comprehensive income (net of tax) (472.55) (1601.31)
Total comprehensive income of the year (11376.56) (26051.48)
Loss per equity share of Rs 10 each
Basic (R) (17.80) (41.54)
Diluted (R) (17.80) (41.54)

Table 3-Restatements-statement of cash flow

(Rs. in lakhs)

Particulars As at 31st March, 2021 As at 31st March, 2021
Restated refer Note 54
Reported Restated
Cash flows from Operating Activities 39712.53 53746.31
Cash flows from Investing Activities 1931.13 2638.80
Cash flows from Financing Activities (36371.68) (48286.78)
Net increase in cash and cash equivalents 5271.98 8098.33
Add cash and cash equivalents at beginning of the year 11664.33 11687.49
Cash and cash equivalents at the end of the year 16936.31 19785.82

Table 4: Capital Reserve on Merger due to the excess of the carrying value of assets being transferred over the liabilities (excluding balances classified as  quasi equity), as at 1st April, 2020

(Rs. in lakhs)

Particulars Amount

(Rs. in lakhs)

A) Assets taken over
Non-current assets
(a) Property, plant and equipment 35253.97
(b) Capital work-in- progress 327.24
(c) Intangible assets 11.40
(d) Investments in Subsidiaries 2785.92
(e) Financial assets
(i) Loans 2.63
(ii) Other financial assets 4646.23
(f) Deferred tax assets (net) 9897.81
(g) Income tax assets (net) 1532.04
(h) Other non-current assets 651.05
Current assets
(a) Inventories 56055.43
(b) Financial assets
(i) Investments 44607.23
(ii) Cash and cash equivalents 32.13
(iii) Other financial assets 131.57
(c) Other current assets 12846.59
Total (A) 168781.24
(B) Liabilities taken over
Non-current liabilities
(a) Financial liabilities
(I) Lease liabilities 30698.44
Current liabilities
(a) Financial liabilities
(i) Borrowings 41220.56
(ii) Lease liabilities 8422.30
(iii) Trade payables
Total outstanding dues of micro enterprises and small enterprises 1009.37
Total outstanding dues of creditors other than micro enterprises and small enterprises 44173.17
(iv) Other financial liabilities 5709.02
(b) Other current liabilities 3200.78
(c) Provisions 526.13
Total (B) 134959.77
Capital Reserve on Merger as on
1st April, 2020
33821.47

The Board of Directors of the Company at its meeting held on 25th January 2022 have approved a Scheme of Arrangement (‘Real Estate Scheme’) between the Company and Raymond Lifestyle Limited (wholly owned subsidiary of the Company) for demerger of the real estate business undertaking of the Company (as defined in the Real Estate Scheme) into Raymond Lifestyle Limited on a going concern basis. The proposed Appointed Date is 1st April 2022. The Real Estate Scheme will be effective upon receipt of such approvals as may be statutorily required including that of Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”). Pending receipt of final approval, no adjustments have been made in the books of account and in the accompanying standalone financial statements.

From Notes to Financial Statements – Consolidated Financial Statements

During the earlier years, the Holding Company invested an amount of Rs. 6168 lakhs during the financial year ended 31st March 2016 and Rs. 2000 lakhs during the financial year ended 31st March 2015 by subscription to the rights issue of equity shares of Raymond Luxury Cottons Limited (RLCL) a subsidiary of the Holding Company, enhancing the Holding Company’s shareholding from 62% to 75.69% in the financial year 2015-16 and from 55% to 62% in the financial year 2014-15. In the year 2012-13, Cottonificio Honegger S.p.A (‘CH’), Italy, the erstwhile JV partner with Raymond Limited through one of its joint venture company in India, Raymond Luxury Cotton Limited (RLCL) (formerly known as Raymond Zambaiti Limited), had submitted request for voluntary winding up including composition of its creditors in the Court of Bergamo, Italy. Consequent to this, RLCL as at 31st March 2013, had provided for its entire accounts receivable from CH of USD 1,255,058 and Euro 612,831, equivalent Indian Rupee aggregating Rs. 1122.24 lakhs. In the year 2013 – 14, RLCL had put up its claim of receivable from CH of Rs. 1122.24 lakhs before the Judicial Commissioner of the Composition (the Commissioner) appointed by the Court of Bergamo, Italy. In protraction of matter with Cottonificio Honegger S.p.A (‘CH’), Italy, the Judicial Commissioner of the Composition (“the Commissioner”) appointed by the Court of Bergamo, Italy, has declared RLCL as unsecured creditor for the amount outstanding from ‘CH.’ Further ‘CH’ had also sought permission from the Court of Bergamo, Italy, for initiating proceeding against RLCL in India.

RLCL had received a notice dated 23rd November 2015 notifying that CH has filed a Petition against them before the Hon’ble Company Law Board (“CLB”), Mumbai Bench under Section 397 and 398 of Companies Act, 1956. RLCL responded to the petition filed by CH. The CLB in its order dated 26th November 2015 has recorded the statement made by the counsel for RLCL that CH’s shareholding in RLCL shall not be reduced further and the fixed assets of RLCL also shall not be alienated till further order. Subsequently, the proceedings were transferred to the National Company Law Tribunal (“NCLT”), Mumbai bench and currently, the matter is pending before the said forum. RLCL has filed a Miscellaneous Application on 29th January 2019 seeking part vacation of the order dated 26th November 2015. The NCLT, Mumbai Bench had allowed the application filed by the Company and had directed that the main company petition along with the application for vacating the stay be listed for hearing. The NCLT had directed for the matter to be heard on 20th April 2022. However, owing to paucity of time, the matter was not taken up on the said date and the matter was adjourned to 21st June 2022.”

Discontinued operation

Subsidiary of RUDPL (Joint Venture of group), UCO Fabrics Inc. (UFI), had discontinued its operations in 2008. The disclosures with respect to these discontinuing operations are as under:

Subsidiaries of Raymond UCO Denim Private Limited
2021-22 2020-21
Group’s share of total assets at the close of the year 4.65 4.65

The Board of Directors of the Company at its meeting held on 7th November 2019 had approved the Composite Scheme of Arrangement (‘Composite Scheme’) which comprised of amalgamation of Raymond Apparel Limited (wholly owned subsidiary of Company) and Scissors Engineering Products Limited (wholly owned subsidiary of Company) with the Company and then Demerger of the lifestyle business undertaking into Raymond Lifestyle Limited on a going concern basis. Pending receipt of statutory approvals as required including that of Mumbai Bench of the National Company Law Tribunal (‘NCLT’), no adjustments had been made in the books of account and in the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 31st March,2021. The Board of Directors of the Company at its meeting held on 27th September 2021 have approved the withdrawal of the Composite Scheme of arrangement.

Eligibility of Educational Institutions to Claim Exemption Under Section 10(23C) of the Income-Tax Act – Part I

INTRODUCTION

1.1    Section 10 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘the Act’) excludes/exempts income falling within any of the clauses contained therein while computing the total income of a previous year of any person. The scope of this write-up is restricted to certain provisions contained in section 10(23C) of the Act which deals with the exemption of income earned by educational institutions existing solely for educational purposes.

1.2    Section 10(22) of the Act was a part of the statute right from the enactment of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The said section provided exemption for any income of a university or other educational institution existing ‘solely’ for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit. Section 10(22) was omitted by the Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 w.e.f. 1st April, 1999. The CBDT, in its Circular No. 772 dated 23rd December, 1998 (235 ITR (St.) 35), stated that section 10(22) provided a blanket exemption from income-tax to educational institutions existing solely for educational purposes and in the absence of any monitoring mechanism for checking the genuineness of their activities, the said provision has been misused. Therefore, it was thought fit to omit section 10(22) from the Act and, in its place, insert certain sub-clauses in section 10(23C) as mentioned hereinafter.

1.3    Section 10(23C) of the Act was introduced by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975 w.e.f. 1st April, 1976 exempting income of certain specified funds/ institutions which are not relevant for the purpose of this write up. The Finance (No. 2) Act, 1998 while omitting section 10(22) of the Act, inter alia introduced clauses (iiiab), (iiiad) and (vi) in section 10(23C) of the Act granting exemption to certain universities or other educational institutions existing solely for educational purposes and not for purposes of profit and which satisfied the criteria stated in those clauses. Section 10(23C)(iiiab) of the Act covers any educational institution which is wholly or substantially financed by the Government.

Section 10(23C)(iiiad) of the Act as amended by the Finance Act, 2021 applies to any educational institution if the aggregate annual receipts of the person from such institution does not exceed R5 crores. Section 10(23C)(vi) exempts income of any educational institution other than those mentioned in sub-clauses (iiiab) or (iiiad) and which is approved by the specified authority. In this write-up, we are mainly considering section 10(23C) (vi).

1.4    Section 10(23C)(vi) contains several provisos which have been amended from time to time. Substantial amendments were made in the last three years. As such, at different points of time, proviso numbers have also undergone changes. These provisos (except the one dealing with anonymous donation referred to in section 115BBC) are not applicable to educational institution covered u/s 10(23C)(iiib) and 10 (23C)(iiid). In this write-up, we are largely concerned with some of the provisions contained in some provisos (since 2010). For this purpose, we have made reference to only provisos which are relevant to educational institutions and to the issue under consideration. The first proviso to section 10(23C) requires an educational institution to make an application in the prescribed form and manner to the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner for grant of approval. The second proviso empowers the Principal Commissioner or Commissioner to call for such documents or information from the institution as it thinks is necessary to satisfy itself about the genuineness of the activities of the institution. Another proviso deals with the time limit for making an application for approval under which there is no power to entertain belated applications. The third proviso contains provisions for application or accumulation of income, investment in specified modes, etc. The seventh proviso (which is similar to section 11(4A)) states that the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi) shall not apply to income being profits and gains of business, unless the business is incidental to the attainment of its objectives and separate books of accounts are maintained in respect of such business.

1.5    The meaning of the term ‘education’ used in the definition of ‘charitable purpose’ in section 2(15) of the Act was explained by the Supreme Court in the case of Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust vs. CIT (1975) 101 ITR 234. The assessee, in this case, was the sole trustee of a trust which had the object of educating people by establishing, conducting and helping educational institutions, founding and running reading rooms and libraries, etc. The assessee claimed that for the present it was educating people through newspapers and journals, and it would be taking up other ways and means of education as noted in the trust deed as and when it is possible. One of the questions considered by the Supreme Court was whether the assessee was engaged in ‘educational activities’ thereby entitling it to exemption u/s 11 r.w.s. 2(15) of the Act.

On facts, the Supreme Court denied the benefit of exemption u/s 11 of the Act and also took the view that the term ‘education’ in section 2(15) means systematic schooling or training given to students that results in developing knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by normal schooling.

The Supreme Court held that the word ‘education’ was not used in a wide and extended sense which would result in every acquisition of knowledge to constitute education.

1.6    A Constitution bench comprising five Judges of the Supreme Court in the case of ACIT vs. Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association (1978) 121 ITR 1, laid down what came to be known as the ‘predominant test’ in the context of section 2(15). In this case, the assessee was a company set up under the provisions of section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 with the object of promoting commerce and trade in art silk yarn, raw silk, etc., to carry on business of art silk yarn, etc. belonging to and on behalf of members, to obtain import and export licences required by members and to do other things as are incidental or conducive to the attainment of its objects.

The AO denied exemption u/s 11 on the grounds that certain objects carried on by the assessee were not charitable in nature and, therefore, the assessee could not be said to have been set up for ‘advancement of any other object of general public utility’. The Supreme Court decided the issue in favour of the assessee and held that if the primary or dominant purpose of a trust or institution is charitable, another object which by itself may not be charitable but which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not prevent the trust from being a valid charity for the purpose of claiming exemption. In relation to the restrictive words ‘not involving the carrying on of any activity for profit’ used in section 2(15) of the Act, the Supreme Court observed that it was the object of general public utility that must not involve the carrying on of any activity for profit and not its advancement or attainment.

1.7    In the case of Aditanar Educational Institution vs. ACIT (1997) 224 ITR 310, an issue arose before the Supreme Court as to whether an educational society or a trust or other similar body running an educational institution solely for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit could be regarded as ‘other educational institutions’ falling within section 10(22) of the Act. The assessee was a society set up with the object to establish, run, manage or assist educational institutions. The benefit u/s 10(22) was sought to be denied on the ground that the same would be available only to educational institutions as such and not to anyone who finances the running of such an institution.

The Supreme Court rejected the Revenue’s argument that the assessee was only a financing body and did not come within the scope of ‘other educational institution’.

The Supreme Court held that the assessee was entitled to exemption u/s 10(22) of the Act as the assessee was set up with the sole purpose of imparting education at the levels of colleges and schools.

1.8    In the case of American Hotel & Lodging Association, Educational Institute vs. CBDT (2008) 301 ITR 86, the Supreme Court dealt with the scope of enquiry to be undertaken by the prescribed authority u/s 10(23C)(vi) at the time of granting approval. In this case, the prescribed authority rejected the application made by the assessee for registration u/s 10(23C) on the grounds that there was a surplus which was repatriated outside India and, therefore, the assessee had not applied its income for the purpose of education in India. The Supreme Court, after considering the relevant provisos to section 10(23C), held that the threshold condition for grant of approval was existence of an educational institution and the conditions prescribed by the provisos such as application of income/ accumulation, etc. were subsequent, the compliance with which would depend on future events. The Supreme Court held that the prescribed authority could stipulate compliance with such monitoring conditions as a condition subject to which approval is granted. Supreme Court also noted the 13th proviso to section 10(23C) which empowered the prescribed authority to withdraw the approval earlier granted if the monitoring conditions were not met. In this case, referring to the judgment of Surat Art Silk’s case (supra), the Court had stated that “it has been held by this court that the test of predominant object of the activity is to be seen whether it exists solely for education and not to earn profit. However, the purpose would not lose its character merely because some profit arises from the activity”. The Court further stated that in deciding the character of the recipient, it is not necessary to look at the profit of each year, but to consider the nature of the activities undertaken in India. According to the Court, existence of surplus from the activity will not mean absence of educational purpose. The test is – the nature of activity.

