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Part C | RBI/FEMA

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Given below are the highlights of certain RBI Circulars

34] A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 22 dated 21st
October, 2015

Notification No. FEMA. 351/2015-RB dated
September 30, 2015
Annual Return on Foreign Liabilities and Assets
(FLA Return) – Reporting by Limited Liability
Partnerships

This circular states that Limited Liability Partnerships (LLP) in India that have received FDI and / or made overseas investment in the previous year(s) as well as in the current year, have to submit the FLA return to RBI by 15th July every year, in the prescribed format.

As LLP do not have 21 Digit CIN (Corporate Identity Number), they should enter ‘A99999AA9999LLP999999’ against CIN in the FLA Return.


35] A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 23 dated 29th October, 2015

No fresh permission/renewal of permission to
LOs of foreign law firms- Supreme Court’s directions

This circular states that, till the final disposal of the matter by the Honorable Supreme Court of India: –

1. Foreign law firms that have been granted permission prior to the date of interim order for opening Liaison Office (LO) in India are permitted to continue till the date such permission is still in force.

2. No fresh permission / renewal of permission will be granted by RBI / banks.



36] A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 24 dated 29th October, 2015

Notification No. FEMA. 353 /2015-RB dated October 6, 2015 Subscription to National Pension System by Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)

This circular permits NRI to subscribe to
National Pension System governed and administered by Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), provided
the subscriptions are made through normal banking channels or out of
funds held in their NRE / FCNR / NRO account and the person is eligible
to invest as per the
provisions of the PFRDA Act.

 There are no restrictions on repatriation of the annuity / accumulated
savings and hence, the annuity / accumulated saving will be repatriable.


37] A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 26 dated 5th November, 2015

Notification No FEMA.347/2015-RB dated July 24, 2015 Switching from Barter Trade to Normal Trade at the Indo-Myanmar Border

This circular provides that with effect from 1st December, 2015 all trade at the Indo-Myanmar border will be as per normal trade route i.e. payments can be settled in any permitted currency in addition to the Asian Clearing Union mechanism. As a result, no trade on the barter system basis will be permitted from 1st December, 2015.


38] A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 27 dated 5th November, 2015

Software Export – Filing of bulk SOFTEX-further liberalisation

Presently, software exporters with an annual turnover of at least Rs.1,000 crore or who file at least 600 SOFTEX forms annually on an all India basis, are eligible to declare all the off-site software exports in bulk in the form of a statement in excel format, to the competent authority for certification on monthly basis.

This circular has extended that facility to all software exporters. Hence, all software exporters can now file single as well as bulk SOFTEX form in excel format with the competent authority for certification in the SOFTEX form Annexed to this circular.

Software exporters are required to submit the SOFTEX form induplicate as per the revised procedure. STPI / SEZ will retain one copy and handover the duplicate copy to the exporters after due certification. Software exporters can generate SOFTEX form number (single as well as bulk) for use in off-site software exports from the website of RBI viz., www.rbi.org.in. In order to generate the SOFTEX number/s, an online application form Annexed to this circular has to be filled in.


39] A. P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 28 dated 5th November, 2015

Risk Management & Inter-Bank Dealings: Relaxation of facilities for residents for hedging of foreign currency borrowings

Presently, residents having a long term foreign currency liability are permitted to hedge, with a bank in India, their exchange rate and/or interest rate risk exposure by undertaking a foreign currency-INR swap to move from a foreign currency liability to a rupee liability.

This circular now permits residents to enter in to FCY-INR swaps with Multilateral or International Financial Institutions (MFI / IFI) in which the Government of India is a shareholding member subject to the following terms and conditions: –

(i) Such swap transactions must be undertaken by the MFI / IFI concerned on a back-to-back basis with a bank in India.

(ii) Banks can face, for the purpose of the swap, only those Multilateral Financial Institutions (MFIs) and International Financial Institutions (IFIs) in which Government of India is a shareholding member.

(iii) The FCY-INR swaps must have a minimum tenor of 3 years.

(iv) All other operational guidelines, terms and conditions relating to FCY-INR swaps as laid down in A.P. (DIR Series) Circular No. 32 dated 28th December, 2010, as amended from time to time, shall apply, mutatis mutandis.

(v) In case of default by the resident borrower on its swap obligations, the MFI / IFI concerned must bring in foreign currency funds to meet its corresponding liabilities to the counterparty bank in India.

(vi) Banks have to report the FCY-INR swaps transactions entered into with the MFI / IFI on a back-to-back basis on CCIL reporting platform.

Part D | ETHICS, GOVERNANCE & ACCOUNTABILITY

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A democracy can only be as strong as its institutions. A vibrant and effective democracy needs to be underpinned by strong institutional support. Unfortunately, there has been a serious and long-term undermining of institutions crucial for India’s governance. This includes governors, C & AG, public service commissions, Lok Ayuktas, election commissioners at the state and central levels, higher civil services, police, and regulatory bodies. Each of these institutions has been deliberately undermined and weakened over the years. (From the book, “GOOD GOVERNANCE” by Madhav Godbole, page 233)


RTI Clinic in December 2015: 2nd, 3rd, 4th Saturday, i.e. 12th, 19th, and 26th, 11.00 to 13.00 hrs. at BCAS premises.

CANCEROUS CORRUPTION

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NETAS UNDER SCANNER:
Ajit Pawar & Sunil Tatkare are under investigation for massive cost escalation and occupation in Kondhane, Kalu and Balganga irrigation projects.

Chhagan Bhujbal, Pankaj and Samir Bhujbal – offence registered by a CB in the m aharashtra Sadan case.

Ramesh Kadam was arrested by CID for involvement in a Rs.300 crore corruption case.

CAN YOU BELIEVE?
For the project Balganga dam at Pen Taluka, Raigad, the initial cost estimated by CIDCO was Rs.353.9 crore, contract was awarded in 2009 for Rs.414 crore and cost revised within six months to Rs.1,600 crore

In the closely-watched proceedings of the a CB since CM Devendra Fadnavis gave his nod for the open inquiry, many eyebrows had been raised, when Pawar Jr. and Tatkare were exempted from appearing before the bureau. the a CB had sent a questionnaire to the duo to secure information on the Balganga, Kondhane and Kalu projects. the cost of Kondhane increased from Rs.56 crore to Rs.614 crore, that of the Kalu jumped from Rs. 382 crore to Rs.700 crore and of the Balganga from r s. 414 crore to Rs.1,600 crore

Following the ToI expose and an application filed by thane-based RTI activist Praveen Wategaonkar on 20th August, 2014, the a CB had sought permission for the open inquiry. It was sanctioned on 12th December, 2014

CORRUPTION IN DEFENCE DEALS:
Defence procurement corruption in India has been assessed to be “high”, with a large mass of its procurements shrouded in secrecy with low levels of accountability.

As per the Global Defence Anti-Corruption Index, India’s Military spending has increased by 147% in the last decade. Accessing the Indian experience, the Index said the Indian Army was found to be illegally running golf courses on government land while Air Force officials used defence land for unauthorised use, such as building of shopping malls and cinema halls. it also says that India’s Defence institutions have been found to be involved in exploitation of natural resources. Citing an example, the report said awards for contracts by Reflex, the paramilitary force in northeast i ndia, were essentially bought through personnel for kickbacks amounting to 35% of the tender cost.

GOVT. UNSPARING IN PUNISHING THE CORRUPT: PM MODI:
Asserting that his government is unsparing in punishing the corrupt, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said 45 senior officers have either been removed or faced pension cuts for “unsatisfactory performance and delivery in public service”. He said the focus of his government was on providing system-based and policy-driven governance.

“A governance structure is sensitive, transparent and accountable,” he said. Speaking at the Sixth Global Focal Point Conference on Asset Recovery, being hosted by the CBI, the Prime Minister said corruption is one of the “principle challenges” for governments across the world in transforming the lives of the poor and marginalised.

“We in India are currently in a crucial phase of nation building. Our mission is to build a prosperous India. An India where our farmers are capable, our workers satisfied, our women empowered and our youth self- reliant.”
“This is not an impossible mission. However, to achieve this objective, it is essential to fight relentlessly against corruption,” he said.

CORRUPTION-FREE’ DIWALI:
In an unprecedented development, Maharashtra was “corruption-free” at least for a week between 9th and 15th November. The anti-corruption bureau ( ACB) was unable to trap a single public servant under the Prevention of Corruption Act during the period. By comparison, during the corresponding week in Diwali 2014, it had recorded nine cases. The joy was short-lived, though, for as soon as the new week began, on Monday and Tuesday, five public servants were caught red-handed while accepting bribes ranging from Rs.1,000 to Rs.5,000.

Canteen services are eligible input service for availment of CENVAT credit even if there is no statutory requirement of provision of food to workers in the factory

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41. 2015 (40) STR 265 (Tri. – Del.) Paramount Communication Ltd. vs. CCE, Jaipur-I.

Canteen services are eligible input service for availment of CENVAT credit even if there is no statutory requirement of provision of food to workers in the factory

Facts

CENVAT credit on outdoor catering services relating to provision of food to less than 250 factory employees is disallowed. The Larger Bench’s decision in the case of CCE vs. GTC Industries Ltd. 2008 (12) STR 468 (Tri.-LB) is not followed on the ground that the assessee was not under a statutory obligation (more than 250 workers) to provide canteen services and therefore, CENVAT credit is denied.

Held

On perusal of the Larger Bench decision in the case of GTC Industries Ltd. (supra), the following points were observed: Though the number of workers was one of the criteria for eligibility of CENVAT credit, distinction cannot be made on the basis of reasoning adopted by the Larger Bench. What has to be seen is the ratio of law and if it is applicable, CENVAT credit is allowable. In the said case, outdoor catering service is held to be eligible input service irrespective of the fact that subsidised food was provided or not or whether the cost of the food was given by the worker or by the factory. Following the decision in the case of GTC Industries Ltd. (supra) and also Karnataka High Court’s decisions in the case of CCE, Bangalore vs. Stanzen Toyotetsu India (P) Ltd. 2011 (23) STR 444 (Kar) and CCE vs. ACE Designers Ltd. (Kar) 2012 (26) STR 193 (Kar) and appellant’s own case Paramount Communication Ltd. vs. CCE 2013 (287) ELT 70 (Tri.- Del.), the appeal is allowed.

Waiver from penalty u/s. 80 shall be available if levy on service was subject to dispute and retrospective amendments are made to the provisions of law.

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40. 2015 (40) STR 280 (Tri.–Ahmd.) Sethi Tools Pvt. Ltd. vs. CCE. CUS & ST. Vadodara-II.

Waiver from penalty u/s. 80 shall be available if levy on service was subject to dispute and retrospective amendments are made to the provisions of law.

Facts

Section 80(2) of the Finance Act, 1994 prescribed nonlevy of penalty for failure to pay service tax payable on renting of immovable property as on 6th March, 2012 subject to payment of tax and interest within 6 months from enactment of Finance Bill, 2012. The appellant paid service tax belatedly but before introduction of the said section 80(2). Penalty was imposed as section 80(2) was not in existence during the period under consideration. The Appellant relied on the case Camex Reality Pvt. Ltd. vs. CST, Ahmedabad 2014 (36) STR 444 (Tri.-Ahmd), and prayed for waiver of penalty.

Held

Assessee who had already paid taxes before introduction of section 80 (2) of the Finance Act, 1994 cannot be put to a disadvantage vis-à-vis taxpayer making delayed payment on the same service at a later date. In any case, chargeability of such service was in dispute. Therefore, there was a reasonable cause for non-payment of tax which shall get covered u/s. 80 even before introduction of section 80(2) of the Act.

Intention of Rule 6(1A) of STR is to grant adjustment of excess service tax paid in advance towards forthcoming tax liability. Non furnishing of intimation for advance payment is merely a procedural lapse and denial of adjustment on this ground is not justified.

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39. 2015 (40) STR 247 (Tri. –Mumbai) Garima Associates vs. CC & CE, Chandrapur.

Intention of Rule 6(1A) of STR is to grant adjustment of excess service tax paid in advance towards forthcoming tax liability. Non furnishing of intimation for advance payment is merely a procedural lapse and denial of adjustment on this ground is not justified.

Facts

Rule 6(4A) of Service Tax Rules, 1994 as it stood then allowed adjustment for excess payment of service tax upto Rs.1,00,000/-. The appellant submitted that it was a case of advance payment of service tax covered under Rule 6(1A) of the said Rules wherein no such limit was prescribed. However, the department argued that it is covered under Rule 6(4A) of the said Rules as it was reflected so in the ST-3 return and therefore, due to procedural lapse of not furnishing requisite intimation within 15 days to jurisdictional Superintendent of Central Excise, the adjustment is denied.

Held

Excess payment is nothing but advance payment. Such excess payment and adjustment thereof is reflected in service tax returns. On scrutiny of the returns, these facts were evident. Therefore, it can be said that the appellant complied with the conditions prescribed under Rule 6(1A) of the Service Tax Rules though not scrupulously. Mere non-observance of procedure cannot be the sole reason for denial of adjustment. Intention of Rule 6(1A) is to grant adjustment of excess service tax paid in advance towards forthcoming tax liability. Denial of such adjustment would unjustly enrich Government with excess amount which cannot be the intention of law. It is no longer res integra that service tax cannot be recovered twice in respect of the same service and therefore the adjustment is allowed. [Note: It is to be noted that Rule 6(4A) of the Service Tax Rules has been amended and with effect from 1st April, 2012, there is no limit for the amount of adjustment of excess service tax paid].

Service tax is not leviable on marketing of mutual funds and bonds. The decision by Andhra Pradesh High Court has set aside CBEC circular dated 05/11/2003 clarifying that these services are Business Auxiliary Services.

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38. 2015 (40) STR 187(Tri-Del.) Comm. of Service Tax Delhi vs. ABN Amro Bank.

Service tax is not leviable on marketing of mutual funds and bonds. The decision by Andhra Pradesh High Court has set aside CBEC circular dated 05/11/2003 clarifying that these services are Business Auxiliary Services.

Facts

The appellant was engaged in business of marketing mutual fund units and were also selling bonds issued by banking and non-banking companies. The first appellate authority on the basis of the Andhra Pradesh High Court judgement in case of Karvy Securities vs. Union of India 2006 (2) STR 481 granted relief. Revenue challenged the decision before the Tribunal citing the CBEC circular dated 05/11/2003 providing that the said activity is taxable.

Held

The Tribunal upheld the order and held that services are not taxable as CBEC circular dated 05/11/2013 was struck down by the Andhra Pradesh High Court in the case of Karvy Securities (supra).

Recovery u/s. 87 of the Finance Act, 1994 can be resorted to only after an amount is adjudicated to be due to the Central Government.

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37. [2015-TIOL-2451-HC-AHM-ST] Gopala Builders vs. Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence.

Recovery u/s. 87 of the Finance Act, 1994 can be resorted to only after an amount is adjudicated to be due to the Central Government.

Facts

Search operations were carried out at the Appellant’s premises. Several irregularities were noticed in the payment of service tax. Additional amounts were paid in the course of investigation. Subsequently notices were issued u/s. 87 of the Finance Act, 1994 to their debtors with a direction that monies payable to the Appellant be deposited in the Government treasury. Thereafter a Show Cause Notice was issued. Since notices were issued to their debtors for an amount determined unilaterally without issuance of Show Cause Notice, the present writ is filed.

Held

The Hon’ble High Court relying on the decision of the Uttarakhand High Court in the case of R.V. Man Power Solution vs. Commissioner of Customs and Central Excise [2014-69-VST-528] held that recovery u/s. 87 of the Finance Act, 1994 can be resorted to only after an amount is adjudicated to be due to the Central Government. Therefore, such drastic measures adopted

Service tax paid wrongly can be claimed as CENVAT credit.

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Facts

The Assessee, a manufacturer, wrongly paid service tax on a non-taxable service and claimed CENVAT credit to that extent. The department argued that if tax was paid wrongly or in excess, the only course open was to claim refund and not to make use of CENVAT credit. The Tribunal ordered in favour of the Assessee and the department is in appeal.

Held

The High Court held that if the assessee had paid the tax that he was not liable to pay and is entitled to certain credits, the availing of the said benefit cannot be termed as illegal and accordingly dismissed the revenue appeal.

Services of restaurants, hotels, inns, guest houses or clubs with air conditioning facility are liable to service tax and Parliament is competent to levy it.

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35. 2015 (40) STR 51 (Kar) Ballal Auto Agency vs. Union of India.

Services of restaurants, hotels, inns, guest houses or clubs with air conditioning facility are liable to service tax and Parliament is competent to levy it.

Facts

The appellant is engaged in business of running hotels and restaurants. They are registered under Karnataka VAT Act, 2003 and paid regular VAT on the said transactions. It was contended that the said transaction is covered under Article 366(29A) and therefore no service tax would be leviable as it is beyond the powers of the Parliament and the State Government is authorised to tax this transaction. Further, the Parliament has no legislative competence to amend the Finance Act, 1994 to include restaurant services in taxable services. The Respondent argued that service tax is leviable under entry 97, which deals with matters not enumerated in List II and III, which derives its power from Article 248.

Held

The High Court confirmed the legislative competence of Union by placing relevance on “aspects theory” whereby the same transaction can have two taxable events of different nature. Under this theory, the taxes are imposed by two different statutes for two different reasons. Therefore, in transactions of composite nature like restaurant service, both legislatures have power to tax it and not solely the State Government. Relying also on Bombay High Court’s decision in case of India Hotel and Restaurants Association, it is held that service tax is leviable on such transaction.

The main objective of Rule 6 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 is to ensure that CENVAT credit is not availed in respect of inputs or input services used in or in relation to exempted goods or for exempted services. Rule 6(3) (ii) of the said Rules providing for payment of 5% on exempted services does not apply automatically, if the assessee fails to opt either of the options with respect to reversal of CENVAT credit.

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42. 2015 (40) STR 381(Tri. – Mumbai) Mercedes Benz India (P) Ltd. vs. CCE, Pune-I.

The main objective of Rule 6 of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004 is to ensure that CENVAT credit is not availed in respect of inputs or input services used in or in relation to exempted goods or for exempted services. Rule 6(3) (ii) of the said Rules providing for payment of 5% on exempted services does not apply automatically, if the assessee fails to opt either of the options with respect to reversal of CENVAT credit.

Facts

The appellant is engaged in manufacturing activities as well as trading activities (considered as exempt service with effect from 1st April, 2011). In March, 2012, the appellant filed an intimation with respect to their reversal of CENVAT credit along with interest on common input services under Rule 6(3A)(b) of CENVAT Credit Rules for Financial Year 2011-2012. The appellant neither maintained separate records for receipt and consumption of common input services nor availed CENVAT credit only to the extent of taxable activities. The Department denied availment of such option in view of non-observance of conditions of Rule 6(3A) read with Rule 6(3)(ii) on the grounds that intimation for availment of option under Rule 6(3A) was not conveyed giving respective particulars and the amount was not determined and paid provisionally every month. Consequently, huge demand equivalent to 5% of value of exempted services i.e. trading turnover along with interest and penalty was raised in terms of Rule 6(3) (i) of CENVAT Credit Rules. The demand was confirmed on the sole ground of non-observance of conditions provided under the said Rule 6(3A). Since there was no condition of intimation at the beginning of financial year, the appellant stated that they had legally opted to reverse CENVAT credit vide Rule 6(3A). Further, it was contended that manufacturer has to mention the date from which such option is exercised or proposed to be exercised. Therefore, the intention to grant benefit of such option was at the discretion of assessee. The intimation could be filed even after exercising such option. Further, the amount to be paid every month was on provisional basis and the final amount of reversal of CENVAT credit has to be made only before 30th June of next year. Therefore, none of the conditions were violated. Though intimation was not provided in the prescribed format, all the requisite information, directly or indirectly, were either furnished or available with the department. In any case, there was no provision in law that if the procedure as provided under Rule 6(3A) was not followed, automatically Rule 6(3) (i) would apply in such cases. Reliance was placed on the decision of the same Jurisdictional Commissioner in the case of Tata Technologies Ltd., wherein on identical facts, demand was dropped and no appeal was made thereafter.

Held

There are 3 options available to the appellants vide Rule 6(3) of the Rules for reversal of CENVAT credit of common input services used in manufacturing as well as exempted services i.e. trading of goods and they were free to choose any option. Department cannot insist upon the appellants to follow one particular option. The foremost condition of payment of amount vide a formula was fulfilled though belatedly with interest. More or less all the particulars were intimated to department vide returns and letters, though not vide intimation in prescribed format. Though there is no time limit for filing intimation, the appellant should file intimation before exercising the option. Nonetheless, it can be considered a procedural lapse. F.Y. 2011-12 was the initial period for trading being condoned as exempted service. Admittedly, Rule 6(3)(i) of the Rules does not apply automatically if the assessee does not opt for any option available under the said Rules, Rule 6 is not enacted to extract illegal amount from the assessee. Its main objective is to ensure that CENVAT credit is not availed in respect of inputs or input services used in or in relation to exempted goods or for exempted services. The demand was accordingly quashed.

If service receiver has paid service tax to service provider, CENVAT credit can be availed by service receiver even prior to registration obtained by service provider.

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43. 2015 (40) STR 288 (Tri. –Bang) Adecco Flexione Workforce Solutions Ltd. vs. CCE, Bangalore – LTU.

If service receiver has paid service tax to service provider, CENVAT credit can be availed by service receiver even prior to registration obtained by service provider.

Facts

CENVAT credit is denied on the ground that the service provider had taken registration subsequent to availment of CENVAT credit by service receiver.Therefore, the CENVAT credit would not be available to service receiver. Accordingly, CENVAT credit of trivial amount was denied in absence of registration number on invoices.

Held

If the assessee has paid service tax to service provider, CENVAT credit is available to service receiver without finding whether service tax paid by him to service provider stands deposited in the Government treasury. Verification of the fact of payment of service tax by service provider is impossible and impractical at service receiver’s end. Even if the revenue is of the view that service tax collected by service provider is not deposited by him, remedy is available with the department to take appropriate action against service provider and not service receiver. In the present case, the revenue did not even verify the fact of non-payment by service provider. Therefore, it was held that the appellant had rightly availed CENVAT credit.

Welcome move on Bankruptcy Code – But why not have a US Chapter 11-equivalent in the bankruptcy code?

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The draft new bankruptcy code displayed on the website of the finance ministry is a welcome move. However, it lacks provisions equivalent to those of Chapter 11 of the u S bankruptcy law, which allow a voluntary appeal by a debtor to be given a chance for a turnaround that the bankruptcy court can grant, if the court finds it feasible, regardless of the creditors’ verdict.