1.9    The Supreme Court in the case of Queen’s Educational Society vs. CIT (2015) 372 ITR 699 was concerned with the correctness of the view taken by the lower authorities that an educational institution ceases to exist solely for educational purposes whenever a profit/ surplus is made by such an institution. The assessee was established with the sole object of imparting education. The AO denied the assessee’s claim for exemption u/s 10(23C) (iiiad) on the basis that the assessee had earned profit and, therefore, had ceased to solely exist for educational purposes. The Supreme Court overturned the decision of the High Court which had approved the decision of the AO and held that where surplus made by the educational society was ploughed back for educational purposes, the educational society exists solely for educational purposes and not for the purposes of profit.

The Supreme Court also placed reliance on the tests laid down in its earlier decisions in the cases of Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association, Aditanar Educational Institution and American Hotel and Lodging Association (supra) to determine whether an educational institution exists solely for educational purposes.

1.10    All the aforesaid sub-clauses of section 10 (referred in para 1.2 and 1.3) apply to a university or other educational institutions existing ‘solely’ for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit. The interpretation of these provisions and the term ‘solely’ had given rise to considerable litigation and was a subject matter of dispute before different authorities/Courts. Several other issues also arose while interpreting the aforesaid provisions in section 10.

1.11    Recently, this issue came-up before the Supreme Court [in the context of approval u/s 10(23C)(vi)] in the case of New Noble Educational Society vs. CCIT (2022) 448 ITR 594 and the Supreme Court has now settled this dispute and therefore, it is thought fit to consider the said decision in this feature.

New Noble Educational Society [and other cases] vs. CCIT (2011) 334 ITR 303 (AP)

2.1    Before the Andhra Pradesh High Court, a batch of writ petitions came-up against the rejection of applications of the petitioners for grant of approval u/s 10(23C)(vi) and the direction was sought for the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax (Authority) to grant the requisite approval to the petitioners (societies/trust) from A.Y. 2009 -10 onwards.

2.1.1    In the above cases, different facts were involved for the purpose of rejecting the approval. These cases also involved some common questions. As such, the High Court first decided to deal with the common questions and subsequently also dealt with each case separately considering their facts as well as other issues involved therein considered by the Authority for rejecting the application for approval.

2.1.2    It appears that in some of the above batch of cases, the relevant constitution documents, apart from the object of imparting education, also provided other objects such as: to organize sports, games and cultural activities, to solve problems of members on social grounds; provide employment amongst educated people; promote economic and educational needs of Christians in particular and others in general; to strive for an upliftment of socially, economically and educationally weaker section of the societies in general and of the Christian community in particular; establish associate organization, such as an orphanage, hostels for needy students, home for the aged, disabled, hospitals for poor etc. It appears that the Authority had rejected the application for approval in these cases, on the grounds that they are not created ‘solely’ for the purpose of education. Additionally, the approval was also denied on the grounds that they were not registered under the Andhra Pradesh Charitable Trust and Hindu Religious Institution and Endowments Act, 1987 (A.P. Charities Act) and in some cases, the application for approval was rejected only on this second ground. In some cases there were other reasons also for rejecting the approval.

2.1.3    While proceeding to decide the common issues in the batch of petitioners, the Court framed , with the consent of the petitioners, the following common questions for adjudications:

“(1)    Whether the objects in the memorandum of association of a society/trust are conclusive proof of such a trust existing solely as an educational institution entitled for the benefits, and being eligible for approval, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act?

(2)    Whether registration, under section 43 of the A.P. Act No. 30 of 1987, is a condition precedent for seeking approval under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act?

(3)    Whether the certificate issued by the Commissioner of Endowments, as the appropriate authority under section 43 of the A.P. Act No. 30 of 1987, is conclusive proof of an assessee being a charitable institution existing solely for the purpose of education?

(4)    Even in case the assessee produces a certificate of registration under section 43 of the A.P. Act No.30 of 1987 can the Commissioner of Income-tax refuse approval/sanction under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, 1961? ”

2.2    The Court then proceeded to consider the first question that whether the object of the trust are conclusive proof that it is existing ‘solely’ as an education institution for granting the requisite approval.

2.2.1    On behalf of the petitioners, it was inter alia contended that section 10(23C)(vi) makes or distinguishes between the educational institution and the society/trust running it; the approval is granted to the educational institution and not to the society/trust; it is only the object of educational institution which should be considered and not that of society/trust; the society/trust which runs the educational institution is entitled to pursue objects other than those relating exclusively for educational purposes; at the stage of grant of approval, only the objects of the society/trust are required to be examined, and not the manner of application of funds by it; the other objects of the petitioners are also ancillary to education, etc.

2.2.2    On behalf of the Revenue, it was inter alia contended that it was immaterial whether the societies/trust peruses all its objects enumerated in its trust deed, even if an object is not pursued in real terms in a particular year, the society/trust can pursue it in other year as it has mandate to do so; such objects of a trust fall foul of the conditions specified in section 10(23C)(vi); exemption is granted to society/trust and not to any of its limb engaged in a particular activity; it is necessary that all the objects mentioned in the trust deed are exclusively for education and not for any other purpose; CBDT in its instruction dated 29th October, 1977 had explicitly prohibited spending of surplus of an educational institution for non-educational purposes; even if no amount is spent for non-educational purpose, the society/trust would not be entitled to exemption if its existence is not solely for educational purpose.

2.2.3    The Court then noted that section 10(23C)(vi) is analogous to earlier section 10(22) except for the approval etc. requirements provided in section 10(23C)(vi) and to that extent judicial pronouncements made in the context of section 10(22) are relevant. Further, considering provisions of section 10(23C)(vi), the Court stated as under (pages 309-310):

“In order to be eligible for exemption, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, it is necessary that there must exist an educational institution. Secondly, such institution must exist solely for educational purposes and, thirdly, the institution should not exist for the purpose of profit. (CIT v. Sorabji Nusserwanji Parekh, [1993] 201 ITR 939 (Guj)). In deciding the character of the recipient of the income, it is necessary to consider the nature of the activities undertaken. If the activity has no co-relation to education, exemption has to be denied. The recipient of the income must have the character of an educational institution to be ascertained from its objects. (Aditanar Educational Institution, [1997] 224 ITR 310 (SC)). The emphasis in section 10(23C)(vi) is on the word “solely”. “Solely” means exclusively and not primarily. (CIT v. Gurukul Ghatkeswar Trust, (2011) 332 ITR 611 (AP); CIT v. Maharaja Sawai Mansinghji Museum Trust, [1988] 169 ITR 379 (Raj)). In using the said expression, the Legislature has made it clear that it intends to exempt the income of the institutions established solely for educational purposes and not for commercial activities. (Oxford University Press v. CIT, [2001] 247 ITR 658 (SC)). This requirement would militate against an institution pursuing the objects other than education….”

2.2.4    While rejecting the contention with regard to distinction between the society/trust and educational institution run by it, the Court stated as under (page 309):

“An educational society, running an educational institution solely for educational purposes and not for the purpose of profit, must be regarded as “other educational institution” under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. It would be unreal and hyper-technical to hold that the assessee-society is only a financing body and will not come within the scope of “other educational institution”. If, in substance and reality, the sole purpose for which the assessee has come into existence is to impart education at the level of colleges and schools, such an educational society should be regarded as an “educational institution”. (Aditanar Educational Institution v. Addl. CIT, [1997] 224 ITR 310 (SC)). Educational institutions, which are registered as a society, would continue to retain their character as such and would be eligible to apply for exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. (Pine – grove International Charitable Trust v. Union of India, [2010] 327 ITR 73 (P&H)). The distinction sought to be made between the society, and the educational institution run by it, does not, therefore, merit acceptance.”

2.2.5    The Court also analysed the effect of relevant provisos to section 10(23C) referred to in para 1.4 above and noted the position that there is a difference between stipulation of conditions and compliance therewith. In this context, the Court stated that the threshold conditions are aimed at discovering the actual existence of an educational institution by the authority by following the specified procedure. If the pre-requisite conditions of actual existence of educational institution are fulfilled then the question of compliance with the requirements, contemplated by various other provisos would arise. In this context, the Court further stated as under (page 312):

“Compliance with monitoring conditions/requirements under the third proviso, like application, accumulation, deployment of income in specified assets, whose compliance depends on events that have not taken place on the date of the application for initial approval, can be stipulated as conditions by the prescribed authority subject to which approval may be granted, provided they are not in conflict with the provisions of the Act. While imposing conditions, subject to which approval is granted, the prescribed authority may insist on a certain percentage of the accounting income to be utlisied/applied for imparting education. Similarly, the prescribed authority may grant approval on such terms and conditions as it deems fit in cases where the institution applies for initial approval for the first time….”

2.2.6    Finally, the Court concluded on the first question referred to in para 2.1.3 and held as under (page 313):

“We, accordingly, hold that in cases where approval, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, is initially sought, the objects in the memorandum of association of a society/trust are conclusive proof of such a trust existing solely as an educational institution entitled for the benefits, and as being eligible for approval, under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. In addition, an application in the prescribed proforma should be submitted to the prescribed authority within the time stipulated and the specified documents should be enclosed thereto. However, in cases where an application is submitted, seeking renewal of the exemption granted earlier, the prescribed authority shall, in addition to the conditions aforementioned, also examine whether the income of the applicant-society has been applied solely for the purposes of education in terms of section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act, the provisos thereunder, the Income-tax Rules, and the documents enclosed to the application submitted in Form 56D.”

2.2.7    To broadly summarize this issue, the High Court rejected the assessee’s argument seeking to make a distinction between the society and the educational institution run by it. The High Court held in the new cases, that for determining the eligibility for approval u/s 10(23C)(vi), the objects in the memorandum of association of a society/trust are conclusive proof to determine whether or not such a trust exists solely as an educational institution. In addition to this, in existing cases for renewal [or otherwise also], the actual conduct should be examined. The term ‘solely’ means exclusively and not primarily. The High Court further observed that if there are other objects in the memorandum which are non-educational, the fact that the assessee has not applied its income towards such non-educational objects would not entitle the assessee to the benefits u/s 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. However, if the primary or dominant purpose of an institution is “educational”, another object which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not disentitle the institution to the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi).

2.3    The High Court considered the remaining three questions [referred to in para 2.1.3 above] as inter-linked and inter-connected. For dealing with these questions, the High Court analysed the relevant provisions of the A. P. Charities Act under which it seems that the registration of educational institution is mandatory. Thus, the High Court also considered the issue as to whether registration by an educational institution under the A. P. Charities is a condition precedent for seeking approval u/s 10(23C)(vi). Answering the question in the negative, the High Court held that registration u/s 43 of the A. P. Charities Act is not a condition precedent for seeking approval u/s 10(23C)(vi). However, the Authority can prescribe such registration as a condition subject to which approval is granted u/s 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. The High Court further observed that the certificate of registration under the A.P. Charities Act is one of the factors which can be considered while considering the application for approval. The High Court also stated that the registration certificate issued under A.P. Charities Act is not a conclusive proof for treating the institution as existing solely for the purpose of education and despite the issuance of such certificate, the Authority is entitled to refuse application for approval u/s 10(23C)(vi).

R. R. M. Educational Society vs. CCIT (2011) 339 ITR 323 (AP)

3    In the above case, the petitioner was a society registered under the A. P. (Telangana Areas) Public Societies Registration Act, 1350 [this Act was replaced by the A. P. Societies Registration Act, 2001 – A. P. Registration Act]. The objects of the Society were as follows (pages 325-326):

“(i)    To open, run and continue an institution for providing higher, technical and medical education and training to the students community of students to promote literacy and eradicate unemployment;

(ii)    To open, run and continue the hostels for the poor students community;

(iii)    To organize seminars, workshops, debates, camps and forums, etc., for poor students community;

(iv)    To encourage social, educational and literary activities among the students;

(v)    To open, run and continue primary, secondary and high schools for students, and

(vi)    to conduct cultural programmes, help for poor people of community for their study.”

3.1    It was claimed that the aforesaid objects were amended in a meeting and the amended objects were registered with the Registrar of Societies on 24th August, 2009. After the amendment, the objects were as under (page 326):

“(a)    To open, run continue an institution for providing higher, technical and medical education and training to the students community of students to promote literacy and eradicate unemployment, and

(b)    To open, run and continue primary, secondary and high schools for students.”

3.2    It appears that the petitioners had applied for approval u/s10(23C)(vi) in the prescribed Form 56D on 27th May, 2009 for the A.Ys. 2008-09 and 2009-10. The application for approval was rejected by the Authority by order dated 26th May, 2010 on the grounds that, in so far as A.Y. 2008-09 was concerned, it was time barred and, in so far as A.Y.2009-10 was concerned, some of the objects were non-educational and therefore, the society did not exist solely for educational purpose; and the society was not registered under the A.P. Charities Act. The petitioner had challenged this order before the High Court by filing a writ petition on various grounds including the ground, for A.Y.2008-09, that the Authority ought to have condoned the delay in filing application for approval.