The proposed law calls for a new breed of professionals in i ndia, who, it imagines, will be better placed to run a troubled company than its failed managers. Corporate salvage as in Satyam was done by professional managers, not any specialised cadre of insolvency professionals. i t is not obvious that every company will gain by the failed management being booted out and replaced with professional managers.

A key provision is a limited window of opportunity: 180/270 days, failing which the company is liquidated. This makes eminent sense as an indefinite respite, allowed now in i ndian laws, leads to misuse. t he draft Bill sets a clear process to identify financial distress early on and prescribes swift resolution. a majority of 75% of voting share of the financial creditors must approve the plan.

The final decision to accept or reject the insolvency resolution plan rests with the adjudicating authority: d ebt r ecovery t ribunals for individuals and unlimited liability partnership firms, and the National Company Law t ribunal for companies and limited liabilities. t he Bill allows only individuals to financially start afresh, but expeditious order of discharge to creditors will also facilitate fresh start for companies.

The national Company Law tribunal, that will replace the BIFR , will speed up winding up companies and ease the burden on high courts. t he government should remove the legal hurdles in the way of operationalisation of the tribunal, and set up benches fast. a functional legal system is an imperative necessity for the bankruptcy code to work. t he courts should not accept every petition challenging the order of an appellate authority, and make its ruling redundant.

Smart gadgets ke side effects mean they need constant updates – Tech-22 conundrum

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In a world where handheld smart devices are ubiquitous and life without them is unimaginable, one is wont to overlook the health-related side effects of such technology. Smartphones, tablets and e-readers increasingly come with bluer and brighter screens that impact the body’s ability to produce sleep inducing hormones. i n other words, if you are one of those people who surf on their smart devices late into the night, unable to get a wink of sleep, you may have your favourite toy to blame. But fear not 21st century insomniacs, help is at hand. a ll that one needs to get a good night’s sleep is for a ‘bed mode’ to be built into your smart devices.

This would simply involve making sure that smartphones and tablets shift from blue and green light emissions to yellow and red. t his in turn would ensure that one’s body is able to produce the natural amount of melatonin to bring on the sweet release of sleep. But isn’t technology supposed to make our lives easier rather than raise anxiety about health issues? too much typing on your smartphone can give you text claw. excessive exposure to Wi-Fi through devices such as laptops can lower men’s chances of becoming fathers. and social media addiction can actually make you more lonely and sad.

That said, it’s ridiculous to suggest that the tech genie be put back into the bottle. The solution to tech side- effects may be more tech. With concepts such as internet of t hings, our lives and physical surroundings are set to get increasingly wired. move over, smartphone – we could soon be living in houses that are fully automated, from smart bathroom showers to beds that hook into our sleeping patterns to maximise quality of life. however, such tech needs to be safe, necessitating constant evolution of smart devices. a nd that’s the t ech-22 situation we face.

Tax Consequences of Interest Payments on Perpetual Debt

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A debt which does not contain a contractual obligation to pay to the holder of the instrument both the principal and interest amount is known as perpetual debt. That does not mean that the issuer will not redeem the debt or pay interest on it. Generally, the instrument will contain an economic compulsion so that the issuer will be compelled to redeem the debt and pay interest, such as step up of interest rates on the instrument, liquidation of the issuer company, dividend blocker, etc. In accordance with Ind AS 32, such a debt is not a liability but is classified as an equity instrument. The interest paid on such a debt is treated as a distribution to equity holders.

Interestingly, from the Income-tax Act perspective, certain tax advisors argue that perpetual bonds are issued as bonds and hence result in a debtor-creditor relationship. Merely classifying them as ‘equity’ in the financial statements and showing interest payments in a manner similar to dividend to equity holders should not deprive the company of claiming these interest payments for tax deduction. This article assumes that interest payments on perpetual bonds are deductible under the Income-tax Act.

Query
Under Ind AS 12 Income Taxes, should the tax deduction on interest payments be recognised in profit or loss, or directly in equity of the issuer company?

View 1
Paragraph 35 of Ind AS 32 Financial Instruments: Presentation requires that distributions to holders of an equity instrument and transaction costs of equity transactions should be recognised directly in equity. Consequently, the interest payments on, and the costs of issuing, financial instruments themselves are recognised directly in equity. Paragraph 57 of Ind AS 12 requires that presentation of income tax consequences should be consistent with the presentation of the transactions and events themselves that give rise to those income tax consequences.

View 2
Paragraph 52B of Ind AS 12 provides more guidance on the presentation of the income tax consequences of dividends, which requires those income tax consequences to be recognised in profit or loss.

The following example deals with the measurement of current and deferred tax assets and liabilities for an entity in a jurisdiction where income taxes are payable at a higher rate on undistributed profits (50%) with an amount being refundable when profits are distributed. The tax rate on distributed profits is 35%. At the end of the reporting period, 31st December 20X1, the entity does not recognise a liability for dividends proposed or declared after the reporting period. As a result, no dividends are recognised in the year 20X1. Taxable income for 20X1 is Rs. 100,000. The net taxable temporary difference for the year 20X1 is Rs.40,000.

The entity recognises a current tax liability and a current income tax expense of Rs.50,000. No asset is recognised for the amount potentially recoverable as a result of future dividends. The entity also recognises a deferred tax liability and deferred tax expense of Rs.20,000 (Rs. 40,000 at 50%) representing the income taxes that the entity will pay when it recovers or settles the carrying amounts of its assets and liabilities based on the tax rate applicable to undistributed profits.

Subsequently, on 15th March 20X2, the entity recognises dividends of Rs.10,000 from previous operating profits as a liability. On 15th March 20X2, the entity recognises the recovery of income taxes of Rs.1,500 (15% of the dividends recognised as a liability) as a current tax asset and as a reduction of current income tax expense for 20X2.

Author’s View

View 1 is the preferred view. With respect to income tax consequences of interest payments on financial instruments that are classified as equity, it is important to understand whether those income tax consequences are linked to past transactions or events that were recognised in profit or loss. This is because, in accordance with paragraph 52B of Ind AS 12, the rationale for the accounting requirement in example above is because income tax consequences of dividends are more directly linked to past transactions or events than to distributions to owners.

Income tax consequences arising from interest payments on financial instruments that are classified as equity would not be linked to past transactions or events that were recognised in profit or loss, because:

(a) these interest payments that trigger a tax deduction could be made, irrespective of the existence of retained earnings; and
(b) income tax consequences arising from these interest payments cannot be associated with anything other than the interest payments themselves, because it is these interest payments that create a tax deduction.

Consequently, View 2 is not preferred. However, a plain technical reading of Ind AS 12 does allow the recognition of the tax credit in the P&L account. Without the amendment of Ind AS 12, View 2 should also be acceptable. The view selected should be applied consistently.

Appellate Tribunal – Natural Justice – Relying on post hearing decision, not permissible – Central Excise Act, 1944 Section 35C.

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Garden Silk Mills Ltd. vs. UOI [2015 (323) ELT 717 (Guj.)(HC)]

The Commissioner, Central Excise, Customs and Service Tax, Surat-I, by his Order dated 28.9.2012, disallowed certain Cenvat Credits claimed by the petitioner company.
The said decision was challenged by the petitioner by way of filing an appeal before the Customs, Excise and Service Tax Appellate Tribunal, at Ahmedabad. The
matter was heard on 26.08.2014, however, the same was decided by order dated 27.11.2014. By the said order, the Tribunal remanded the matter on the basis of its own
decision dated 27.10. 2014 with regard to other group of appeals.

The petitioners, submitted that, though, the matter was heard on 26.8.2014, the decision has been rendered after about three months. The petitioner was not aware about
the order dated 27.10.2014 passed by the Tribunal itself which has been relied at the time of remanding the matter. He could submit that the case of the petitioner is different than the case decided by the Tribunal on 27/10/2014. The petitioner had no opportunity to make any submission with regard to the decision relied on by the Tribunal and, therefore, it is a breach of principle of natural justice.

The Hon’ble Court observed that it is an undisputed fact that the appeal preferred by the petitioner was finally heard on 26.8.2014 and the same is decided on 27.11.2014. If the impugned judgment and order is perused, it emerges that the Tribunal has relied upon its own decision dated 27.10.2014. It is equally true that the petitioner had no opportunity to plead their case before the Tribunal whether his case was covered as per the Tribunal’s decision dated 27.7.2014 or not. Therefore, the Appellate Tribunal ought to have given an opportunity of hearing to the petitioner before deciding the matter when the Tribunal had relied on its subsequent decision. Hence, the Court directed the Tribunal to decide the appeal after affording opportunity of hearing to the petitioner.

[2015] 62 taxmann.com 318 (Hyderabad – Trib.) St. Jude Medical India (P) Ltd vs. DCIT A.Y.: 2009-10, Date of Order: 18-9-2015

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Section 92C, the Act – TPO cannot reject method consistently adopted by the taxpayer in past years for determination of ALP (which was not disputed by the tax authority) and apply another method without providing detailed reasons.

Facts
The taxpayer was engaged in the business of trading of medical devices. It had entered into international transactions with its AE for purchase of certain medical devices from its AE. The taxpayer was selling these devices in India to non-related parties. In its TP study, for determination of the ALP the taxpayer had adopted RPM and had adopted 4 companies as comparable companies.

According to the TPO RPM could be applied only where: the products were closely comparable; and where enterprise purchases a property or services from AE and then resells the same to unrelated enterprises. Further, one should ascertain the functions performed by the tested party before it resold the property or the services and also the cost incurred for performing these functions. Therefore, the TPO considered TNMM as more appropriate method in case of the taxpayer and proceeded to determine ALP accordingly.

Held
The taxpayer had been purchasing medical devices from its AEs even in the earlier years. This is evident from order of Tribunal in earlier year where tax authority has not disputed the method adopted by the taxpayer during its TP study.

Hence, there is no reason to dispute the same method during the relevant year. the order of the TPO merely reproduces the parameters to be taken into consideration for adopting the RPM for comparability analysis, but does not give detailed reasoning as to why the said method is not applicable.

Further, the TPO has not brought on record any evidence to support why the products sold by the comparable companies are not similar to the products sold by the taxpayer.

If the TPO desires to reject the method consistently being followed by the taxpayer and desires to adopt a different method, he is required to give his reasoning which he failed to provide in the present case.

Accordingly, the issue was remanded to the TPO for determination of the most appropriate method for determination of the ALP with directions that if he finds the RPM as the most appropriate method, then he shall also take into consideration the comparable companies selected by the taxpayer in addition to the companies selected by him for determination of the ALP.

Hindu Succession – Hindu female dying intestate – Her step son falls in category of heirs of husband – Hindu Succession Act 1956. Section 15(10)(b).

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S. A. Ramalingam vs. Elumalai AIR 2015 Madras 235

The suit was filed by the respondent/plaintiff for declaration of his right, title and interest in respect of and recovery of the suit items, which admittedly belonged to one Sampoornammal, who was none other than the stepmother of the plaintiff.

The facts that Sampoornammal, who was the senior wife of Ramasamy Padaiyachi, was the original owner of the property and during the subsistence of the first marriage, Ramasamy Padaiyachi married one Rajammal as his second wife. Rajammal gave birth to the plaintiff through Ramasamy Padaiyachi. Shri Ramasamy Padaiyachi predeceased the senior and junior wives and the senior and junior wives also died thereafter and after their death, the defendant (son of one of the paternal uncles of Sampoornammal – senior wife) has been in possession and enjoyment of the suit properties.

The dispute in respect of the suit items arose between the plaintiff/step-son of  Sampoornammal and the defendant,.

The Hon’ble Court observed that the relationship between the parties was not disputed. The plaintiff being the step son of the owner falls in the category of the heir of the husband as referred to in clause (b) of section 15(1) and will come as legal heir of female dying intestate.

The Hon’ble Apex Court in the decision reported in (1987) 2 SCC 547 (Lachman Singh vs. Kirpa Singh and others) has categorically laid down that the in the case of a female Hindu dying intestate, a step son, that is, the son of her husband by his another wife falls in the category of the heirs of the husband referred to in clause (b) of section 15(1) and will come in as her heir. That being the legal position, both the courts below by relying on the law so laid down by the Apex court, rightly held that the plaintiff being step son of Sampoornammal, under clause 15(1) (b) of the Hindu Succession Act, was entitled to succeed to her property, in the absence of other legal heirs and the denial of his right, title and interest by the defendant insofar as the suit items are concerned, is hence legally not sustainable. When the plaintiff is held to be entitled to the suit items, the possession of the suit items by the defendant without any right would amount to trespass and encroachment. Though the defendant sought to set up title on the strength of release deed executed by the plaintiff’s mother for her herself and on behalf of the plaintiff, who was the erstwhile minor son, the same for want of any right to do so by Rajammal and for want of registration was held to be not valid a document. When release deed is held to be invalid, the question of taking steps to set aside the same for the purpose of establishing the right of the plaintiff did not at all arise.

Part C | Information On & Around

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Att ack on RTI activist in Latur:

The entire episode of this attack was recorded on cell and
the video was circulated widely. When on my cell, I went
through it for nearly 40 minutes. Tears flowed from my
eyes. What inhuman activities by Shiv-Sena workers. (If
any one desires to view the video, call me on 9821096052,
I shall forward it).

A Right to Information (RTI ) activist from Latur, Mallikarjun Bhaikkatti, was brutally beaten and his face blackened allegedly by Shiv Sena activists on the premises of a college in the district in front of over 2,000 students, teachers, staff and onlookers. The activist had sought information through RTI queries, about unauthorised construction activity.

Sena youth wing president Aditya Thackeray said that those responsible for thrashing Bhaikkatti had been dismissed by the party. “Heard of the unfortunate incident in Latur. The party strongly condemns the disgraceful act. Those involved have been moved from the party,” he tweeted.

Senior member of the institution which runs the college, Shivaji Bhosle, has been arrested and the police have launched a manhunt for around 25 Sena activists.

Bhaikkatti told TOI , “A group of people with saffron scarves waiting in an SUV with a Shiv Sena emblem assaulted me. They dragged me into their car where they beat me, snatched my phone, and brought me to Shahu junior college campus. They kicked and showered blows on me while some assaulted me with belts and iron rods. They poured wangan lubricant on me.”

District Police Chief Dnyaneshwar Chavan told TOI that they have photos of the incident and are trying to zero in on the culprits based on the pictures.

RTI activist receives 32kg of ‘replies’:

An RTI activist, who was denied information by panchayat officials for his queries under the Right to Information Act, finally received 32 kilos of papers as replies after waiting for eight months.

Daniel Jesudas had requested information on the expenditure and details of work sanctioned by the executive officer of Vellalore town panchayat for a period of six months from August 2014 to February 2015.

He finally received the reply, costing the government more than Rs.11,000. As per the courier slip, courier charges alone were Rs.1,130 and the weight of the bundle was 32 kilos. “The panchayat officials told me they spent over Rs.9,000 just on photo copies,” he said.

3 RTI Activists sad story:

Three RTI activists were arrested in the last week of September on the charge of running an extortion racket targeting builders. The Mulund police said that Laxminarayan Shetty, Pankaj Chandanshive and Anil Mhaske had demanded Rs.2 lakh from a developer for not filing complaints with various government departments.
The developer, Sanjay Gharat, had planned to refurbish an old house with the help of his relative. In January, Shetty allegedly met him and sought Rs.1 lakh for not blocking the repairs by filing a complaint with the local BMC ward office.

According to the First information report (FIR), Gharat paid Rs.50,000. But a few months later, Chandanshive again approached Gharat and demanded Rs.1 lakh. The developer paid Rs.10,000.

Earlier this month, Mhaske allegedly tried to extract more money by saying that Shetty and Chandanshive were part of this group.

This time, Gharat alerted the Mulund police, who arrested the three men. Cops sought their remand for seven days, saying they wanted to find out if the trio was part of a bigger extortion ring that targeted builders. The court granted the request.

Shetty and Chandanshive have two previous criminal cases pending against them.

Part B | RTI Act, 2005

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Maharashtra Chief Information Commissioner Mr. Ratnakar Gaikwad has said:

Ten years after the Act was enacted, Gaikwad said the public authorities still do not think it necessary to put out all information, though section 4 of the RTI Act requires it. On the performance of information commissioners in Maharashtra, Gaikwad said there were two aspects:

Quantitative and qualitative. “In the last decade, around 44 lakh RTI queries were received across the state and 99% disposed of. Of the 1.54 lakh queries that have gone into appeal, 1.2 lakh have been disposed of. As on September 30, around 30,000 are pending,” he said.

The state information commissioner also wants a provision to be introduced in the Act to punish those who use it for blackmail. “Such persons must be blacklisted,” he said, adding that there must be a limit on the number of RTIs a person can file before the same PIO in a month.

Part A | Decision of CIC

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Whether PIO can file a Writ against order of the appellate authority – CIC:

The petitioner is the Public Information Officer, Syndicate Bank Regional Office at Mugulrajapuram, Vijayawada, under the Right to Information Act, 2005 (for short ‘the Act’).

The AP High Court held:
This court is of the opinion that the Writ Petition, filed by the Public Information Officer, is not maintainable because even though he is an employee, he is designated as Public Information Officer, who is charged with the duty of dealing with the requests of persons seeking information and render reasonable assistance to such persons. U/s. 7 of the Act, the Public Information Officer shall dispose of the requests received by him either by providing information on payment of the prescribed fee or by rejecting the request for any of the reasons specified in sections 8 and 9 of the Act. A person, who does not receive a decision within the time specified under sub-section 1 of section 7 of the Act or is aggrieved by the decision of the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer, is entitled to file an appeal to such Officer, who is senior in rank of the Central Public Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer. A second appeal against such decision shall lie to the Central Information Commission or the State Information Commission as the case may be.

The scheme of the Act, discussed above would reveal that every Public Information Officer nominated as such under the Act has a dual role to play viz. as an officer of the Public Authority and also the Public Information Officer. While such Officer is loyal to his employer while acting in his role as the Officer, he acts as a quasijudicial authority while disposing of the request made for furnishing information. His orders are subject to further appeals. Therefore, in the opinion of this Court, the Public Information Officer cannot don the role of the Officer of the Public Authority in relation to the orders passed by the appellate authorities against the orders passed by him. If his order is reversed by the appellate authority, he cannot be treated as aggrieved party giving rise to a cause of action for him to question such Orders. It is only either the public authority, against whom the directions are given, or any other party, who feels aggrieved by such directions, that can question the orders passed by the appellate authorities. As such, the Public Information Officer, who filed this Writ Petition, is wholly incompetent to question the order of the appellate authority and the Writ Petition filed by him is not maintainable.

Even on merits, this Court has no hesitation to hold that the information sought for by respondent No. 2 does not fall within the exempted category u/s. 8 (1) (h) of the Act because that information, which respondent No. 2 has sought, relates to pending proceedings before the Debt Recovery Tribunal. However, what is exempted u/s. 8 (1) (h) is information, which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of respondent of offenders. It is not the pleaded case of the Bank that any investigation or apprehension or prosecution of respondent No. 2 will be impeded by furnishing information sought for by him. Even if the information relates to a pending dispute before a Court or Tribunal, that would not fall u/s. 8 (1) (h) of the Act.

For the above-mentioned reasons, the Writ Petition is dismissed.

[PIO, Syndicate Bank, Regional Office, Mugulrajapuram, Vijaywada vs. Central Information Commission: Writ Petition No. 28785 of 2011 before the Hon’ble Sri Justice C V. Nagarjuna Reddy]

States abusing law – Time to reform colonial-era sedition law to prevent misuse

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The Tamil Nadu police arrested the folk singer S. Kovan on charges of sedition. The 52-year old Mr. Kovan had recorded hard-hitting songs pointing a finger at the chief minister of Tamil Nadu, J. Jayalalithaa – and her government, of the all India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazagham or AIADMK – of profiting from the sale of liquor in the state’s chain of alcohol shops under the Tamil Nadu State Marketing Corporation, or TASMAC. There are about 6,800 state-run alcohol shops in Tamil Nadu, and TASMAC earned just under Rs. 24,000 crore a year in 2013-14. Mr. Kovan, an outspoken Dalit rights activist, has sympathised with other hot-button issues before the prohibition movement, but his songs on alcohol attacking Ms. Jayalalithaa have touched a particular nerve, with his supporters saying they have been seen over 400,000 times on You Tube. it is, however, entirely questionable as to whether they constitute sedition.

Proviso to section 3 and section 37(1) – Business is set-up on recruitment of employees and all expenditure incurred thereafter are allowable as business expenditure.

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5. Reliance Gems & Jewels Ltd. vs. DCIT
ITAT “D” Bench, Mumbai
Before N.K. Billaiya (A M) and Amarjit Singh (J. M.)
I.T.A. No.3855/Mum/2013
A. Y. : 2008-09. Date of Order: 28.10.2015
Counsel for Assessee / Revenue: F.V. Irani / Vivek Anand Ojha

Proviso to section 3 and section 37(1) – Business is set-up on recruitment of employees and all expenditure incurred thereafter are allowable as business expenditure.

FACTS

The assessee is in the business of trading and merchandising of diamonds and gold jewelleries. Return for the year was filed disclosing loss of Rs. 87.26 lakh. On perusal of the annual account, the Assessing Officer found that the assessee had not started its business therefore the entire expenditures were disallowed. The assessee carried the matter before the CIT(A) who upheld the order of the AO. Before the Tribunal, the assessee placed before it the details of employee-wise salaries alongwith job description and details of tax deducted at source as well as the details regarding other expenses. The assessee further submitted that the setting up of business is different from commencement of business and the expenditures are allowable on setting up of business. It also relied on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Omniglobe Information Tech India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT (Income Tax appeal No. 257 of 2012). The Revenue strongly relied on the orders of the lower authorities and contended that the decision relied upon by the assessee relates to service industries and therefore same cannot be applied on the facts of the assessee’s case.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the assessee had recruited the employees for the purpose of its business. According to the Tribunal, the type of business the assessee was engaged in, require persons who have expertise in understanding the jewellery, and without such recruitment, it would not be possible to commence the business. It also referred to the proviso to section 3 of the Act, which defines the term “previous year” in relation to a newly setup business (and not with reference to the commencement of business), thus as contended by the assessee, the setting up of business was more relevant than the date of commencement of business.

Therefore, relying on the decision of the Delhi High Court in the case of Omniglobe Information Tech India Pvt. Ltd., the Tribunal held that the recruitment of employees was indicative that business was set up by the assessee. Accordingly, the appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 10A – Unless the initial years claim is withdrawn, subsequent years claim cannot be denied.

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4. ACIT vs. Sitara Diamond Pvt. Ltd.
ITAT Mumbai `E’ Bench
Before N. K. Billaiya (AM) and Ram Lal Negi (JM)
ITA Nos. 4422/Mum/2012 and 6727/Mum/2011
A. Y.s: 2006-07 and 2007-08.  
Date of Order: 2.09. 2015.
Counsel for revenue / assessee: S. K. Mahapatra / Nitesh Joshi

Section 10A – Unless the initial years claim is withdrawn, subsequent years claim cannot be denied.