3.3    For the purpose of deciding the issue of condonation of delay, the Court considered the relevant proviso [as well as subsequent amendments made in this respect] dealing with time-limit provided for making application for approval and noted that no power is vested with the Authority to entertain an application filed beyond the statutory period. In this regard, the Court took the view that the Authority, being the creature of the statue, cannot travel beyond the statutory provisions, and could not, therefore, have condoned the delay.

3.4    The Court further considered the criteria for ascertaining whether the object of the institution relate to education as contemplated in section 10(23C)(vi). The Court then stated as under (page 330):

“If there are several objects of a society some of which relate to “education” and others which do not, and the trustees or the managers in their discretion are entitled to apply the income or property to any of those objects, the institution would not be liable to be regarded as one existing solely for educational purposes, and no part of its income would be exempt from tax. In other words, where the main or primary objects are distributive, each and every one of the objects must relate to “education” in order that the institution may be held entitled for the benefits under Section 10(23-C)(vi) of the Act.

If the primary or dominant purpose of an institution is “educational”, another object which is merely ancillary or incidental to the primary or dominant purpose would not disentitle the institution from the benefit. The test which has, therefore, to be applied is whether the object, which is said to be non-educational, is the main or primary object of the institution or it is ancillary or incidental to the dominant or primary object which is “educational”. (Addl. Cit v. Surat Art Silk Cloth Manufacturers Association [1980] 121 ITR 1(SC)). The test is the genuineness of the purpose tested by the obligation created to spend the money exclusively on “education”.

If that obligation is there, the income becomes entitled to exemption. (Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust v. CIT [1975] 101 ITR 234 (SC)”

3.5    After considering the legal position with regard to approval of application u/s 10(23C) in detail and referring to various judicial pronouncements [largely similar to what was considered in the case of New Noble Educational Society referred to in para 2 above], the Court stated as under (pages 331-332):

“The objects of the petitioner, as it originally stood, included “to eradicate unemployment”; “to encourage social activities among the students” and to “help poor people of community for their study”. These objects do not relate solely to education. The sense in which the word “education” has been used, in section 2(15) of the Income-tax Act, is the systematic instruction, schooling or training given to the young in preparation for the work of life. It also connotes the whole course of scholastic instruction which a person has received. The word “education”, in section 2(15), has not been used in that wide and extended sense according to which every acquisition of further knowledge constitutes education. What education connotes, in that clause, is the process of training and developing the knowledge, skill, mind and character of students by formal schooling. (Sole Trustee, Loka Shikshana Trust, [1975] 101 ITR 234 (SC)). This definition of “education” is wide enough to cover the case of an “educational institution” as, under section 10(23C)(vi), the “educational institution” must exist “solely” for educational purposes (Maharaja Sawai Mansinghji Museum Trust, [1988] 169 ITR 379 (Raj)).

The element of imparting education to students, or the element of normal schooling where there are teachers and taught, must be present so as to fall within the sweep of section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. Such an institution may, incidentally, take up other activities for the benefit of students or in furtherance of their education. It may invest its funds or it may provide scholarships or other financial assistance which may be helpful to the students in pursuing their studies. Such incidental activities alone, in the absence of the actual activity of imparting education by normal schooling or normal conduct of classes, would not be sufficient for the purpose of qualifying the institution for the benefit of section 10(23C)(vi) (Sorabji Nusserwanji Parekh, [1993] 201 ITR 939 (Guj)). Section 2(15) is wider in terms than section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. If the assessee›s case does not fall within section 2(15), it is difficult to put it in section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act (Maharaja Sawai Mansinghji Museum Trust, [1988] 169 ITR 379 (Raj)).”

3.6    Dealing with the case of amendment in the objects of the Society and its effect, the Court referred to the relevant provisions of the A. P. Registration Act dealing with the amendment of the by-laws of the society and stated as under (page 332):

“…On a conjoint reading of sub-sections (3) and (4) of section 8, it is only when the amendment to the objects of the society is intimated to the Registrar and the Registrar, on being satisfied that the amendment is not contrary to the provisions of the Act, registers and certifies such an alteration would it be a valid alteration under the Act. It is only from the date the Registrar certifies the alteration that the amendment, to the objects of the society, comes into force.

3.6.1    In this context, the Court also further stated as under (page 332):

“The amended objects also included “eradicating unemployment”. While this object may be charitable in nature, it is not solely for the purpose of education which is the requirement under section 10(23C)(vi) of the Act. …”

3.7    Finally, while upholding the order of rejection of approval, the Court held as under (page 333):

“The order of the first respondent, in rejecting the petitioner’s application for the assessment year 2009-10 on the ground that their objects were non-educational, cannot be faulted. Even if the petitioner’s contention that registration under A.P Act 30 of 1987 is not a condition precedent, in view of the judgment of this court in New Noble Educational Society v. Chief CIT, [2011] 334 ITR 303 (AP) (judgment in W.P No. 21248 of 2010 and batch dated November 11, 2010), is to be accepted, since the object of “eradicating unemployment” can neither be said to be integrally connected with or as being ancillary to, the object of providing education, the order of the first respondent in rejecting the petitioner’s application for exemption under section 10(23C)(vi) for the assessment year 2009-10 cannot be faulted.”

[To be continued]

Article 5 of India-Singapore DTAA; Section 9(1) of the IT Act – (i) Since the Indian parent company of Singapore subsidiary (Sing Sub) carried on all material activities, and since the Singapore subsidiary was merely shipping goods to Indian customers, fixed place PE of Sing Sub was constituted as what is relevant to be seen is the scope of activities carried out; (ii) on facts, dependent agent PE was constituted; (iii) the AO was directed to compute profit and attribute the same to PE as per directions given and various decisions on the issue.

Redington Distribution Pte. Ltd. vs. The DCIT
TS-908-ITAT-2022-Chny
ITA No: 14/Chny/2020
A.Y..: 2011-12
Date of order: 16th November, 2022

Article 5 of India-Singapore DTAA; Section 9(1) of the IT Act – (i) Since the Indian parent company of Singapore subsidiary (Sing Sub) carried on all material activities, and since the Singapore subsidiary was merely shipping goods to Indian customers, fixed place PE of Sing Sub was constituted as what is relevant to be seen is the scope of activities carried out; (ii) on facts, dependent agent PE was constituted; (iii) the AO was directed to compute profit and attribute the same to PE as per directions given and various decisions on the issue.

FACTS

Sing Sub, a Singapore entity is a tax resident of Singapore. It is a subsidiary of I Co, a listed Indian company and a leading supply chain solutions provider worldwide. Sing Sub was also engaged in the same business.

In the course of survey conducted at the premises of I Co, the tax authority found certain evidences, such as, emails, correspondence between I Co and Sing Sub, documents, etc. It also recorded statements of certain employees of I Co who were providing certain services to Sing Sub. In the process, it identified employees involved in sales function, who comprised a team called ‘Dollar Business’. It was found that ‘Dollar Business’ pertained to the USD business of Indian customers. Factually, the ‘Dollar Business’ was the same business with the the only difference being that based on request of customers (usually, those having Units in SEZ, etc.). its billing was done in USD instead of INR.

Analysis of the statements and documentary evidences showed that entire ‘Dollar Business’ beginning with the identification of customers, submitting quotes for various equipment, fixing price, granting of credit and ending with collection of receivables was performed by the ‘Dollar Team’. Thus, except for shipping of the equipment from Singapore, all other functions were undertaken by the ‘Dollar Team’ in India. Further, ‘Dollar Team’ directly reported to Singapore office. It was also noted that in Singapore, Sing Sub had employed very few employees because the only operation carried out in Singapore was shipping of goods.

Accordingly, with regards to Explanation 2 to Section 9(1) (i) of the Act, and Article 5 of India-Singapore DTAA, the AO concluded that Sing Sub had a PE in India. Further, in addition to all the aforementioned functions, I Co also appointed staff for activity of Sing Sub. Therefore, the AO further concluded that Sing Sub also had a dependent agent PE in India.

The DRP held that since entire sales function was habitually performed in India through ‘Dollar Team’, all the conditions of PE were satisfied and further, the ‘Dollar Team’ also constituted dependent agent PE of Sing Sub in India.

Before the Tribunal, Sing Sub contended as follows.

  • Sing Sub had taken support of the‘Dollar Team’ for certain back-office operations and ‘Dollar Team’ mainly acted as a communication channel between Sing Sub and the customer/vendor and channel partners.

  • The AO had mainly relied upon the statement of one junior employee who was not even employed with I Co during the relevant assessment year. Further, the AO not only ignored the statements of other employees, employed during the relevant assessment year, but also ignored statements given by clients of Sing Sub.

  • It was evident from these statements that clients had directly negotiated with original equipment manufacturers (“OEM”). Even though ‘Dollar Team’ provided quotations to Indian customers, they were subject to approval of OEMs. ‘Dollar Team’ did not have any role, either in negotiating the price or in concluding the contract.

  • To constitute a fixed place PE under Article 5 of India-Singapore DTAA, the premises where the non-resident was carrying out its operations should be at its disposal.

However, the AO had not shown that any employee of Sing Sub had travelled to India and that premises of I Co were occupied by them, or that premises were habitually available at the disposal of Sing Sub1.

To constitute a dependent agent PE: the agent should be legally and economically dependent on the foreign principal; the agent should have authority to conclude contracts in India; and it should have habitually exercised such authority. However, I Co is a listed Indian company, which is much larger than Sing Sub. Hence, it cannot be said to be dependent on I Co2.

For computing the profit attributable to Indian operations, the AO also included sales of non-Indian operations. This was against the principles of taxation. Further, the AO had determined attribution percentage in an arbitrary manner whereby only 10.35 per cent was attributed to Sing Sub whereas 89.65 per cent was attributed to the PE. If at all it is held that Sing Sub had a PE in India, only reasonable profit should be attributed to PE3.


1. In support of its contention, F Co relied on the decisions in E-funds IT Solution Inc. [2017] 399 ITR 34 (SC), UOI vs. UAE Exchange Centre Ltd. [2020] 425 ITR 30 (SC) and in Airlines Rotables Ltd. vs. JDIT [2011] 44 SOT 368 (Mum ITAT).

2. In support of its contention, F Co relied on the decision in Varian India (P) Ltd. vs. ADIT [2013] 142 ITD 692 (Mum ITAT).

3. In support of its contention, F Co relied on the decisions in Annamalais Timber Trust & Co. vs. CIT [1961] 41 ITR 781 (Mad.) and in Motorola Inc. [2005] 95 ITD 269 (SB).
Before the Tribunal, the department’s representative reiterated the contentions of the AO in his order. He further mentioned that the appellant’s representative had merely questioned and challenged the evidences collected by the tax authority in the course of survey, but had not provided any material evidence to establish that Sing Sub had carried out all business activities only in Singapore.

HELD

(i) Fixed Place PE

  • Based on the analysis of the statements and documentary evidences collected during the survey, the AO had discussed the modus operandi of business of Sing Sub and I Co. On the basis of findings of survey, Sing Sub and I Co had the same customers. I Co routed business through Sing Sub when those customers required import duty benefit. ‘Dollar Team’ exclusively worked for Sing Sub right from identifying the customers, negotiating the price, following up for outstanding receivables, etc. The sales manager of ‘Dollar Team’ had categorically admitted that he had negotiated with Indian customers, had also fixed terms and conditions of sales and further, that except for preparation of shipping documents for shipment of goods by Sing Sub, all other activities were carried out by I Co.

  • In terms of Article 5(1) of India-Singapore DTAA, ‘PE’ means a fixed place of business through which the business of the enterprise is wholly or partly carried on.

  • It was abundantly clear from the nature of work carried out by ‘Dollar Team’ that it was the backbone of Sing Sub’s business. The fact that customers of I Co and Sing Sub were same supported this proposition.

  • There is no dispute that in terms of decision in E-funds IT Solution Inc. [2017] 399 ITR 34 (SC), it was essential that premises of I Co should be at the disposal of Sing Sub and business of Sing Sub should be carried on through that place. In this case, since ‘Dollar Team’ carried out its functions from premises of I Co, there was no dispute that premises of I Co were at the disposal of Sing Sub.

  • In UOI v. UAE Exchange Centre Ltd. [2020] 425 ITR 30 (SC), it was held that if the services rendered by the subsidiary or holding company are in the nature of preparatory or auxiliary, then no PE was constituted. However, in this case, services rendered by the ‘Dollar Team’ of I Co were neither preparatory nor auxiliary, but main functions of a business entity.

  • In Airlines Rotables Ltd. vs. JDIT [2011] 44 SOT 368 (Mum ITAT), it was held that there should not only be a physical location through which the business of foreign enterprise should be carried out, but it should also have some sort of a right to use such place for its business. In this case, ‘Dollar Team’ of I Co continuously occupied premises of I Co and also carried out the business of Sing Sub from there.

  • The facts brought out by the AO from the evidences collected during survey clearly indicated fixed place PE was constituted in India.

(ii) Dependent Agent PE

  • In terms of Article 5(8) of India-Singapore DTAA, a ‘dependent agent’ PE is constituted when a person, other than an agent of an independent status, habitually exercises authority to conclude contracts on behalf of the enterprise, and also habitually secures orders wholly or almost wholly for the enterprise.

  • As regards a dependent agent PE, the Revenue should not only prove that ‘Dollar Team’ acted as agent and it habitually exercised authority to conclude contracts but also that the agent was legally and economically dependent. As discussed earlier, except for thepreparation of shipping documents for shipment of goods by Sing Sub, all other activities were carried out by ‘Dollar Team’. This was supported by the facts brought on record and evidences collected in the course of assessment proceedings. Therefore, the activities undertaken by ‘Dollar Team’ of I Co constituted dependent agent PE of Sing Sub. The assessee has relied upon decision in Varian India (P) Ltd. vs. ADIT [2013] 142 ITD 692 (Mum ITAT) and argued that independent agent cannot constitute a PE. Since ‘Dollar Team’ of I Co constituted dependent agent PE, the said decision has no application in case of Sing Sub.

(iii) Attribution of Profits

  • For the purpose of computing the profit of Sing Sub for attribution to PE, the AO considered the unaudited profit before tax. When audited figures are available, unaudited figures should not be considered. The AO should distribute profits showm in the books of Sing Sub between Sing Sub and PE in India. Further, the AO had considered profit margin of I Co for attribution of profit to PE. However, the AO should have adopted the profit margin of Sing Sub and attributed the same between PE in India and Sing Sub.

  • Sing Sub has also disputed inclusion of non-Indian sales by the AO for computing profits and contended that only sales in INR to end-customers should be considered. Sing Sub has also disputed inclusion of royalty in turnover. The assessee has relied upon decisions in Annamalais Timber Trust & Co. vs. CIT [1961] 41 ITR 781 (Mad.) and in Motorola Inc. [2005] 95 ITD 269 (SB) and submitted that the AO may be directed to attribute a reasonable amount of profits to PE in India. The DRP has directed the AO to consider audited financial statements.

  • However, as the facts are not clear, and also because Sing Sub was unable to provide correct computation of sales made through Indian PE to compute profit attributable to PE in India, the AO was directed to reconsider the issue as per directions given by DRP, the Tribunal and also decisions in Annamalais Timber Trust & Co. vs. CIT [1961] 41 ITR 781 (Mad.) and in Motorola Inc. [2005] 95 ITD 269 (SB).

Where the assessee stated that the source of cash deposit in its bank accounts was the balance of cash in hand brought forward from earlier assessment years, but the AO treated the same as an unexplained investment without assigning any reason, then impugned additions made u/s 69 was not justified.

Where the Department had accepted that the assessee had earned a tuition fee in preceding assessment years then in terms of principle of consistency, the AO had no justifiable reason to disbelieve assessee’s claim of having received income from tuition fee and add the same to assessee’s income as unexplained money u/s 69A.

53. Smt. Sarabjit Kaur vs. ITO
[2022] 96 ITR(T) 440 (Chandigarh – Trib.)
ITA Nos.:1144 & 1145 (Chd.) of 2019
A.Ys.: 2011-12 and 2013-14
Date of order: 30th March, 2022
Sections: 69, 69A

Where the assessee stated that the source of cash deposit in its bank accounts was the balance of cash in hand brought forward from earlier assessment years, but the AO treated the same as an unexplained investment without assigning any reason, then impugned additions made u/s 69 was not justified.

Where the Department had accepted that the assessee had earned a tuition fee in preceding assessment years then in terms of principle of consistency, the AO had no justifiable reason to disbelieve assessee’s claim of having received income from tuition fee and add the same to assessee’s income as unexplained money u/s 69A.

FACTS

A.Y. 2011-12

The assessee earned income from tuition as well as rent, and interest from bank and other parties. An information was received from the Investigation Wing of the Income Tax Department vide letter dated15th March, 2017 that the assessee had deposited cash of Rs. 8,00,000 in her bank account maintained with Axis Bank, Jagraon and Rs. 5,40,000 in her bank account with HDFC bank, thus, totalling to a deposit of Rs. 13,40,000. In view of this information, a notice u/s 148 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 was issued and in response to the said notice, the assessee filed the return which was originally filed u/s 139(1).

During the course of re-assessment proceedings, the assessee was required to explain the source of cash deposit of Rs. 13,40,000. The assessee stated before the AO that the deposit was from the closing balance of cashin hand in the immediately preceding assessment year amounting to Rs. 12,61,473 and was also partly out of cash withdrawals of Rs. 3 lakhs from Axis bank. The assessee was asked to furnish cash book/cash flow statement but the same were not furnished. The AO gave benefit of cash withdrawal of Rs. 3 lakhs from the Axis Bank and counted such withdrawal towards availability of cash for the purpose of cash deposit but proceeded to treat the remaining amount of Rs. 10,40,000 as unexplained and added the same to the income of the assessee u/s 69. The AO also proceeded to add the tuition fee of Rs. 2,03,600 as income from undisclosed sources. The assessment was completed at an income of Rs. 12,84,780.

Against the order of the learned AO, the assessee preferred first appeal before the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the assessee filed a further appeal before the ITAT.

A.Y. 2013-14

The assessee had deposited cash of Rs. 10,40,000 in her bank account maintained with HDFC Bank, Jagraon.

Acting on the information received from the Investigation Wing vide letter 15th March, 2017, the assessee’s case was reopened by issuing notice u/s 148 of the Act. In response to the notice, the assessee filed the return which was originally filed u/s 139(1). The assessee was asked to explain the cash deposit in the bank account and the response of the assessee was that the amount was deposited from the brought forward cash balance of the immediately preceding assessment year i.e. year ending 31st March, 2012 amounting to Rs. 12,58,949. However, the assessee could not produce any books of account or cash flow statement in support of her claim. The re-assessment was completed by treating the cash deposit of Rs. 10,40,000 as unexplained income u/s 69 and tuition income of Rs. 2,03,600 as unexplained income u/s 69A of the Act.

Against the order of the ld. assessing officer, the assessee preferred first appeal before the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the assessee filed further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The assessee submitted that he had regularly filed the balance sheet/statement of affairs for every assessment year along with the income and expenditure account. The assessee also submitted that in the assessment order passed u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 147 for A.Y.2010-11, the return of income was accepted and so was the cash deposit.

The assessee also contended that even the tuition income had been accepted in earlier assessment years as well as in subsequent assessment years and, therefore, there was no reason for not having accepted the tuition income for A.Y. 2011-12 and having treated it as income from unexplained sources. The Tribunal’s attention was also drawn to the assessment order passed u/s 143(3) r.w.s 147 for A.Y. 2012-13, wherein also the returned income of the assessee was accepted, which included cash deposits as well as tuition income. It was submitted that the availability of opening cash in hand had been duly justified by filing of balance sheet for the immediately preceding assessment year which had already been accepted by the Department and, therefore, there was no reason to not accept the same for the purpose of making cash deposit in A.Y. 2011-12.

Reliance was placed on the decision of ITAT Camp Bench at Jalandhar in Holy Faith International (P.) Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT [IT Appeal No. 181 (Asr) of 2017, dated 15th January, 2019] to contend that completed assessment cannot be reopened u/s 148 by simply acting upon the information received from the Investigation Wing and without application of mind by the AO.

It was observed by the Tribunal that if the assessee’s explanation of having the opening cash in hand was to be disbelieved, there should have been cogent reasoning behind the same. Since the Department had no cogent reasoning behind the disbelief, the Tribunal accepted the assessee’s contention that as on 31st March, 2010 the assessee had a closing balance of cash in hand of Rs. 12,61,473 which ought to have been considered for the purposes of explaining the source of cash deposits in the bank accounts.

The Tribunal by concurring with the view of the assessee, opined that the lower authorities had no reason to disbelieve the assessee’s claim of having earned tuition income during the years under consideration in light of the rule of consistency which was enshrined in the decision of the Apex Court in the case of Radhasoami Satsang vs. CIT [1992] 60 Taxman 248/193 ITR 321.

Accordingly, the appeals of the assessee for both the years under consideration were partly allowed.

Entertainment and Media Sector

INTRODUCTION

Entertainment and Media, though generally referred to as one sector, actually represents two diverse sectors. While entertainment deals with content (films, television, etc.) creation and its’ exploitation, the media sector primarily deals with the delivery of the content. The advent of technology, especially social media, has further reduced the lines of demarcation between the two. In this article, we have attempted to discuss the specific issues faced by this sector. To do so, let us first understand the business model under which the sectors operate.

THE ENTERTAINMENT SECTOR

This sector has various sub-sectors, such as films, television, theatre, etc. The entire sector depends upon content for its survival, i.e., a film, television or play is successful only when the audience well receives the content. Therefore, the key activity in this sector is twofold, one being content creation and the second being content exploitation.

Content creation, an elaborate process, involves various activities, such as:

  • Identifying the idea/script based on which the content is to be created.
  • Pre-production activities (finalizing the cast, crew, location, etc., before the shooting occurs).
  • Production activities (actual shooting takes place).
  • Post-production activities (editing, dubbing, marketing and promotion, etc.).

The above activities result in the content coming into existence. However, the content per se may not be the product. Though a person may be in possession of the content, he may not be able to freely use the same. For example, a person purchases a movie CD and starts exhibiting it in a theatre. However, freely using it may not be allowed because the CD is sold to him with a specific use direction, and such a person does not have a right to use it otherwise. In other words, unless the person using the content has obtained the required license/rights from the content owner, he cannot use it for the intended use. This, inter alia, means that the product emanating from the content creation is not the content itself but the various rights which vest in the said product. The question that therefore remains is:

(a) What are the different kind of works in which copyrights subsist?

(b) What types of copyrights subsist in such works?

(c) Whom do the said copyrights belong to?

The Copyrights Act, 1957 deals with copyrights and provides that the copyrights shall vest in different types of works, namely (a) original, artistic, literary or musical works, (b) sound recordings and (c) cinematographic films (which would include films, web-series, etc., and is referred to as “content” for the sake of brevity in this article). Generally, the first two classes of works in which rights subsist become an integral part of the third class, though they continue to retain their separate identity. For example, the script of the film, the lyrics of the songs, the dialogues delivered by the cast, etc., are original literary works, while the recorded music of the film is a sound recording, etc. However, when all these works, along with the actual recorded content (video), are brought together in a synchronized form, a new work of cinematographic film comes into existence. Each of these works, which comes into existence, and different types of works which go on to form part of the final work, have different copyrights which subsist in them. As provided for in the Copyrights Act, 1957, the rights vesting in an underlying work may be exploited in different ways, as summarized below:

Rights subsisting Manner of exploitation
Right to communicate the cinematographic film to the
public
•   By theatrical
screening (by granting theatrical rights).

•   By televised
screening (by granting satellite rights).

•   By streaming
through apps (by granting specific rights to that extent, for example, Hotstar,
Netflix,
etc.).

Right to communicate the sound recordings to the public •   By granting
rights to Radio stations to play the said songs.

•   By granting the
right to record and reproduce the said sound recordings in a medium.

•   By granting the
right to stream the said sound recordings through apps (example Gaana.com,
Saavn,
etc.).

Rights subsisting in literary, musical works •   By granting the
rights to remake the film in different language or make the sequel to the
said film.

•   By granting the
rights to use the lyrics/tune to create a new song.

Rights subsisting in dramatic works •   By granting the
rights to re-create the story in the form of a drama.

Therefore, it is apparent from the above that the product to be exploited is the copyright in the underlying works, not the work itself. The exploitation of the copyright can be done either by the owner of the said work, who by virtue of the provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957 is generally the person who created the said work, or any person who has become owner by way of assignment of copyrights or holds a valid license to exploit the said copyrights. Such a person is able to exploit each copyright originating from the underlying work as well as copyrights in different works which go on to form a part of the underlying work either separately or jointly. For example, the theatrical rights may be transferred to a distributor, the OTT rights to OTT platforms, satellite rights to television channels, music rights to music labels, etc.

COPYRIGHTS – GOODS VS. SERVICE AND ASSOCIATED ISSUES

This takes us to the first issue, which needs analysis, i.e., whether copyrights are classifiable as goods or services. The Supreme Court has already held in Tata Consultancy Service vs. State of AP [2001 (128) ELT 21 (SC)], that intangibles are to be treated as goods if they satisfy specific attributes, namely, utility, capable of being bought and sold, and capable of being transmitted, transferred, delivered, stored and possessed. Copyrights do satisfy these attributes, and therefore, there is no iota of doubt that they would classify as goods for GST. Even the rate notifications very well accept this principle where the tax rates for the permanent transfer of copyrights are notified under the goods notification [1/2017-CT(Rate)], while tax rates for temporary transfer of copyrights are notified under the services notification [11/2017-CT(Rate)] with the same tax rates notified. However, there are different issues which need cognizance.

Let us take an example of a foreign language movie. A production house procures the right to remake the said film in Hindi on a perpetuity basis from the owner of rights located outside India for a lump sum consideration. In such cases, the issue that arises is whether the purchase of the remake rights by the Indian production house will be treated as import of goods or import of service? While one may argue that when the rights owned by a person outside India are assigned, the same would be treated as import of goods and therefore, no tax can be levied on the same u/s 5 of the IGST Act, 2017. However, the bigger issue would be whether such imports would be liable to tax u/s 12 of the Customs Act, 1962 or not, especially when the document of title evidencing assignment of rights is received electronically. In case the document of title is brought into India, either as a courier or baggage, there may be customs duty implications on such imports, but on what value would the same be payable would be a subject matter of dispute?