FACTS

Deduction u/s. 10A was first made by the assessee in assessment year 2005-06, which was allowed by the order dated 10.12.2008 passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. For the assessment years 2006-07 and 2007-08, the Assessing Officer (AO) denied claim for deduction u/s. 10A. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who allowed the claim of the assessee on merits. Aggrieved, the revenue preferred an appeal to the Tribunal where on behalf of the assessee it was argued that while the CIT(A) has allowed the appeal on merits, the Revenue could not withdraw the claim of deduction since unless the initial years claim is withdrawn, subsequent years claim cannot be denied.

HELD

The Hon’ble High Court of Bombay has considered such issue in the case of CIT vs. Paul Brothers 216 ITR 548 wherein the Hon’ble High Court has held that “unless deductions allowed for the assessment year 1980-81 on the same grounds were withdrawn, they could not be denied for the subsequent years”. This decision of the Hon’ble High Court of Bombay was followed by the Hon’ble high Court in the case of CIT vs. Western Outdoor Interactive Pvt. Ltd. 349 ITR 309 wherein the Hon’ble High Court has held that “where a benefit of deduction is available for a particular number of years on satisfaction of certain conditions under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961, then unless relief granted for the first assessment year in which the claim was made and accepted is withdrawn or set aside, the Incometax Officer cannot withdraw the relief for subsequent years. More particularly so, when the Revenue has not even suggested that there was any change in the facts warranting a different view for subsequent years.”

Following the ratio laid down by the High Court, the Tribunal declined to interfere with the order of CIT(A). The appeals filed by the Revenue were dismissed.

Section 88E – STT paid on speculation loss has to be considered if after setting off the speculation loss against speculation gain there is positive income which has been included in the computation of total income.

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3. Sanjay Mohanlal Mota (HUF) vs. ITO
ITAT Mumbai `E’ Bench
Before N. K. Billaiya (AM) and Ram Lal Negi (JM)
ITA No. 2988/Mum/2013
A. Y. : 2007-08.                                    
Date of Order: 3. 09. 2015.
Counsel for assessee / revenue : Jitendra Singh / S. K. Mahapatra

Section 88E – STT paid on speculation loss has to be considered if after setting off the speculation loss against speculation gain there is positive income which has been included in the computation of total income.

FACTS

The assessee was trading in shares and stocks and
also derived dividend income, interest income and rent which were
assessed under the head Income from Other Sources. While assessing the
total income, the Assessing Officer (AO) noticed that the loss in
respect of speculative transaction, though assessed, was carried forward
and did not form part of total income. He asked the assessee to show
cause why proportionate STT of Rs.1,79,722 should not be treated as STT
relating to speculative transactions and therefore, why this amount
should not be reduced from the total STT paid. The assessee filed a
detailed reply where it contended that when speculation income is taxed
there is no reason its claim should not be allowed when there is a
speculation loss. It was also contended that there is no provision for
bifurcating STT paid on each type of transaction. The AO rejected the
contentions of the assessee and disallowed the proportionate claim of
STT of Rs.1,79,722. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the
CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO. Aggrieved, by the order
passed by CIT(A), the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

Held

A
perusal of the section 88E shows that the total income of the assessee
should include income chargeable under the head `profits and gains of
business or profession’ which arises from taxable securities
transactions. If this condition is fulfilled, then the assessee is
entitled to a deduction from the amount of income-tax on such income of
an amount equal to STT paid by him. Since the speculation loss is set
off against the speculation gain and thereafter if any positive income
remains that positive income is taken in the computation of total
income. Even the STT paid on speculation loss has to be considered while
giving effect to it. The Tribunal restored the issue to the file of the
AO with a direction to examine whether there is any positive income
remaining after giving set off to the speculation loss. The AO was
directed to allow the claim if positive income is found under this head
after giving reasonable and sufficient opportunity of being heard to the
assessee. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed for statistical
purposes.

Sections 22, 56 – Rent received for renting of terrace for installation of mobile antennas is chargeable to tax under the head `Income from House Property’. It is wholly irrelevant as to whether the antenna is part of the building or land appurtenant thereto. As long as the space which has been rented out is part of the building the rent is required to be treated as `income from house property’.

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11. [2015] 168 TTJ (Trib) 502 (Del)
Manpreet Singh vs. ITO
ITA No. 3976/Del/2013
Assessment Year: 2009-10.                   
Date of Order: 6.01.2015

Sections 22, 56 – Rent received for renting of terrace for installation of mobile antennas is chargeable to tax under the head `Income from House Property’. It is wholly irrelevant as to whether the antenna is part of the building or land appurtenant thereto. As long as the space which has been rented out is part of the building the rent is required to be treated as `income from house property’.

FACTS

In the return of income filed by the assessee, an individual, amounts aggregating to Rs.2,91,723 received from Bharati Airtel and Idea Cellular Limited towards renting out its terrace for use by these companies for installing mobile antennas were offered for taxation under the head `Income from House Property’. The assessee had claimed deduction @ 30% u/s. 24(a) of the Act. In the course of assessment proceedings, the Assessing Officer (AO) considered this sum of Rs.2,91,723 to be chargeable to tax under the head `Income from Other Sources’. He denied deduction of Rs.87,516 claimed u/s. 24(a) and added back this sum to the total income. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to CIT(A) who confirmed the action of the AO by relying on the decision of Calcutta High Court in the case of Mukherjee Estate (P.) Ltd. vs. CIT 161 CTR 470 (Cal). Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that under the terms of the leave and license agreement entered into by the assessee rent was for use of “roof and terrace” area (not more than 900 sq. ft. in case of Bharti Airtel and not more than 800 sq. ft. in case of Idea Cellular Ltd.). The installations mentioned in the leave and license agreement, which were permitted, were to be done by the companies. The obligation of the assessee did not exceed beyond permitting use of space for such installations. There was no dispute on the fact that the assessee was the owner of the property. The CIT(A) upheld the taxability under the head `income from other sources’ and thus rejected the claim of deduction u/s. 24(a) on the basis of his understanding of the law laid down by the Calcutta High Court. The Tribunal held that the reliance of CIT(A) on the decision of the Calcutta High Court in the case of Mukerjee Estates (P) Ltd. was misplaced since in that case the Tribunal had given a categorical finding that the assessee had let out the hoardings and the assessee had failed to substantiate whether the roof was let out or the hoarding was let out. Undisputedly, the assessee was the owner of the property. Rent was for space to host the antennas and not for the antennas. The Tribunal held that since rent is for the space, terrace and roof space in this case, and which space is certainly a part of the building, the rent can only be taxed as `income from house property’. The appeal filed by the assessee was allowed.

Section 271E – Order passed u/s. 271E levying penalty for violation of provisions of section 269T was required to be passed within six months from the end of the month in which penalty proceedings were initiated.

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15. [2015] 43 ITR (Trib) 683 (Del)
ITO vs. JKD Capital and Finlease Ltd.
ITA No. 5443/Del/2013
A. Y. : 2005-06.                       
Date of Order: 27.03.2015

Section 271E – Order passed u/s. 271E levying penalty for violation of provisions of section 269T was required to be passed within six months from the end of the month in which penalty proceedings were initiated.

FACTS

The assessment of total income was completed vide order dated 28th December, 2007 passed u/s. 143(3) of the Act. In the assessment order, the Assessing Officer (AO) initiated penalty proceedings u/s. 271E of the Act. The assessee preferred an appeal against the order dated 28th December, 2007. Upon dismissal of the appeal by CIT(A), the AO referred the matter regarding penalty under section 271E to the Additional Commissioner of Income-tax who issued a show cause notice on 12th March, 2012.

Order levying penalty u/s. 271E was passed on 20th March, 2012. Aggrieved by the order levying penalty, the assessee preferred an appeal to the CIT(A) who allowed the appeal on the ground that the penalty order was time barred. Aggrieved, the assessee preferred an appeal to the Tribunal.

HELD

The Tribunal noted that the stand taken by the CIT(A) in holding that the impugned penalty order is time barred on the ground that section 275(1)(c) of the Act will apply in the cases of penalty for violation of section 269SS, has been approved by the Delhi High Court in the case of CIT vs. Worldwide Township Projects Ltd. [2014] 367 ITR 433 (Del). The Tribunal noted that the Delhi High Court had made a mention of the decision of the Rajasthan High Court in the case of CIT vs. Hissaria bros. [2007] 291 ITR 244 (Raj.) expressing a similar view. It noted the following observations of the Delhi High Court:

“We are, therefore, of the opinion that since penalty proceedings for default in not having transactions through the bank as required under sections 269SS and 269T are not related to the assessment proceeding but are independent of it, therefore, the completion of appellate proceedings arising out of the assessment proceedings or other proceedings during which the penalty proceedings under sections 271D and 271E may have been initiated has no relevance for sustaining or not sustaining the penalty proceedings and, therefore, clause (a) of sub-section (1) of section 275 cannot be attracted to such proceedings. If that were not so clause (c) of section 275(1) would be redundant because otherwise as a matter of fact every penalty proceeding is usually initiated when during some proceedings such default is noticed, though the final fact finding in this proceeding may not have any bearing on the issues relating to establishing default, e.g. penalty for not deducting tax at source while making payment to employees, or contractor, or for that matter not making payment through cheque or demand draft where it is so required to be made. Either of the contingencies does not affect the computation of taxable income and levy of correct tax on chargeable income; if clause (a) was to be invoked, no necessity of clause (c) would arise.”

The Tribunal, following the ratio of the decision of the jurisdictional High Court, held that the penalty order was barred by limitation as the penalty order was passed beyond six months from the end of the month in which penalty proceedings were initiated in the month of December 2007 and the penalty order was thus required to be passed before 30th June, 2008, the penalty order was in fact passed on 20th March, 2012. The date on which the CIT(A) has passed order in the quantum proceedings had no relevance as it did not have any bearing on the issue of penalty.

The appeal filed by the revenue was dismissed.

Depreciation – Carrying on of business – Set-off of unabsorbed depreciation of previous years – Section 32(2) and 41(2) – A. Y. 2002-03 – Where once amount realised by assessee by sale of building, plant and machinery was treated as income arising out of profits and gains from business by virtue of section 41(2) notwithstanding fact that assessee was not carrying on any business during relevant assessment year, provision contained in section 32(2) would become applicable and, consequently, set-

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Karnataka Trade Corporation Ltd. vs. ACIT; [2015] 62 taxmann.com 239 (Karn)

The appellant is a Public Limited Company manufacturing cement in a factory situated at Mathodu village, Hosadurga Taluk. In the relevant year, i.e. A. Y. 2002- 03, the assessee had not carried on any business. In the relevant year the assessee had received amounts on sale of building, plant and machinery and as a result an amount of Rs. 34,01,644/- was treated as income from business u/s. 41(2). However, the assessee’s claim for set off of the brought forward unabsorbed depreciation was rejected. This was upheld by the Tribunal.

On appeal by the assessee, the Karnataka High Court reversed the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“In computing the income from business, the provisions of Section 32 as well as Section 41 of the Act would be applicable. Therefore, once the amount realized by the assessee by sale of building, plant and machinery is treated as income arising out of the profits and gains from the business by virtue of Section 41(2) of the Act, notwithstanding the fact that the assessee was not carrying on any business during the relevant assessment year, the provision contained in Section 32(2) become applicable and consequently, the setoff has to be given for unabsorbed depreciation allowances of previous year brought forward in terms of that provision.”