Similarly, in a reverse transaction, i.e., rights being transferred on perpetual/permanent basis to a foreign entity, the same would also be treated as export of goods. The issue remains w.r.t how the supplier will claim refund u/s 54. This is because once this is treated as export of goods, the refund claim will have to be filed in a particular manner which will firstly require the existence of a bill of entry filed with customs duty. Just like in the case of an import transaction where there is no bill of entry/interface with the customs authority, a similar issue would remain in case of an outbound transaction as well. Even the claim of export of goods would be scrutinized from the context of how the “goods” have gone out of India?

Continuing with the first example, after purchase of copyrights, while the film is in the pre-production stage, the film producer enters into an agreement with the distributor for exploitation of copyrights whereby he assigns/transfers on perpetuity basis the entire distribution rights to the distributor of the film. The rights will subsist in the film once the film comes into existence, though the distributor will be required to make stage-wise payments to the producer. Since this would be a contract for transfer of rights in perpetuity, i.e., permanent transfer of copyrights, this will be treated as supply of goods.

The first question that arises is what would be the point of taxation? Would it be at the time of entering into the agreement for transfer of copyrights or when the stage-wise payment clause becomes due? Can it be argued that though the agreement is entered into at an early stage, the actual transfer of copyrights takes place only when the film comes into existence and the rights subsisting in the said work of film accrue to the distributor for further exploitation? At times, it may also happen that the distributor might have also further exploited the said works without the work being in existence.

This takes us to the ‘Time of Supply’ provisions. The same is dealt with u/s 12 r.w.s. section 31 of the CGST Act, 2017. Section 12 provides that the liability to pay a tax on goods shall be the earlier of the following dates, namely:

a) The date of issuance of invoice by the supplier of goods or the last date on which he is required to issue such an invoice u/s 31; or

b) The date on which he receives the payment with respect to such supply.

Section 31 further provides that the invoice for supply of goods shall be raised by the supplier before or at the time of:

a) Where supply involves movement of goods, the removal of goods for supply to the recipient; or

b) In any other case, delivery of goods or making available thereof to the recipient.

Being intangible in nature, supply of copyrights on a permanent basis would necessarily mean that clause (a) of section 31 would not apply. This means that clause (b) becomes applicable. In the case of a copyrights transfer agreement, once the agreement is entered into, it necessarily means that the rights are transferred to the other party, i.e., distributor and even before the said rights come into existence, the distributor is at liberty to enter into agreements w.r.t such rights with other parties. This implies that section 31(b) gets triggered when the agreement is entered into between the two parties. This would inter alia mean that the film producer would be required to raise an invoice and make payment of the GST on the entire consideration value at that stage itself, though the payment may become due in installments. So far as the eligibility to claim a corresponding input tax credit on the distributors’ front is concerned (on the issue of receipt/non-receipt is concerned), there is no issue of non-receipt of goods. Even otherwise, once the invoice is raised as per time of supply provisions, Explanation 1 provides a saving grace to the effect that a supply shall be deemed to be made to the extent covered by the invoice/payment. This means that the eligibility to claim credit cannot be denied merely because the rights have not come into existence. However, it does mean that a film producer will be required to pay the tax upfront and not as per the agreed stage-wise payments.

Tweaking the above example, let us assume that instead of permanent transfer, the agreement for transfer of copyrights was on a temporary basis, say for 20 years. In such a case, the supply will change its nature from being a supply of goods to a supply of service. Since the services are to be supplied over a period of more than 3 months, the same would be classified as continuous supply of service and therefore, the producer would be at liberty to raise an invoice as per the payments clause of the agreement. The distributor would also be eligible to claim the corresponding input tax credit in view of the explanation to section 14 (like section 13), which provides a relaxation to the effect that a supply shall be deemed to be made to the extent covered by the invoice/payment.

COPYRIGHTS – ONLINE EXPLOITATION

With the advent of technology and the emergence of social media, a new source of revenue has emanated for content owners, namely, hosting of content on social media platforms (YouTube, Facebook, etc.,) with revenue earned in the form of a share in advertising revenue. In this model, the content owners monetize their rights by hosting their content on such platforms and the platforms further sell advertising slots on the content to third party advertisers. The revenue generated by the platform on sale of such slots is then shared with the content owners.

Generally, the platforms deal with the content owners through their entities outside India. For instance, in case of Google, the agreement is entered into with Google Ireland Ltd. There may/may not be any interaction with the Indian Google entity. The content owner is required to follow the technical instructions contained in the agreement with respect to hosting the content on the platform, which is primarily to avoid copyright infringement, tracking revenue generation vis-à-vis the content, etc.

Since such agreements are with a recipient located outside India and all other conditions for treating the supply as export are satisfied, the content owners have been classifying the supply as export of service. However, tax authorities have been disputing the claim of export of service, primarily on the following grounds:

a) The content may be viewed in India as well as outside India. As such, services are provided partly in a taxable territory and partly outside taxable territory and therefore, as per the ‘place of provision of service’ rules, the place of provision of service would be in taxable territory and therefore, cannot be classified as export of services.

b) The services are supplied through the medium of information technology and therefore should qualify as OIDAR services for which the place of supply would be the location of the service provider (up to 30th November, 2006).

While the above grounds are flimsy at best for denying export benefits to taxpayers, litigation on this aspect, even under GST, may not be ruled out. It is, therefore, important to correctly classify such supplies. Merely because the revenue earned is in the form of a share in advertising revenue, it would not mean that the supplies are to be classified as advertising revenue. It must be borne in mind that the supply is that of a grant of temporary license, and therefore, the supply should be classified accordingly only. Once the supply is classified as a copyright service, the question of OIDAR also does not remain as the use of information technology is only incidental to the main service, and therefore, the same cannot trigger classification as OIDAR.

CONTENT CREATION

Having discussed the issues which plague the entertainment industry from the revenue perspective, we now focus on the activity of content creation, which forms a part of the input of the industry. This is a complex process and in general, requires the film producer to incur various expenses such as:

a) Payment for the crew – this includes not only the actors, but also various support personnel hired for the shoot, such as directors, videographers, choreographers, make-up team, props, etc.

b) Arranging for the wardrobe and makeup of the acting crew.

c) Arranging for the stay and travel of the entire crew in case of a shoot at multiple locations (in India/outside India).

d) Arranging for the music.

e) Arranging for editing and special effects (VFX, 3D, etc.) on the shot content.

f) Arranging for catering of the crew during shoots.

The above is merely a descriptive list and not an exhaustive one of the expenses incurred in the content creation process. The industry faces various issues/pain points in each of the above steps which we shall discuss now.

BLOCKED CREDITS

A substantial amount is incurred by a film producer during shooting towards arranging food and beverages for the entire crew, arranging for the acting crew’s makeup, arranging for vanity vans where the main acting crew gets ready for shoot, rests during breaks, etc. At times, they also have to arrange private aircraft for the main actor/actress. The suppliers charge GST on forward charge, or the film producer must pay tax under reverse charge. The issue arises on account of specific restrictions u/s 17(5), which denies input tax credit in the following cases:

(i) food and beverages, outdoor catering, beauty treatment, health services, cosmetic and plastic surgery, leasing, renting or hiring of motor vehicles, vessels or aircraft referred to in clause (a) or clause (aa) except when used for the purposes specified therein, life insurance and health insurance:

Provided that the input tax credit in respect of such goods or services or both shall be available where an inward supply of such goods or services or both is used by a registered person for making an outward taxable supply of the same category of goods or services or both or as an element of a taxable composite or mixed supply;

However, the above supplies that the film-maker would receive will not get covered under the exception as the film producer is not using them to make the same outward supply. Similarly, the film producer is making a single supply, which is that of transfer of copyrights, and therefore, the question of there being a taxable/composite supply does not arise. As such, a film producer receiving the above services must treat them as blocked credits and take the corresponding GST charged by the suppliers/tax paid under reverse charge as the cost of production.

An interesting question might arise in the case of beauty treatment. The term beauty treatment means a treatment- an activity. Therefore, the mere purchase of the makeup material may not constitute beauty treatment. Therefore, if a film producer purchases the material required for beauty treatment separately and obtains separate services of professionals to carry out the activity, can he claim credit to the extent of tax paid on the purchase of such materials?

MULTI-LOCATIONAL SHOOTS AND ITC BLOCKAGE

The next issue the sector faces is with respect to cases where the shooting takes place in multiple States. For example, a film producer based in Maharashtra undertakes film shooting in Gujarat and Rajasthan. In this case, the film producer is required to make multiple arrangements in these two states, incurring location charges where the shoots are to take place, accommodation for the crew, arrangement of food and beverages, etc., All such expenses, being covered under the property basket, would attract levy of local taxes, i.e., CGST and SGST by the local vendors which the film producer will not be eligible to take input tax credit in Maharashtra. This invariably would result in incremental costs for the film producer.

A question that arises is, can the film producer obtain ISD registration and distribute the credit to his Maharashtra registration? The answer would be in the negative. This is because the ISD is a mechanism to distribute the credits received at multiple registered locations of a recipient for which a single invoice is raised at the Head Office. In this case, let’s say even if the film producer obtains ISD registration in Gujarat and Rajasthan, the fact would be that the services are received in Gujarat and Rajasthan and therefore, the option of transfer of credit from ISD of Gujarat and Rajasthan to Maharashtra may not be available.

Therefore, to overcome this issue, the industry has come up with a workaround whereby either they appoint a contractor in the respective states to arrange all the facilities, namely, location, accommodation, F&B, etc., and as per the agreed terms, raises a single invoice to the film producer towards line production service, an industry specific term. In this case, the role of the line producer is to merely arrange and facilitate the supply of said services to the film producer and his crew. With multiple supplies being made in one contract, the question of composite vs. mixed supplies come into picture. It is the position of such service providers, i.e., line producers that their principal supply is line production services and therefore, the entire consideration received by them is attributable to line production service on which they can charge IGST treating the location of service recipient, i.e., the film producer as place of supply. With the line producers making multiple supplies to the film producer as part of a composite supply, to a large extent, the restrictions from claim of credit u/s 17(5) discussed earlier can be avoided and shelter can be taken under the exception provided therein. This view finds agreement with the ruling of the AAR in the case of Udayan Cinema Pvt. Ltd. [2019 (23) GSTL 345 (AAR-GST)], wherein a similar agreement was analyzed in the context of cross-border transactions.

At times, to avoid the incremental cost of hiring a line producer, the film producer also obtains registration in the State where the shoot is to be undertaken and treats the location as a line producer and raises the invoice to his main registration under the cover of supply of service under Schedule I, Entry 2. It has been observed that claim of input tax credit at the recipient end is being questioned during the audit/ investigation proceedings, which needs to be borne in mind.

CONTENT CREATION – WORK FOR HIRE VS. WORK OF HIRE

The foundation of the content creation process is the intellectual work of authors (concept, idea, script, etc.,), on which the entire activity of content creation depends. While generally the person who is the author of such works, termed as literary work under the Copyrights Act, 1957 is treated as the owner, there is a concept of work for hire vs. work of hire under the Indian law.

The need to analyze whether a contract is a work for hire or work of hire arises in view of notification 13/2017-CT(Rate) which casts the liability to pay tax under reverse charge in case of services received by way of transfer of copyright in original literary, artistic or musical works as under:

Nature of service Service provider Service recipient
Services supplied by a music composer, photographer,
artist or the like relating to original dramatic, artistic or musical works
Music composer, photographer, artist or the like Music company, producer or like located in the taxable
territory
Services supplied by an author relating to original
literary works (optional reverse charge at the discretion of author)
Author Publisher located in the taxable territory

The above entries can trigger in two specific scenarios, one, where the service supplied is in relation to an already existing work or second, where the author, music composer, photographer or artist is commissioned to create a new work. Let us take an example of a person who has authored a novel published in a particular language. If a publisher intends to publish the same in a different language and acquires the rights from the author, the royalty paid would be liable to reverse charge.

However, when a person is hired to carry out the activity of commissioning a new work, say taking a photograph, or creating a musical tune for another person, this would come within the purview of work for hire vs. work of hire. Section 17 (b) provides that in the absence of a written agreement between the parties, the person who requested that a work be created by an author shall be the first owner of the copyright. Similarly, section 17 (c) also provides that in the absence of an agreement between the parties, the employer is the original owner of the copyright in cases where an author creates a work while employed under a service or apprenticeship contract.

Therefore, in cases where a new work comes into existence and by virtue of clauses (b)/(c) of section 17, the person for whom the work has been created becomes the owner of the said copyright, the question of there being a transfer of copyright does not arise and in such cases, the reverse charge entry might not trigger.

Furthermore, the nature of transfer of copyright would need to be analyzed. If the transfer of copyrights is on a perpetual basis, the same would constitute a supply of goods and therefore, the question of payment of tax under reverse charge would not arise as notification No. 13/2017-CT(Rate) applies only to supply of services.

THE MEDIA SECTOR

The second limb of the sector, i.e., the media sector primarily refers to a medium for dissemination of content. This can be through print, television, radio, online, etc., The primary source of revenue for this sector is advertisement income with incidental revenue being in the form of sponsorships, marketing support services, etc.

MEDIA SECTOR – REVENUE VS. COST BALANCING

A common issue faced across this sector is the revenue/cost mismatch. Most media entities have a multi-locational presence. There can be scenarios where the revenue and the associated tax liabilities are at one location while the expenses and the corresponding credits are spread across locations. Let us take the example of a newspaper publisher who has printing activities across the country from where newspapers are published daily. A leading corporate placed a Release Order (RO) for publishing a front-page advertisement in newspapers across India. The RO was issued to the Mumbai Office of the company which raised the invoice to the client with applicable GST. Therefore, while the revenue would be in one state, the cost would be spread across multiple states which will result in cash outflow in one location and blockage in other locations. A similar challenge is faced even by TV/radio broadcasters.