Loss – Carry forward and set off – Section 79 – A. Y. 2002-03 – During the relevant assessment year holding company of assessee reduced its shareholding from the 51% to 6% by transferring its 45% shares to another 100% subsidiary company – 51% of voting rights remained with the holding company – The revenue not justified in refusing to allow carry forward and set-off of business losses

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CIT vs. AMCO Power Systems Ltd.; [2015] 62 taxmann. com 350 (Karn)

In the A. Y. 2002-03, 51% of the shares of the assessee were held by the holding company. In the relevant year the holding company transferred 45% shares to another 100% subsidiary company. In the relevant year, the Assessing Officer disallowed the assessee’s claim for set off of the carried forward loss relying on section 79, on the ground that the voting power of the holding company is reduced from 51% to 6%. The Tribunal held that the voting power of the holding company has remained at 51% and allowed the assessee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The expression ”not less than 51% of voting power…”used in Section 79 indicates that only voting power is relevant and not the shareholding pattern. Despite transfer of shares, the holding-company still holds effective control over the assessee-company. The objective of Section 79 is to prevent misuse of losses carry forward by the new owner. Therefore, losses could be carry forward and setoff even if there is change in shareholding since effective control over the assessee company is unchanged.”

Revision – Section 263 – A. Y. 2007-08 – Assessee consistently following project completion method – Revision on the ground that other method is preferable – Revision not valid

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CIT vs. Aditya Builders.; 378 ITR 75 (Bom):

The Assessee was engaged in construction of commercial and residential premises. For the A. Y. 2007- 08, the Assessing Officer accepted the project completion method followed by the assessee and completed the assessment u/s. 143(3). Exercising the powers u/s. 263 of the Act, the Commissioner set aside the assessment and directed to recomputed the income of the asessee applying the percentage completion method. The Tribunal held that the assessee had been consistently following project completion method over the years. Moreover, the issue relating to the appropriate method of accounting is a debatable issue and, thus, the Commissioner would have no jurisdiction u/s. 263 to direct application of one particular method of accounting in preference to another. The Tribunal set aside the order of the Commissioner.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The assessee had chosen the project completion method of accounting and had been consistently following it over the years. The Revenue could not reject the method because, according to the Commissioner, another method was preferable. Thus, no fault could be found with the order of the Tribunal.”

Charitable trust – Exemption u/s. 11(2) – A. Y. 2005-06 – Accumulation of income – Three purposes given covered by fourteen objects of trust – More than one purpose specified in Form 10 and details about plan of such expenditure not given – Not sufficient to deny exemption

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DIT(E) vs. Envisions; 278 ITR 483 (Karn):

The assessee, a registered charitable trust, collected donations of Rs.32,47,909/- and incurred incidental expenses of Rs.7,527/-. For the A. Y. 2005-06, it claimed the remaining amount as accumulation u/s. 11(2). In Form 10, 3 purposes were given out of the 14 objects of the Trust. The Assessing Officer disallowed the accumulation holding that the purpose stated was vague and thus the benefit of section 11(2) was denied. The Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal allowed the assesee’s claim.

On appeal by the Revenue, Karnataka High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) T he objects of the trust, as given in the trust deed, were 14 in number. The three purposes for which accumulation was prayed for and mentioned in Form 10 by the assessee were undisputedly covered by the objects of the trust. As such, it could not be disputed that the purpose mentioned by the assessee while claiming the benefit, was for achieving the objects of the trust.

ii) M erely because more than one purpose had been specified and details about the plan of such expenditure had not been given would not be sufficient to deny the benefit u/s. 11(2) to the assessee. As long as the objects of the trust are charitable in character and as long as the purpose or purposes mentioned in Form 10 are for achieving the objects of the trust, merely because of nonfurnishing of the details, as to how the amount was proposed to be spent in future, the assessee could not be denied the exemption as was admissible u/s. 11(2) of the Act.”

Charitable trust – Exemption u/s. 11 – A. Y. 2008- 09 – Hospital – Application of income to objects and for purposes of trust – Charity Commissioner giving directions from time to time – Amounts charged or surcharges levied on bills given to indore patients – To be treated as income from activities of trust – Entitled to exemption u/s. 11

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DIT(Exemp) vs. Jaslok Hospital and Research Centre; 378 ITR 230 (Bom):

The assessee is a charitable trust running a hospital. For the A. Y. 2008-09, the assessee declared total income at Nil claiming exemption u/s. 11. The Assessing Officer found that the assessee levied surcharge of 20% on the bills given to the patients and recovered 25% of the fees paid to honrary doctors. The Assessing Officer treated these amounts as corpus donations and denied exemption u/s. 11. The Tribunal allowed the assessee’s claim and deleted the addition.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) T he Tribunal concurred with its earlier order in relation to exemption. Despite the directions of the Charity Commissioner, the Revenue could not insist that the amount charged or surcharges levied should not be treated as income from the activities of the trust. The authorities under the Income-tax Act are supposed to scrutinize the papers and related documents of the trust or the assessee so as to bring the income to tax and in accordance with the Income-tax Act.

ii) In such circumstances, the concurrent finding did not in any manner indicate that the directions issued by the Charity Commissioner are incapable of being complied with or liable to be ignored. The directions issued did not change the character of the receipts. The appeal does not raise any substantial question of law.”

CENVAT credit of construction services and lease rental service can be availed against payment of duty or manufacture of final product for period prior to amendment of definition of input service under Rule 2(l).

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34. 2015 (40) STR 41 (P & H) Commissioner of C. Ex. Delhi III vs. Bellsonica Auto Companies India Pvt Ltd

CENVAT credit of construction services and lease rental service can be availed against payment of duty or manufacture of final product for period prior to amendment of definition of input service under Rule 2(l).

Facts

The Respondent had taken land on lease on which it had constructed the factory for manufacturing metal components. Respondent accumulated the credit of service tax paid on lease rent for land as well as on erection, commissioning and installation engineer’s services. The department contended that credit of the said services cannot be availed as the words “directly or indirectly” and “in or in relation to” in the “input service” definition, should be interpreted strictly. It was also contended that the lease rental service has no nexus with manufacturing of metal components. The respondent’s contention is that it is covered under both ‘includes part’ and ‘means part’ of the definition of “input service” as defined under Rule 2(l) of CENVAT Credit Rules, 2004. The said rule specifically includes services in relation to setting up of factory. Further the amended input service definition (effective from April 01, 2011) specifically excluded the service related to construction and therefore prior to the said date, the same was eligible as the amendment was not retrospective in nature.

Held

The High Court held that service used for setting up immovable property is connected with manufacturing activity and therefore the CENVAT credit is allowed.

The adjudicating authority has to follow the order of Larger Bench unless the factual situation of the case calls for different interpretation of law.

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33. 2015 (40) STR 26 (Ker) Muthoot Finance Ltd. vs. Union of India.

The adjudicating authority has to follow the order of Larger Bench unless the factual situation of the case calls for different interpretation of law.

Facts

The Appellant is engaged in providing service on behalf of Western Union, a company having its operation outside India. A similar issue arose earlier, which was settled by Larger Bench of the Tribunal in case of Muthoot Finance Ltd vs. Commissioner of C. Ex, Chandigarh, 2013(29) STR (257) (Tri-Delhi) in Appellant’s favour. It was contended that the department should follow the order of the Tribunal before raising demand against them when the facts of the case were similar. However, no cognisance was taken of the said order and demand was confirmed.

Held

The High Court observed that no distinction on facts is made in the Order-In-Original. Therefore, it is held that the order already passed by the Larger Bench of the Tribunal is binding on adjudicating authority to follow unless the factual situation calls for different interpretation. Accordingly, quashing the demand, the department was directed to consider matter afresh.

Service tax is leviable on all lease rent whether of short tenure or of more than 90 years. The service provided by assesse is not sovereign service and no statutory fees are levied on the same, thus it is a taxable service.

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32. 2015 (40) STR 95 (All.) Greater Noida Industrial Dev. Authority vs. Comm. Of C., C. Ex.

Service tax is leviable on all lease rent whether of short tenure or of more than 90 years. The service provided by assesse is not sovereign service and no statutory fees are levied on the same, thus it is a taxable service.

Facts

The appellant took plots on long term lease for construction of commercial and business premises. The Tribunal held against the Appellant holding that the nature of lease, whether short term or perpetuity, did not make any difference to meaning of expression “leasing of immovable property” and also, the Act did not make any difference between a juristic person and an individual and therefore, the leasing of land was liable for service tax irrespective of the tenure. Aggrieved by the same, the present appeal is filed.

Held

The High Court upheld the Tribunal decision and confirmed that leasing of land for business/commercial purpose was taxable event and such amount charged was leviable under service tax under “leasing/renting of immovable property”.

VAT on Service Tax collected separately

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Under MVAT Act, 2002, the tax is payable on ‘sale price’. The term ‘sale price’ is defined in section 2(25) of the MVAT Act, 2002 as under;

“(25) “sale price” means the amount of valuable consideration paid or payable to a dealer for any sale made including any sum charged for anything done by the seller in respect of the goods at the time of or before delivery thereof, other than the cost of insurance for transit or of installation, when such cost is separately charged.

Explanation I — The amount of duties levied or leviable on goods under the Central Excise Act, 1944 (1 of 1944) or the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962) or the Bombay Prohibition Act, 1949 (Bom. 25 of 1949), shall be deemed to be part of the sale price of such goods, whether such duties are paid or payable by or on behalf of, the seller or the purchaser or any other person. Explanation IA: Sale price shall not include the amount of service tax levied or leviable under the Finance Act, 1994 and collected separately from the purchaser. (w.e.f.1.4.2015),

Explanation II — Sale price shall not include tax paid or payable to a 16[seller] in respect of such sale.

Explanation III — Sale price shall include the amount received by the seller by way of deposit, whether refundable or not, which has been received whether by way of a separate agreement or not, in connection with or incidental or ancillary to, the said sale of goods;

Thus, the amount received from the buyer is considered as sale price. In addition, the statutory levies like Excise etc. are also deemed to be part of sale price .

What is the amount received from buyer? It has numerous interpretations. In the present controversy, the issue is about Service Tax collected separately, wherever, it is applicable. For example, in case of works contract, there is composite contract for supply of goods and services. Under such circumstances, the dealer may be liable to pay VAT on the supply part and Service Tax on labour portion. On the applicable labour portion, the dealer may collect Service Tax as inclusive in price i.e. without showing Service Tax separately or, on other hand, the dealer may charge Service Tax separately in the invoice.

In case, Service Tax is charged as inclusive (subject to facts of each case) it can be said that there is not much debate about ‘sale price’ and the whole amount of sale price without exclusion of Service Tax will be considered as sale price for levy of VAT .

However, the controversy arises when the Service Tax is collected separately in the invoices.

A possible argument is that the Service Tax is a tax allowed or to be collected from the customers under the provisions of Service Tax and hence it is an amount collected for and on behalf and to be paid to the Central Government. Therefore, it can be argued that it does not form part of the money of the dealer, it is a separate collection.

Recent judgment and amendment

In fact, in case of Sujata Printers (VAT A.No.18 of 2013 dt. 9.3.2015), Hon’ble MSST (Maharashtra Tribunal) has already held that the Service Tax collected separately does not form part of sale price. Further, there is amendment dated 18.4.2015 in the definition of ‘sale price’ by which Service Tax collected separately is excluded from the amount of sale price, shown above by Explanation 1A.

After above judgment and above referred amendment, there is circular from the Commissioner of Sales Tax, bearing no. 6T of 2015 dated 14.5.2015 in which the implications of above judgment and amendment are explained. It is stated in the Circular that the judgment will remain operative from 1.4.2005 till 31.3.2015. From 1.4.2015 the situation will be covered by the amendment. The net effect is that on Service Tax collected separately, no VAT will be applicable.

Controversy regarding Service Tax in case of Composition Schemes

In the above circular, the learned Commissioner of Sales Tax has made distinction between the works contracts. The Commissioner of Sales Tax has stated that the above exclusion of Service Tax collected separately will apply in case where the liability on works contract or other transactions is discharged under regular method like, in case of works contract, if the liability is discharged under rule 58 of MVAT Rules. However, in relation to discharging of tax under composition schemes, it is specifically mentioned that the above exclusion will not apply. In other words, the circular interprets that in case the liability is discharged under composition scheme than even if Service Tax is collected separately, it will be considered as part of contract price and on such whole amount (including Service Tax), the composition will be payable. It appears that the Commissioner of Sales Tax has kept in mind that under composition schemes, the dealer has to forgo its legal claim and has to abide by the terms of the composition scheme. Therefore, the assessing authorities are levying VAT on Service Tax collected separately, where the contractors discharge their tax liability under works contract composition scheme.

Recent judgment of the Hon’ble Tribunal

However, now the legal position has become absolute clear. The issue has been resolved by the Hon’ble Tribunal vide its judgment in case of Technocraft Engineers (VAT SA No.237 of 2014 dt.3.11.2015). In this case, the issue was same. VAT was levied on the Service Tax collected separately on the works contract and the dealer was discharging liability under composition scheme. The Hon’ble Tribunal has referred to arguments from both the sides. There was also earlier judgment in the 0case of Nikhil Comforts (SA No.30 of 2010 dated 31.3.2012) in which a contrary view was taken.

However, in this judgment, the Hon’ble Tribunal has held that no VAT can be levied on Service Tax collected separately, even if the tax is discharged under composition scheme. The reasoning of learned Tribunal is noted as under; “(iii) In the impugned matter, assessment order for the year was passed on 26/12/2012, for the interior designing the appellant had received total amount of Rs.4,35,43,472/- on which 8% composition amount was charged and with interest u/s. 30(2) and 30(3) of the MVAT Act total demand was raised at Rs.27,10,949/- Appellant challenged the said order on the ground of incorrect determination of turnover, levy of tax on service tax and set-off claim and on interest. The First Appellate Authority confirmed the levy of tax on service tax amount saying that, it is part of contract price but he allowed other grounds. Hence, VAT payable amount is changed from Rs.27,10,949/- to Rs.2,24,831/- with part payment made in appeal, the appellant got refund of Rs.1,82,109/- on which no interest u/s. 52 of the MVAT Act was calculated. In total consideration, the service charges amount will become the part of total receipt by the Contractor but service tax amount on service charges will not become part of total receipt, because appellant contractor wants to pay the said amount to the Central Excise Department. Although, the definition of sale price is later on amended with effect from 01/04/2015, and the separate Explanation IA is added clarifying that, service tax levied and collected separately shall not be included in sale price. It is the revenue’s contention that, the said amendment is not retrospective, and it has effect from 01/04/2015. So, upto 31/03/2015 total receipt should be considered including service tax. However, we made it clear that, in the definition of sale price u/s. 2(25) service tax was not incorporated as deemed sale price. In the instant case, sale means a valuable consideration of the goods involved in the works contract, the consideration must be received by the contractor. Even though he had collected service tax separately he has to deposit it with the Central Government. Therefore, it will not become part of his receipt. The revenue had cited most of the case laws on agreement for composition.

Appellant is not denying that, he had not agreed for composition. He is ready to pay 8% tax on the valuable consideration received by him which he can utilise in his business, and the tax amount against service charges incurred by him, he cannot keep with him as consideration for receipt of works contract. In total contract receipt, the sale price of the goods, service charges shown etc. are includible. In Sub–clause (a) and (b) of sub–section (3) of section 42, the wording is used “equal to 5% , of total contract value of the works contract in case of construction contract and 8% of total contract value of work contract of any other case.” Here, the meaning of total contract value is to be determined appropriately. By way of allotment of any works if assesse is receiving some amount against the property transferred in the goods and against the labour charges utilised in the said work, it will become a contract value. The various taxes levied separately, and those are to be deposited with the Govt. authorities will not constitute the total receipt against the said contract value hence element of service tax will not be a part of sale prices before amendment also. One can understand total expenses required to be paid for any particular work in which amount of taxes are also to be in total turnover but when a turnover for levy of tax is to be taken into consideration, the element shown separately in sale invoice It may be against sales tax VAT tax and service tax which cannot be included.” Thus, the Hon’ble Tribunal has put to rest all controversy in this regard. Most of the dealers (contractors) have not collected VAT on Service Tax collected separately and hence the above judgment will be a big relief.

Conclusion

To avoid future litigation, it is expected that the department will bring out one more circular to accept the above judgment. The finality to the subject is important, so that dealers can predict their liability correctly and a controversy is avoided.

MANDATORY PRE-DEPOSIT UNDER SECtION 35F

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Background Section 35F of the Central Excise Act, 1944 (the Act) was amended by the Finance Act (No.2) 2014 with effect from 6th August, 2014 whereby prior to filing an appeal before Commissioner (Appeals) or Appellate Tribunal, an amount of 7.5% duty or penalty in dispute in case of first appeal and a further amount of 10% of the duty or penalty in dispute is required to be paid by way of mandatory pre-deposit. The amount of pre-deposit is restricted to an upper limit of Rs. 10 crore by way of a proviso in the said section. Further, by way of a second proviso, it is provided that the provision would not apply to pending stay applications and appeals filed before any appellate authority prior to 6th August, 2014. Therefore, post the said date of 6th August, 2014, various appeals filed with different jurisdictional Benches of Appellate Tribunals without payment of pre-deposit amount were either not accepted or rejected. Consequently, writ petitions were filed in various High Courts. As a result thereof, the Andhra Pradesh High Court in Rama Mohanrao & Co. 2015-TIOL- 511-HC-AP-CX in an interim order and the Kerala High Court in Muthoot Finance Ltd. vs. Union of India and Others 2015-TIOL-632-HC-Kerala-ST and a couple of other cases as well as the Madras High Court in Fifth Avenue Sourcing (P) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax 2015-TIOL-1592- HC-MAD-ST decided that amended provisions relating to mandatory pre-deposit of 7.5% of duty or penalty was not applicable to the cases wherein the cause of action had already commenced prior to the date of amendment of 6th August, 2014 and that the amendment was prospective and therefore would not affect assessment proceedings initiated prior to the amendment date.

As against these decisions, a Division Bench of the Allahabad High Court on the very same issue in Ganesh Yadav vs. UOI and Others 2015-TIOL-1490-HC-ALL-ST distinguished the above decision in Muthoot Finance Ltd. (supra) and K. Rama Mohanrao (supra) and dismissing the petitions held that in terms of express language used in the amended provisions of section 35F(1) of the Act, the constitutional challenge was not vested and all appeals filed post the amendment would be governed by the requirement of pre-deposit. Amidst the controversy, recently the Hon. Karnataka High Court also in a learned Single Judge decision has made detailed analysis and observations on the subject matter and dismissed a bunch of petitions. The said decision is summarised below:

Karnataka High Court: 2015-TIOL- 2637-HC-KAR-CX

The Hon. Karnataka High Court in various writ petitions led by Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd. vs. Union of India reported at 2015-TIOL-2637-HC-KAR-CX and others considered mainly the following two issues:

  • Whether section 35F of the Central Excise Act, 1944 (the Act) as amended is a piece of substantive or procedural law prescribing mandatory pre-deposit at the time of filing an appeal, is an unreasonable condition?
  • Whether amendment made to section 35F of the Act has a retrospective operation?

The petitioner in this case also on the same issue as involved in various earlier decisions, contended that the requirement of the pre-deposit is violative of Article 14, 19(1)(g) and 265 of the Constitution of India and therefore sought to declare the Circular 984/08/2014-CX and similar Circular F. No.15/ CESTAT /General/2013-14 dated 06/08/2014 issued by the CBEC as ultra vires the constitution and also sought directions to enable petitioners to file their appeals without monetary pre-deposit of 7.5% since lis or the cause of action in the case of petitioner commenced before 06/08/2014, the date of amendment.

Right to Appeal

The Hon. Bench examined section 35 and 35B of the Act providing for Appellate remedy before Commissioner (Appeals) and Appellate Tribunal respectively and also examined section 35F and the amendment made therein effected from 6th August, 2014 as regards mandatory monetary pre-deposit and noted and analysed the concept Right of Appeal as the petitioners claimed that it was adversely affected by the impugned amendment. For this, the Hon. Bench found it expedient to primarily distinguish between substantive law and procedural law and rulings of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in this regard while considering the principles of statutory interpretation. Relying heavily on the ratio of Hoosein Kasam Dada (India) Ltd. vs. State of Madhya Pradesh & Others 2002-TIOL-363-SC-CT, the petitioners claimed that the cause of action in their cases commenced prior to the date of amendment viz. 06/08/2014 and therefore their right to be heard before the Tribunal without the mandatory pre-deposit was not destroyed and denial of such right affected their vested right to file appeal. The Revenue contended that all that was done by the amendment was prescribing the conditions of pre-deposit to file the appeal. This had no nexus with the right to file the appeal as a mere condition of mandatory deposit is provided of 7.5% of the duty or penalty levied at the time of filing appeal and only the discretion vested in the Tribunal with regard to pre-deposit was taken away. The Court therefore decided to consider the applicability of the principles stated in Hoosein Kasam Dada (supra) in the present matter, however only after drawing distinction between substantive law and procedural law.

Substantive law and Procedural law

The petitioners contended that the right to appeal is a substantial right which is pre-vested in the parties on the date, the cause of action commenced. Thus, even when the conditions to file an appeal are altered, it would affect their right to file an appeal. The Court therefore examined meanings of these terms as per Black’s Law Dictionary as provided below:

“Substantive law (seb-sten-tiv). (18c) The part of the law that creates, defines, and regulates the rights, duties and powers of parties.

‘So far as the administration of justice is concerned with the application of remedies to violated rights, we may say that the substantive law defines the remedy and the right, while the law of procedure defines the modes and conditions of the application of the one to the other.” John Salmond, Jurisprudence 476 (Glanville L. Williams ed., 10th ed. 1947)’.