The question that arises is how to ensure a revenue/cost balance which will also ensure proper balancing of GST credits across location. The first solution which comes to mind is a cross-charge policy under Schedule I, Entry 2 whereby the printing location will raise an invoice to the Mumbai location for advertising services. This service will have to be valued at an arm’s-length since all locations would be engaged in making exempted supplies (newspapers are nil rated) and therefore, Rules 28 – 31 would need to be followed to determine the value of supply.

There is a specific reference to four different methods of valuation of a supply in these rules which must be applied sequentially, as under:

a) Open Market Value of Such Supply – Rule 28(a)

b) Value of supply of goods or services of like kind and quality – Rule 28(b)

c) Value based on 110 per cent of the cost of provision of services – Rule 30

d) Value determined on reasonable means consistent with the principles – Rule 31.

The term ‘open market value’ is defined through an Explanation to Chapter IV of the CGST Rules, 2017 as “under open market value” of a supply of goods or services or both means the full value in money, excluding the Integrated tax, Central tax, State tax, Union Territory tax and the cess payable by a person in a transaction, where the supplier and the recipient of the supply are not related and the price is the sole consideration, to obtain such supply at the same time when the supply being valued is made

It may be noted that for the purposes of applicability of Rule 28(a), it is only the specific product or service which is being supplied that would possess an open market value. In this case, there is a specific service being supplied by each registration and therefore, the value of service by each registration will need to be determined under this method.

PRINT MEDIA – SALE OF UNSOLD NEWSPAPER – TAXABILITY

Once the day is over, the newspaper loses its value. A publisher will always have a stock of unsold newspapers. The question arises whether such unsold newspapers would continue to be classified as newspapers and, therefore, is liable to tax at nil rate or as scrap of paper attracting GST at 5 per cent.

In the context of Sales Tax, the Hon’ble SC has in the case of Indian Express vs. State of TN [(1987) 67 STC 474 (SC)], held that such unsold newspapers when sold will be treated as sale of scrap and therefore, liable to tax accordingly. However, in the case of Sait Rikhaji Furtarnal vs. State of AP [1992 85 STC SC], the Hon’ble SC has held to the contrary that old newspapers are also “newspaper” and would be entitled to the exemption provided under the Constitution. As such, the question of whether unsold newspapers would be liable to GST or not is still open for debate.

However, as a prudent business, a preferred position would be treating such a newspaper as sale of scrap and tax it at 5 per cent. This will enable the publisher to alter its ratio of exempt service and entitle it to claim more input tax credit. In any case, the person buying the scrap of newspaper would be eligible to claim input tax credit (if GST is charged) and therefore, there may not be any concerns from that end.

OOH MEDIA – PLACE OF SUPPLY?

The Out of Home (OOH) media refers to advertisements displayed in hoardings at prominent locations such as cross-road, airports, railway stations, etc. In this case, there is a specific issue of determination of place of supply. This is because, to provide the service of displaying advertisements at any locations, the service provider needs to have advertising slots on such locations. For the same, the service provider needs to obtain the necessary permission/approval from the appropriate authority/owner of the property where he intends to display his clients’ advertisements. The issue which arises is with respect to the place of supply. Can it be said that the service supplied by way of grant of permission/approval is directly in relation to an immovable property and therefore, the place of supply will be determined u/s 12 (3) of the IGST Act, 2017?

The answer to this would be in negative because the service is not in relation to immovable property, but rather that of displaying of advertisement on the immovable property. This view has been followed in the context of EU VAT in Minister Finansow vs. RR Donnelley Global Turnkey Solutions Poland (RRD), and is relevant. The issue in the said case was that RRD was engaged in providing a complex service of storage of goods involving storage, admission, packaging, loading/unloading, etc. The issue was whether the service could be classified under Article 47 or not, which deal with supply of services connected with immovable property. The same is reproduced below for ready reference:

The place of supply of services connected with immovable property, including the services of experts and estate agents, the provision of accommodation in the hotel sector or in sectors with a similar function, such as holiday camps or sites developed for use as camping sites, the granting of rights to use immovable property and services for the preparation and coordination of construction work, such as the services of architects and of firms providing on-site supervision, shall be the place where the immovable property is located.

From the above, it is evident that Article 47 is worded similarly to Section 13 (4). In the context of Article 47, the Court had held as under:

Article 47 of Council Directive 2006/112/EC of 28 November 2006 on the common system of value added tax, as amended by Council Directive 2008/8/EC of 12 February 2008, must be interpreted as meaning that the supply of a complex storage service, comprising admission of goods to a warehouse, placing them on the appropriate storage shelves, storing them, packaging them, issuing them, unloading and loading them, comes within the scope of that article only if the storage constitutes the principal service of a single transaction and only if the recipients of that service are given a right to use all or part of expressly specific immovable property.

In fact, Article 47 has been amended w.e.f. 1st January, 2017 to specifically provide transactions which shall be treated as being in connection with an immovable property and transactions which shall not be treated as being in connection with an immovable property. Some specific inclusions and exclusions are tabulated below:

In Connection with
Immovable Property
Not in Connection with Immovable property
•   Drawing up of
plans for a building/ parts of a building designated for a particular plot of
land

•   On site
Supervision/Security services

•   Survey and
assessment of risk and integrity of the immovable property (Title search by
advocates)

•   Drawing up of
plans for a building/ parts of a building not designated for a particular
plot of land

• Storage of
goods in an immovable property if no specific part of immovable property is
earmarked for the exclusive use of the said customer

•   Property
management services (other than REITs)

•   Estate agent
services

•   Provision of
advertising, even if involves use of immovable property (Out of Home
Advertising)

•   Intermediation
in the provision of hotel accommodation services acting on behalf of another
person

•   Business exhibition services

• Portfolio management of investments in real estate (REIT)

CONCLUSION

The entertainment and media sector plays a very important role in the day-to-day lives of citizens. However, the industry is faced with specific issues which need to be looked into, including clarity on input tax credit eligibility on specific supplies, an inbuilt mechanism to handle the revenue/cost mismatch, etc.

Where the assessee was hiring trucks from an open market on individual and need basis and payments had not been made to any sub-contractor since the assessee did not have any contract with the truck owner and therefore the question of TDS did not arise in respect of payments towards lorry hire charges

52. Dineshbhai Bhavanbhai Bharwad vs. ITO
[2022] 96 ITR(T) 429 (Ahmedabad – Trib.)
ITA No.:1488 (Ahd.) of 2016
A.Y.:2007-08
Date: 31st March, 2022
Section: 194C r.w.s 40(a)(ia)

Where the assessee was hiring trucks from an open market on individual and need basis and payments had not been made to any sub-contractor since the assessee did not have any contract with the truck owner and therefore the question of TDS did not arise in respect of payments towards lorry hire charges.

FACTS

During the year under consideration, the assessee had debited sum of Rs. 10,41,14,765 as ‘Lorry Hire Charges’.

In the course of the assessment proceedings, the assessee was asked to furnish the complete details and copy of account of said expenses. The assessee had produced all the ledger accounts of the said expenses and submitted that as individual payments do not exceed Rs. 20,000, no TDS was deducted. On going through the ledger accounts, it was noticed by the AO that the assessee ought to have deducted tax at source u/s 194C of the Act, since in a number of individual cases the payment exceeded Rs. 50,000. The AO partly disallowed lorry hire charges u/s 40(a)(ia), since the assessee failed to deduct tax at source u/s 194C in individual cases where payment exceeded Rs. 50,000.

Against the order of the learned AO, the assessee preferred the first appeal before the CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved by the order of CIT(A), the assessee filed a further appeal before the ITAT.

HELD

The assessee had submitted that he did not have any contract, and had hired trucks from the open market on individual and need basis. In support of his contentions, the assessee had filed truck numbers. It was observed by the ITAT that truck numbers as well as owners of all trucks were different.

Reliance was placed on the decision of the Hon’ble Gujarat High Court in the case of CIT vs. Mukesh Travels Co.[2014] 367 ITR 706, wherein it was held that the vital requirement for invoking section 194C is the existence of relationship of contractor and sub-contractor between the assessee and the transporter. If the said relationship does not exist, then the liability to deduct tax at source u/s 194C does not arise.

The ITAT had considered the above decision of Jurisdictional High Court and concurred with the view of the assessee that the payments have not been made to any sub-contractor.

Accordingly, the ITAT held that the question of TDS u/s 194C does not arise. Consequently, the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed and the disallowance made u/s 40(a)(ia) was deleted.

There need not be any “occasion” for receipt of gift by the assessee from his relative.

51. ITO vs. Dr. Satish Natwarlal Shah
ITA No. 379/Ahd./2020 (Ahemadabad-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2012-13
Date of order: 19th October, 2022
Section: 56(2)(v)

There need not be any “occasion” for receipt of gift by the assessee from his relative.

FACTS

A doctor by profession, the assessee filed his return of income for A.Y. 2012-13, declaring a total income of Rs. 16,34,278. In the course of assessment proceedings, the (AO) noticed that the assessee had received a gift of Rs. 3,12,24,009, of which Rs. 2,61,82,207 were shares of various companies, and the balance was a monetary gift. The assessee had also gifted Rs. 1,06,65,848 to his relatives. The AO sought an explanation from the assessee regarding the gifts received and given.

The assessee replied that the gift, in the form of shares and debentures of Rs. 2,61,82,207 was received by him on 4th October, 2011 from his brother Sanjay N. Shah, residing in the U.S.A. Also, the amount of Rs. 44,00,000; Rs. 13,436 and Rs. 1,736 were received by him on 25th November, 2011, 2nd January, 2012 and 4th January, 2012, respectively from his brother Sanjay N. Shah. To substantiate this, he filed a declaration of the gift from his brother that they had been made out of natural love and affection.

The AO noticed that the assessee had gifted Rs. 53,71,016 to Seema S. Shah; Rs. 26,71,238 to Shailja S. Shah and Rs. 7,53,138 to Sapna S. Shah, the three daughters of his brother Sanjay Shah.

The AO disbelieved the above gifts received by the assessee from his brother and also the gifts by the assessee to his nieces. The AO held that the assessee had failed to prove the source of investment into shares by his NRI brother, which the assessee eventually got in the form of a gift, and a gift to nieces has no logic. He further held that even if this transaction of gifting is to be believed, it appears to be a kind of family arrangement for equalisation of wealth amongst the family members. The AO treated the above gift as unexplained and added Rs. 3,06,13,009 as income of the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A), who held that though the AO cannot ask for the source of source, the assessee has properly explained the same during assessment proceedings itself. The CIT(A) held that the AO accepted the purchase of shares by the assessee’s brother under the NRI quota, and the funds which were paid through the assessee’s brother’s NRE bank account. He observed that the AO was satisfied about the genuineness of the gift. However, the AO had doubted the “occasion of the gift” in the absence of any family function, namely marriage, etc.

The CIT(A) relying upon decisions of Vishakhapatnam Tribunal in Dr. Vempala Bala Manohar vs. ITO [68 taxmann.com 410]; Rajasthan High Court in Arun Kumar Kothari [31 taxmann.com 258] and Andhra Pradesh High Court in Pendurthi Chandrasekhar [91 taxmann.com 229], held that no occasion needs to be proved for accepting a gift from a relative more particularly where the relationship is one as defined in section 56(2)(v). The CIT(A) deleted the addition made by the AO.

Aggrieved, the Revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal observed that it is an admitted case that the genuineness of the gift, though doubted by the AO in assessment proceedings, during appellate proceedings, the AO was satisfied with the evidences produced by the assessee by way of additional documents, and thus the AO was satisfied with the genuineness of the gift by the assessee’s brother who is an NRI. The only remaining doubt of the AO was that there is no justification in gifting such a huge sum without there being any big occasion in the assessee’s family namely wedding, etc.

The Tribunal noted that the co-ordinate bench in the case of Dr. Vempala Bala Manohar (supra) has held tat the lack of occasion cannot be a ground to doubt the transaction of gift between family members. It observed that similar is the ratio of the decision of the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Arun Kumar Kothari (supra) and the Andhra Pradesh and Telangana High Court in the case of Pendurthi Chandrasekhar (supra). Following the ratio of these judgments the Tribunal held that the source and genuineness having been proved beyond doubt, there need not be any “occasion” for the assessee having received gift from his brother, who is a relative as per Explanation 2 to section 56(2)(v).

The Tribunal upheld the order of CIT(A) deleting the addition made by the A.O.

Credit for tax deducted at source needs to be allowed even though the amount so deducted is not reflected in Form No. 26AS of the payee.

50. Liladevi Dokania vs. ITO
ITA No. 126/Srt./2021 (Surat-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2019-20
Date of order: 27th June, 2022
Sections: 199, 203

Credit for tax deducted at source needs to be allowed even though the amount so deducted is not reflected in Form No. 26AS of the payee.

FACTS

The assessee, an individual, during the previous year relevant to the assessment year under consideration, earned rental income and offered the same for taxation under the head ‘Income from House Property’. The tenant, while paying rent, deducted TDS but did not deposit the same with the Government. The assessee claimed the amount of tax deducted by the tenant even though the same was not reflected in Form No. 26AS of the assessee. The AO , CPC did not allow credit of Rs. 5,71,770.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A), NFAC, who confirmed the action of the AO.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

On perusal of the documents produced before it, the Tribunal held that it is clear that the assessee received the rent income, and the tenant deducted TDS but has not deposited the same with the Government. The Tribunal noted that the issue is no more res integra as the Gujarat High Court, in the case of Kartik Vijaysinh Sonavane [(2021) 132 taxmann.com 293 (Guj.)], has held that where the employer of the D.S. assessee has deducted TDS, it will always be open for the Department to recover from the said employer and credit of the same could not have been denied to the assessee.

Following the judgment of the High Court of Gujarat in the case of Kartik Vijaysinh Sonavane, the Tribunal directed the AO to verify the assessee’s claim and allow credit of TDS in accordance with the law.

The Tribunal allowed the appeal filed by the assessee.

The second proviso to section 10(34) categorically states that dividends received on or after 1st April, 2020 alone would be subjected to tax. In the instant case, since the dividend was received during F.Y. 2019-20 relevant to A.Y. 2020-21, there is no case for taxing the said dividend during the year under consideration i.e. A.Y. 2020-21

49. Manmohan Textiles Ltd. vs. National Faceless
Appeal Centre
I.T.A. No. 1884/Mum. /2022 (Mum.-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2020-21
Date of order: 6th September, 2022
Sections: 10(34), 154

The second proviso to section 10(34) categorically states that dividends received on or after 1st April, 2020 alone would be subjected to tax. In the instant case, since the dividend was received during F.Y. 2019-20 relevant to A.Y. 2020-21, there is no case for taxing the said dividend during the year under consideration i.e. A.Y. 2020-21.

FACTS

The assessee filed its return of income, declaring a loss of Rs. 1,40,712. The return of income was processed, determining the total income to be Rs. 1,05,850. While processing the return, a dividend of Rs. 2,46,859 claimed to be exempt u/s 10(34) in the return of income was treated as taxable.

Aggrieved by the addition, the assessee filed a rectification application to the CPC, who dismissed the application and upheld its earlier action.

Aggrieved, the assessee filed an appeal to CIT (A). The CIT (A) observed that dividend income is not exempt and has become taxable. He upheld the action of the CPC in taxing the dividend income.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

Having gone through the provisions of section 10(34), the Tribunal noted that the same is amended by the Finance Act 2020 and is applicable from A.Y. 2021-22 onwards. It held that the second proviso is incorporated only from 1st April, 2021 and categorically states that the dividends received on or after 1st April alone will be subject to tax. The Tribunal noted that in the present case, admittedly, the dividend has been received in F.Y. 2019-20 relevant to A.Y. 2020-21 and therefore, it held that there is no case for taxing the said dividend income during the year under consideration. The Tribunal directed the AO to treat the dividend income as exempt u/s 10(34).

Enhancing the assessed book profit for the amount disallowed u/s 14A is not a mistake apparent on record, which can be rectified by passing an order u/s 154

48. Manyata Promoters Pvt. Ltd. vs. JCIT
ITA No. 548/Bang/2022 (Bang.-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2017-18
Date of order: 6th September, 2022
Sections:14A, 154

Enhancing the assessed book profit for the amount disallowed u/s 14A is not a mistake apparent on record, which can be rectified by passing an order u/s 154.

FACTS

The assessee, engaged in the business of development and lease of office space and related interiors, filed its return of income for the assessment year under consideration on 31st October, 2017. On 7th August, 2017, the National Company Law Tribunal approved the scheme of amalgamation of Pune Embassy Projects Pvt. Ltd. with the assessee company. The return of income filed by the assessee was revised on 30th March, 2018. In the revised return of income, the assessee declared a total income of RNil under the normal provisions and a book profit of Rs. 26,04,02,080 u/s 115JB of the Act.

In the course of assessment proceedings, the AO disallowed a sum of Rs. 14,49,60,000 u/s 14A and added Rs. 58,29,802 towards the difference in income as per Form No. 26AS and the financials of the assessee. The AO also denied credit of TDS of Rs. 4,02,70,802, which the assessee claimed in its return of income.

The assessee filed a rectification application requesting that credit of TDS as claimed in the return of income be granted.

In an order passed u/s 154 of the Act, pursuant to the rectification application filed by the assessee, the AO made an adjustment to book profits u/s 115JB for the amount disallowed u/s 14A of the Act. He considered this to be a mistake apparent on the record. The AO did not grant a credit for TDS as claimed by the assessee.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A), who granted relief to the assessee for adjustment made by the AO to the book profits u/s 115JB. With regards to short credit of TDS, the CIT(A) held that this did not arise out of the order passed u/s 154, which is in appeal before him and therefore dismissed the same.

Aggrieved, Revenue preferred an appeal against the action of the CIT(A) in granting relief in respect of adjustment made by the AO to the book profits u/s 115JB.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that CIT(A), while deciding the issue in favour of the assessee, has considered the issue both, from the point of view that whether an adjustment of book profits for disallowance u/s 14A is a mistake apparent on record, and also on merits by relying on the decision of the jurisdictional High Court in the case of CIT vs. Gokaldas Images Pvt. Ltd. [(2020) 122 taxmann.com 160 (Kar. HC)].

The Tribunal held that the AO cannot go beyond the profits as per the profit and loss account prepared in accordance with the Companies Act except in the manner provided in Explanation 1 to section 115JB of the Act, and therefore the action of the A.O. to make adjustment for disallowance u/s 14A to the book profits u/s 115JB is not tenable. The scope of rectification is limited to correcting errors of facts or errors of law based on material available on record. Enhancing the book profit for the amount disallowed u/s 14A is not a mistake apparent on record but is subject to interpretations and hence cannot be rectified by passing an order u/s 154 of the Act. The Tribunal held that it saw no reason to interfere with the order of C.I.T. (A).

Once a statutory provision provides explicitly that the Tribunal can only grant a stay subject to a deposit of not less than 20 per cent of the disputed demand, or furnishing of security thereof, it is not open to the Tribunal to grant a stay in violation of these basic statutory provisions.

Law itself visualizes that the payment of 20 per cent of the disputed demands, impugned in the appeal before the Tribunal, cannot be viewed as a condition precedent for grant of stay by the Tribunal, in as much as when the applicant “furnishes security of equal amount in respect thereof”, the Tribunal can exercise its powers of granting a stay.

47. Hindustan Lever Ltd. vs. DCIT
SA No. 116/Mum/2022 in ITA 2125/Mum./2022
(Mumbai-Trib.)
A.Y.: 2018-19
Date of order: 26th September, 2022
Section: 254(2A)

Once a statutory provision provides explicitly that the Tribunal can only grant a stay subject to a deposit of not less than 20 per cent of the disputed demand, or furnishing of security thereof, it is not open to the Tribunal to grant a stay in violation of these basic statutory provisions.

Law itself visualizes that the payment of 20 per cent of the disputed demands, impugned in the appeal before the Tribunal, cannot be viewed as a condition precedent for grant of stay by the Tribunal, in as much as when the applicant “furnishes security of equal amount in respect thereof”, the Tribunal can exercise its powers of granting a stay.

FACTS

By this stay application, the assessee sought a stay on the collection/recovery of the income-tax and interest demands aggregating to Rs. 172.47 crore raised by the AO in framing an assessment u/s 143(3) r.w.s. 144C(13) of the Act for the A.Y. 2018-19, which order has been impugned in an appeal before the Tribunal and out of which the assessee made not even a partial payment.

HELD

The Tribunal, after considering the decision of the Supreme Court in I.T.O. vs. M. K. Mohd. Kunhi [(1969) 71 ITR 815 (SC)], and the provisions of section 254(2A) as also the principle of harmonious construction as explained in the Principles of Statutory Interpretation by Justice G P Singh, held –

i) the Hon’ble Supreme Court’s inferring the Tribunal’s power to grant the stay, in the absence of specific statutory authority to that effect, is one thing, and the Tribunal’s dealing with a power statutorily recognised, even if implicitly, is quite another thing;

ii) once a statutory provision specifically provides that the Tribunal can only grant a stay subject to a deposit of not less than 20 per cent of the disputed demand, or furnishing of security thereof, it is not open to the Tribunal to grant a stay in violation of these basic statutory provisions;

iii) the powers of the Tribunal u/s 254(1) to grant a stay cannot be so interpreted to make the first proviso to Section 254(2A) redundant;

iv) if it is held that the Tribunal’s power of granting a stay, even after the enactment of the first proviso to Section 254(2A) remains unfettered in as much as a stay can indeed be granted even in clear disharmony with the statutory conditions set out under the first proviso to section 254(2A), the requirement with respect to the partial payment of demand or furnishing of security in relation thereof will thus be redundant;

v) the law as it stood at the point of time when Mohd. Kunhi’s judgment was delivered has undergone a significant change vis-à-vis the position prevailing as of now, and, therefore, the observations made by the Hon’ble SC are now to be read in the light of the subsequent enactment of the law;

vi) when the statute does not give the powers to the Tribunal to grant a blanket stay, nor the Hon’ble Courts above hold so, it cannot be open to the Tribunal to hold that the Tribunal can grant a blanket stay – clearly contrary to the scheme of the law as visualised under the first proviso to section 254(2A);

vii) no matter how fair, just or desirable it is to grant such a blanket stay, we have to live with this reality;

viii) an institution like this Tribunal, which is itself a creature of the Income-tax Act, 1961, has to perform its functions within the limitations that the Income-tax Act, 1961 has imposed on its functioning;

ix) law itself visualizes that the payment of 20 per cent of the disputed demands, impugned in the appeal before the Tribunal, cannot be viewed as a condition precedent for the grant of stay by the Tribunal in as much as when the applicant “furnishes security of equal amount in respect thereof”, the Tribunal can exercise its powers of granting stay; and

x) the issues of the reasonableness of the nature of security cannot be at the unfettered discretion of the AO, and it must meet judicial scrutiny as and when required.

Following the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Grasim India Ltd. Vs. DCIT [(2021) 126 taxmann.com 106 (Bom.)], the Tribunal granted a stay on collection/recovery of the disputed demand of Rs. 172.47 crore on the condition that the assessee shall provide a reasonable security for an amount of Rs. 35 crore or more, within two weeks from the date of receipt of this order.

It further held that in case the AO is not satisfied with the security offered by the assessee, the AO shall pass a detailed speaking order setting out his position on the issue and give a two-week notice to the assessee before initiating any coercive recovery proceedings. The assessee can pursue appropriate legal remedies, if so advised, against the stand of the AO.

No adjustment can be made u/s 115JB in respect of interest on income-tax refund, which as per consistent practice, was not credited to the profit & loss account but was reduced from advance income-tax paid under ‘loans and advances’

46. Reliance Industries Ltd. vs. ACIT
[2022] 143 taxmann.com 194 (Mumbai – Trib.)
A.Y.: 2016-17
Date of order: 14th October, 2022
Sections: 244A, 115JB

No adjustment can be made u/s 115JB in respect of interest on income-tax refund, which as per consistent practice, was not credited to the profit & loss account but was reduced from advance income-tax paid under ‘loans and advances’.

FACTS

For the year under consideration, the assessee, in its return, offered interest income on an income tax refund of Rs. 266,45,06,765, following the Special Bench decision in Avada Trading Company (Pvt) Ltd vs. ACIT (100 ITD 131). The interest income on the income tax refund was revised to Rs. 265,38,24,122 due to orders passed subsequently.

During the assessment proceedings, the assessee was asked to show cause as to why interest on income tax refund ought not to be added to book profit u/s 115JB of the Act. In reply, the assessee submitted that there was no certainty with the quantum of interest on income tax refund, as the assessee as well as the Department are in appeal on multiple issues before the appellate forums. Thus, no finality has been reached with respect to the assessment. Therefore, interest on the income tax refund was not credited to the profit and loss account as per the policy consistently followed by the assessee. The assessee further submitted that, once the financial statements have been prepared under the Companies Act following the accounting policies and accounting standards, the book profit needs to be computed as per the profit and loss account since the financial statements cannot thereafter be altered for making adjustments.

The AO disagreed with the submissions of the assessee and held that once the income tax refund has been issued,and the same is accounted in the books though not in the profit and loss account directly, the same ought to be considered while working out the book profits as per the provisions of section 115 JB. Accordingly, the interest on income tax refund determined at Rs. 266,45,06,765 was added, inter-alia, for the computation of book profit u/s115 JB.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A), who dismissed the appeal filed by the assessee on this issue and held that when the assessee has credited the refund, it should have been credited to the correct account and routed through the profit and loss account.

Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal contending that any adjustment to book profits can only be made in respect of items provided in Explanation 1 to Section 115JB(1) of the Act.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the amount of interest on incometax refund has been reduced by the assessee from advance income-tax shown under the head `loans and advances’. However, while filing the return of income, the said interest has been offered to tax under the normal provisions of the Act. Having noted the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. vs. CIT [(2002) 255 ITR 273 (SC)], the Tribunal held that once the assessee’s accounts have been maintained in accordance with the Companies Act, and the same have also been scrutinised and audited by the statutory auditor, in the absence of any material to negate these facts, the AO. has limited power u/s 115JB of the Act to adjust to book profit only in respect of the items provided in Explanation 1 to section 115 JB (1) of the Act.

As regards to the submission of ld. DR that the information regarding interest on income tax refund not being included in the profit and loss account has not been disclosed by the assessee in its annual accounts, and thus could not be said to be approved in the AGM or filed with the ROC and other statutory authorities, the Tribunal held that it observed no evidence being brought on record to the effect that due to such non-disclosure, the accounts of the assessee were not maintained as per the provisions of Companies Act and other relevant rules and regulations. It also noted that no such objection by the statutory auditor or ROC or other statutory authority had been brought to its notice.

The Tribunal held that there is no dispute on the fact that the assessee has offered interest on an income tax refund to tax while filing its return of income, and the same has also been assessed under the standard provisions of the Act. The Tribunal found no merit in addition to interest on income tax refund for computing the book profit u/s 115 JB of the Act. The Tribunal directed the AO to delete the same.

Stay of demand – open to the tax authorities to grant stay against recovery of demand on deposit of a lesser amount than 20 per cent of the disputed demand, pending disposal of appeal

19. Dr. B L Kapur Memorial Hospital vs. CIT (TDS)
W.P.(C) 16287 & 16288 of 2022 (Del)(HC)
Date of order: 25th November, 2022
A.Ys.: 2013-14 and 2014-15

Stay of demand – open to the tax authorities to grant stay against recovery of demand on deposit of a lesser amount than 20 per cent of the disputed demand, pending disposal of appeal

The petitioner/assessee challenged the orders dated 6th September, 2022 and 7th November, 2022, rejecting the applications filed by the petitioner and directing the petitioner to make payment to the extent of 20 per cent of the total tax demand arising u/s 201(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, for A.Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15.

The petitioner states that respondent No. 2 (AO) passed orders dated 30th March, 2021 u/s 201(1)/201(1A) of the Act holding the petitioner to be an ‘assessee-in-default’ for short deduction of tax at source and total tax liability was computed at Rs. 16,47,35,035 and Rs. 20,09,39,099 for A.Ys. 2013-14 and 2014-15, respectively. Aggrieved by the orders, the petitioner filed appeals before CIT(A) along with an application seeking stay on the recovery of demand.

The petitioner states that the respondent No. 2 (AO) passed the orders dated 6th September, 2022, whereby the stay applications filed by the petitioner were dismissed in a non-speaking manner and the petitioner was directed to pay 20 per cent of the disputed demand. The petitioner filed applications dated 20th September, 2022, before respondent No.3 for review of the stay orders dated 6th September, 2022. He, however, states that the impugned orders dated 7th November, 2022 were passed rejecting the stay applications of the petitioner without dealing with the contentions raised by the petitioner.

The petitioner further states that respondents while disposing of the petitioner’s applications have failed to appreciate that the condition under the impugned Office Memorandum dated 31st July, 2017, read with the Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016, stating that, “the assessing officer shall grant stay of demand till disposal of the first appeal on payment of twenty per cent of the disputed demand”, is merely directory in nature and not mandatory. In support, it relied on the decision of the Supreme Court in Pr. CIT vs. LG Electronics India (P) Ltd., 303 CTR 649 (SC), wherein it has been held that it is open to the tax authorities, on the facts of individual cases, to grant a stay against the recovery of demand on a deposit of a lesser amount than 20 per cent of the disputed demand, pending disposal of the appeal.

The Hon. Court observed that the requirement of payment of 20 per cent of disputed tax demand is not a pre-requisite for putting in abeyance recovery of demand pending first appeal in all cases. The said pre-condition of deposit of 20 per cent of the demand can be relaxed in appropriate cases. Even the Office Memorandum dated 29th February, 2016 gives instances like where an addition on the same issue has been deleted by the appellate authorities in the previous years or where the decision of the Supreme Court or jurisdictional High Court is in favour of the assessee. The Supreme Court in the case of PCIT vs. M/s LG Electronics India Pvt. Ltd. (supra) held that tax authorities are eligible to grant a stay on deposit of amounts lesser than 20 per cent of the disputed demand in the facts and circumstances of a case.

The Court held that, the impugned orders are nonreasoned orders. Neither the AO nor the Commissioner of Income Tax have either dealt with the contentions and submissions advanced by the petitioner nor considered the three basic principles i.e. the prima facie case, balance of convenience and irreparable injury while deciding the stay application.

Consequently, the impugned orders and notices were set aside and the matters are remanded back to the respondent No.1- Commissioner of Income Tax for fresh adjudication in the application for stay after granting a personal hearing to the petitioner. No coercive action shall be taken by the respondents against the petitioner in pursuance to the demands arising from the impugned orders.

Business expenditure – Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) – Explanation 2 was inserted in Section 37 by Finance (No.2) Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2015.

Pr. CIT – 7 vs. PEC Ltd.
ITA No. 268, 269 & 270 of 2022 (Delhi HC)
Date of order: 29th October, 2022
A.Ys.: 2013-14 to 2014-15
Section: 37 of ITA, 1961

Business expenditure – Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) – Explanation 2 was inserted in Section 37 by Finance (No.2) Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2015.

A common question of law arose for consideration in the appeals:“Whether in the facts and circumstances of the case, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal [hereafter referred to as “Tribunal”] erred in allowing deduction of expenses undertaken under the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) endeavour under Section 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 [in short “Act”]?”

The expenses incurred by the two assessees in the A.Ys. 2013-14 to 2014-15 were disallowed by the AO in each of the assessment years detailed out hereunder:

Assessment Year

Amount of CSR expenditure

2013-2014

Rs. 3,79,19,732

2014-201

Rs. 5,32,92,063

2013-2014

Rs. 6,44,00,000

The Revenue contended that the assessees could have claimed a deduction u/s 37 of the Act only if all the conditions prescribed in the said provision were fulfilled. According to Revenue, the expenditure qua which deduction is claimed was not incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of carrying on the business or profession. It was the department’s contention that the funds utilized by the assessee to effectuate its CSR obligation involved the application of income and not an expense which had been incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of carrying on business.

In support of this plea, the department relied upon the amendment in Section 37(1) by insertion of Explanation 2. It was contented that Explanation 2 appended to subsection (1) of Section 37 is clarificatory in nature and, therefore, would be applicable qua the assessment years in issue concerning each of the respondents/assessees.

The Income Tax Appellate Tribunal had relied upon Circular No.1 dated 21st January, 2015 to reach a conclusion that the amendment brought about in Section 37(1) of the Act by way of Explanation 2 would not operate vis-à-vis the assessment years in issue.

The Hon’ble High Court referred and relied on the relevant parts of Section 37(1) and observed that a plain reading of the aforesaid extract of Section 37 would show that in order to claim deduction u/s 37, the expenditure incurred should be one that:

(i) D oes not fall in any of the provisions referred to therein, i.e. Sections 30 to 36.

(ii) S hould not be in the nature of a capital expenditure or personal expenses of the assessee.

(iii) And lastly, the expenditure should have been laid out or expended wholly or exclusively for the purposes of business or profession.

According to the Hon’ble Court, if these conditions are met, the expense incurred can be deducted while computing the income chargeable under the head ‘profits and gains of business or profession’.

In the instant case, the assessee has sought to seek the deduction of amounts spent to progress its CSR obligation and sought deduction against the income chargeable under the head ‘profits and gains of business or profession’. The Tribunal has opined that Explanation 2 inserted in Section 37(1) was prospective and therefore was not applicable in the assessment years in issue. It is required to be noted, that Explanation 2 was inserted in Section 37 via Finance (No.2) Act, 2004 w.e.f. 1st April, 2015. Furthermore, the Court noticed that, the memorandum published along with Finance (No.2) Bill 2014 clearly indicated that the amendment would take effect from 1st April, 2015 and, accordingly, would apply in relation to A.Y. 2015-2016 and the subsequent years.

This was plainly evident upon perusal of the extract from the memorandum:

“The existing provisions of section 37(1) of the Act provide that deduction for any expenditure, which is not mentioned specifically in section 30 to section 36 of the Act, shall be allowed if the same is incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of carrying on business or profession. As the CSR expenditure (being an application of income) is not incurred for the purposes of carrying on business, such expenditures cannot be allowed under the existing provisions of section 37 of the Income-tax Act. Therefore, in order to provide certainty on this issue, it is proposed to clarify that for the purposes of section 37(1) any expenditure incurred by an assessee on the activities relating to corporate social responsibility referred to in section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business and hence shall not be allowed as deduction under section 37. However, the CSR expenditure which is of the nature described in section 30 to section 36 of the Act shall be allowed deduction under those sections subject to fulfilment of conditions, if any, specified therein.

This amendment will take effect from 1st April, 2015 and will,
accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2015-16 and subsequent years.”

This position was also exemplified in the circular dated 21st May, 2015 issued by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). The relevant extract of the said circular is extracted hereafter:

“13.3 The provisions of section 37(1) of the Income-tax Act provide that deduction for any expenditure, which is not mentioned specifically in section 30 to section 36 of the Income- tax Act, shall be allowed if the same is incurred wholly and exclusively for the purposes of carrying on business or profession. As the CSR expenditure (being an application of income) is not incurred for the purposes of carrying on business, such expenditures cannot be allowed under the provisions of section 37 of the Income-tax Act. Therefore, in order to provide certainty on this issue, said section 37 has been amended to clarify that for the purposes of sub-section (1) of section 37 any expenditure incurred by an assessee on the activities relating to corporate social responsibility referred to in section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 shall not be deemed to have been incurred for the purpose of business and hence shall not be allowed as deduction under said section 37. However, the CSR expenditure which is of the nature described in section 30 to section 36 of the Income-tax Act shall be allowed as deduction under those sections subject to fulfilment of conditions, if any, specified therein.

13.4 Applicability:- This amendment takes effect from 1st April, 2015 and will, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year 2015-16 and subsequent years.”

Thus, the Court observed that, if there was any doubt, the same has been removed both by the memorandum issued along with the Finance Bill, as well as the aforementioned circular issued by the CBDT.

Therefore, the contention of appellant/Revenue cannot be accepted. The appeals were accordingly disposed off.

Search and seizure — Assessment of undisclosed income — Notice u/s 153A should be based on material seized u/s 132 or documents requisitioned u/s 132A.

71. Underwater Services Co. Ltd. and Anr. vs. ACIT
[2022] 448 ITR 691 (Bom.)
A.Y.: 2012-13
Date of order: 21st October, 2021
Sections: 132, 132A and 153A of ITA, 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of undisclosed income — Notice u/s 153A should be based on material seized u/s 132 or documents requisitioned u/s 132A.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the validity of the notice dated 29th November, 2018 issued u/s 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 on the grounds that the notice has been issued without jurisdiction. The assessee-petitioner contended that there is no incriminating material in possession of the AO and any notice u/s 153A can be issued only on the basis of incriminating material discovered during the course of the search.

The Bombay High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) Although section 153A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, does not say that additions should be strictly made on the basis of evidence found in the course of the search, or other post-search material or information available with the Assessing Officer which can be related to the evidence found, it does not mean that the assessment can be arbitrary or made without any relevance or nexus with the seized material.

ii) Obviously, an assessment has to be made u/s. 153A only on the basis of seized material. Issuance of a showcause notice is the preliminary step which is required to be undertaken. The purpose of a show-cause notice is to enable a party to effectively deal with the case made out by the respondent. Section 153A provides that an assessment has to be made under the section only on the basis of the seized material, and hence the notice should mention whether the seized material was u/s. 132 or books of account, other documents or any assets requisitioned u/s. 132A.

iii) The Department did not indicate in its notice what were the seized material u/s. 132 or books of account or other documents or any assets requisitioned u/s. 132A. The notice was bereft of any material. The Department had not mentioned in the notice the basis for issuing the notice u/s. 153A so that the assessee could comply with it as prescribed. The notice issued u/s. 153A was not valid.”

Search and seizure — Assessment of undisclosed income — Meaning of “books of account” — Loose sheets and diaries do not constitute books of account — Assessment based only on evidence available in loose sheets and diaries — Not valid.

70. Sunil Kumar Sharma and Anr. vs. Dy. CIT
[2022] 448 ITR 485 (Kar.)
A.Ys.: 2012-13 to 2018-19
Date of order: 12th August, 2022
Sections: 127, 132 and 153C of ITA, 1961

Search and seizure — Assessment of undisclosed income — Meaning of “books of account” — Loose sheets and diaries do not constitute books of account — Assessment based only on evidence available in loose sheets and diaries — Not valid.

A search was conducted at the premises of the assessee and similar search also took place at premises of one R at New Delhi. During the search at the premises of R, certain diaries and entries relating to the affairs of the assessee were recovered and statements of both the assessee and R, came to be recorded. Notices were issued to the assessee u/s 153C of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

The assessee filed a writ petition and challenged the notice. The Karnataka High Court allowed the writ petition and held as under:

“i) S ection 132 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, enables seizure of books of account. “Book” ordinarily means a collection of sheets of paper or other material, blank, written, or printed, fastened or bound together so as to form a material whole. Loose sheets or scraps of paper cannot be termed ”book” for they can be easily detached and replaced. Section 34 of the Evidence Act, 1872 provides that entries in book of account, regularly kept in the course of business, are relevant whenever they refer to a matter into which the court has to inquire but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to charge any person with liability. It is established in law that a sheet of paper containing typed entries and in loose form, not shown to form part of the books of account regularly maintained by the assessee or his business entities, do not constitute material evidence.

ii) The action taken by the Department against the assessee based on the material contained in the diaries and loose sheets were contrary to the law. In that view the notices issued u/s. 153C of the Act, based on the loose sheets and diaries were contrary to law, and are required to be set aside.”