Procedural law:

The rules that prescribe the steps for having a right or duty judicially enforced, as opposed to the law that defines the specific rights or duties themselves.- Also termed adjective law.” Further, on going through the Supreme Court rulings in Hitendra Vishnu Thakur vs. State of Maharashtra [(1994) 4 SCC 602 and Shyam Sunder vs. Ramkumar [(2001)8 SCC 24, it was noted that if a piece of substantive law is amended, such a law would have prospective operation unless made retrospective operation by necessary intendment whereas in the case of amendment of a procedural law, the amendment is always retrospective in operation unless indicated otherwise. On noting the above, it was observed that the right to file an appeal is required to be distinguished from the procedure necessary to follow while exercising the said right to appeal. Section 35A, 35C and 35D of the Act deal with the procedures to be followed by Commissioner (Appeals) or the Appellate Tribunal while considering the appeal filed by an aggrieved party whereas the right to file an appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) and the appellate authority is prescribed in section 35 ad 35B of the Act respectively. Therefore, the conditions to be followed for exercising the substantive right as prescribed in section 35F of the Act prescribing the pre-deposit to be made by the aggrieved party is a piece of procedural law. Further a litigant has a vested right in substantive law but no such right is available in procedural law. To support these observations, Hon. Court interalia, relied on The Anant Mills Co. Ltd. vs. State of Gujarat & Others 1975 (2) SCC 175, Sheth Nand Lal & Another vs. State of Haryana and Others 1980 (Supp) SCC 574, Vijay Prakash D. Mehta and Another vs. Collector of Customs (Preventive), Mumbai 2002-TIOL-427-SC-CUS, Laxmi Rathan Engineering Works Limited vs. CST [AIR 1968 SC 488], Ganga Bai vs. Vijay Kumar [(1974) 2 SCC 393], Narayan Chandra Ghosh vs. UCO Bank and Others [(2011) 4 SCC 548 and concluded that appeal is a creature of statute and there is no reason why the legislature while granting that right cannot impose conditions for exercising that right. Thus, what emerges from dicta in various cited decisions is that requirement regarding deposit of amount as condition precedent to entertainment of appeal is a means of regulating the exercise of the right of appeal and is not in the realm of right to file an appeal and thus not a piece of substantial law. The said requirement is not an onerous condition precedent for the filing of an appeal particularly when there is a cap on the pre-deposit amount where amount exceeds Rs.10 crore. Thus, the first issue is answered that the amended provisions of section 35F of the Act do not adversely affect the right of appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) and the appellate authority of the aggrieved party.

Whether the Amendment has Retrospective Application

The Finance Act 2014, which amended section 35F of the Act repealed the existing provision by way of substitution and thus when an existing provision is substituted by a fresh enactment, it is a case of express repeal. In this context, interalia relying on the decision was Zile Singh vs. State of Haryana 2004 (8) SCC 1, it was observed: “13. It is a cardinal principle of construction that every statute is prima facie prospective operation. But the rule in general is applicable where the object of the statute is to affect vested rights or to impose new burdens or to impair existing obligations.”

However, in the matters of procedures, the Court cited Maxwell: “Interpretation of Statutes” 11th edition, page 216 that “No person has a vested right in any course of procedure. He has only the right of prosecution or defence in the manner prescribed for the time being by or for the Court in which the case is pending and if by an act of Parliament the mode of procedure is altered, he has no other right than to proceed according to the altered mode”.

In the backdrop of these principles, the claim of the petitioners that the amendment to section 35F of the Act was not retrospective was examined and in particular second proviso to the said section 35F was taken note of. The proviso provides that section 35F would not apply to stay applications and appeals pending before the appellate authority filed prior to the commencement of 2014 Act therefrom implying that appeals filed and pending as on 06/08/2014, the earlier provision would apply. While interpreting the said proviso, it was noted that the proviso could not be so construed or interpreted to make it otiose. By virtue of the second proviso, the intendment of the Parliament is clear and therefore to interpret otherwise than the intendment would be to render it redundant. In view thereof but for the circumstances mentioned in the proviso it was held that the main amended provision would apply. The proviso was meant to serve as a saving clause to prevent the pending stay applications from becoming infructuous on account of the amendment. Relying on a number of judicial precedents including in Ishverlal Thakorelal Almaula vs. Motibhai Nagjibhai (AIR 1966 SC 459), S. Sundaram Pillai etc. vs. R. Pattabiraman [AIR 1985 SC 582] which in turn among others relied on Govt. of West Bengal vs. Abani Maity [AIR 1979 SC 1029], conclusion was reached that the right to file an appeal granted u/s. 35 and 35B of the Act remained unaltered and therefore available to an aggrieved party even after the amendment to section 35F of the Act. Whereas these sections constitute substantive law not forming the realm of procedure, on the examination of section 35F it was found that this section is procedural in nature and the amendment of the same was found to be having a retrospective operation and particularly the second proviso. Since the real intention of the Parliament is discernible, it was held that the retrospective effect is provided in respect of pending applications before appellate authorities. However, if no appeal was filed prior to 06/08/2014, it was held that the amended section 35F would apply. The amendment thus has no bearing on the date on which the particular lis commenced. It was observed that the lis in each case would have commenced on a different date. In order to ensure the object of certainty and uniformity as to the applicability of the amendment, the Parliament enacted the second proviso. Considering the Hon. Supreme Court’s rulings on the fine distinction between substantive law and procedural law in decisions subsequent to Hoosein Kasam Dada (supra), wherein it was held that amendment made to procedural law can have retrospective operation, the decision in Hoosein Kasam Dada (supra) was distinguished. It was further noted that in the said decision, the fine distinction between substantive and procedural law and that amendment made in the procedural law could have retrospective operation did not come up for consideration in the manner decided in the later decisions and therefore observations made in Hoosein Kasam Dada (supra) were held as not applicable to the present bunch of petitions.

Lastly, the judgments referred above viz. of the Madras High Court in Deputy Commercial Tax Officer Tirupur vs. Cameo Experts [(2006)147 STC 218 (Mad)], Fifth Avenue Sourcing (P) Ltd. vs. Commissioner of Service Tax Chennai (supra), Kerala High Court in Muthoot Finance Ltd. vs. Union of India (supra) and Andhra Pradesh High Court in K. Rama Mohanrao & Co. vs. Union of India (interim order) (supra) were found as not applicable although they are rendered on section 35F or on similar provisions as those judgments followed the reasoning in Hoosein Kasam Dada (supra) which has been distinguished herein and held to be not applicable to the present cases. Writ Petitions were dismissed accordingly.

Conclusion

Although the applicability of the above may be for a limited time frame, it is to be noted that High Courts of the three States viz. Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Madras have decided that the cases wherein the lis commenced prior to 06/08/2014, the amendment was not applicable and the Tribunal was bound to entertain such appeals without mandatory predeposit whereas Allahabad High Court in M/s. Ganesh Yadav (supra) and the present decision of Karnataka High Court have held that pre-deposit requirement cannot be dispensed with except in case of appeals and stay applications already filed prior to 6th August, 2014. Therefore, it remains to be seen whether the round of controversy ends with the ruling of Karnataka High Court or litigation continues on the issue before reaching finality.

Welcome GST – Part 3 GST in Singapore and Malaysia

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Singapore and Malaysia are considered as the two most important countries which have introduced fair GST law. While Singapore is under GST regime since 1994 and Malaysia has just introduced GST from 1st April 2015, there is striking similarity in the provisions.

GST in Singapore:

GST was implemented at a single rate of 3% on 1st April 1994, with an assurance that it would not be raised for at least five years. To cushion the impact of GST on Singaporean households, an offset package was also introduced. Simultaneously, corporate tax rate was cut by 3% to 27%, and the top marginal personal income tax rate was cut by 3%. The initial GST rate of 3% was among the lowest in the world. The GST rate was increased from 3% to 4% in 2003 and to 5% in 2004. Each increase was accompanied by an offset package that was designed to make the average Singaporean household overall better off. The rate was further increased to 7% with effect from 1st July 2007. At present, the rate of GST is 7% applicable to all taxable (standard rated) goods and services.

The threshold for registration is S$ 1million (one million Singapore dollars). Businesses having turnover of taxable supplies during a period of 12 months (four quarters) less than 1 million may opt for voluntary registration.

It may be noted that in Singapore, GST is a tax imposed on the importation of goods (collected by Singapore Customs) and the supplies of nearly all goods and services made in Singapore by a taxable person in the course or furtherance of any business carried on by him. The tax is administered by the Inland Revenue Authority of Singapore (IRAS). The Tax Department has issued GST guides for various industries which provide specific information on how GST affects each sector.

‘Taxable person’ is defined as a person who is registered or is required to be registered under the GST Act. The term ‘business’ includes any: (a) Trade (for example, manufacturing, wholesale, service, retail, mechanics, carpentry); (b) Profession (for example, doctors, lawyers, accountants with their own business practice); or (c) Vocation (for example, taxi drivers, hawkers, freelance fitness instructors, freelance book-keepers, insurance agents, multi-level marketing agents). In addition, the following activities are also deemed to constitute business: (a) The provision by a club, association, society, management corporation or organisation of the facilities or advantages available to its members or subsidiary proprietors, as the case may be; and (b) The admission, for a consideration, of persons to any premises.

Taxable Turnover, for the purposes of registration, refers to the total value (excluding GST) of all taxable supplies made in Singapore. It includes the value of all standardrated and zero-rated supplies but excludes exempt supplies, out-of-scope supplies and sale of capital assets.

Zero-rated supply: Zero-rated supply refers to an export of goods from Singapore by a taxable person to a country outside Singapore or a supply of international services. GST is charged at 0% for theses supplies. However full input tax credit is available to the supplier.

Exempt Supply: Exempt supply refers to the following three broad categories of supplies, where no GST is chargeable: (a) the sale and lease of residential properties; (b) the provision of financial services; and (c) the supply of investment precious metals. A supplier of exempt supplies is not eligible for input tax credit.

Out-of-scope Supply: An out-of-scope supply is a supply which is not made in Singapore and no GST needs to be charged. For example the sale of goods from China to India, where the goods do not enter Singapore.

A registered tax payer is required to e-file quarterly returns within one month from the end of each quarter. (Facility of monthly and six monthly returns is also available to certain classes of tax payers subject to approval from the Comptroller). Extension of due date, up to one month, is granted on application in genuine cases. The tax due, as per return, is required to be deposited within the same due date as for filing of returns. Payments can be made either online or through money orders or telegraphic transfers or through A/c payee cheques drawn in favour of “Comptroller of Goods & Services Tax”. Refund due, if any, as per periodic return is granted automatically within one month/three months/six months as the case may be (unless withheld for specified reasons).

GST in Malaysia: Malaysia has adopted GST from 1st April 2015. Before that there was a system of sales tax on sale of goods (introduced from 29th February 1972) and Service Tax on supply of services (introduced from 1st March 1975). It may be noted that Excise Duty, in Malaysia, is levied on certain luxury and sin products only such as automobiles, liquor, beer and tobacco products. Sales Tax was levied under the system of single point first stage taxation at four different rates of 5, 10. 20 and 25 %0, and, Service Tax was levied at a flat rate of 5% on certain specified services. The GST has replaced both these taxes i.e. Sales Tax and Service Tax. The rate of GST is 6% on all taxable (standard rated) goods and services.

GST, in Malaysia is administered by Royal Malaysian Customs Department (RMCD) – Goods and Services Tax Division. Persons having businesses with annual turnover of taxable supplies exceeding RM 5,00,000 (Five lakh Malaysian Ringgit) are liable to be registered under GST. ‘Persons’ include an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, company, trust, estate, society, union, club, association or any other organization including a government department or a local authority which is involved in the business of making taxable supplies in Malaysia. Application for registration has to be made in prescribed form within 30 days from the date of liability. There is a facility of voluntary registration for businesses having annual turnover less than the prescribed limit, and, there is also a facility of Group Registration whereby more than one business organisation, within the same group, can have one single registration.

Annual Turnover of ‘Taxable Supplies’, for the purposes of registration, includes all taxable supplies whether standard rated or zero rated. But excludes the value of (a) supplies outside the GST scope, (b) disposal of capital assets, (c) imported services, (d) disregarded supplies made in relation to Approved Toll Manufacturer Scheme, Warehousing Scheme and supplies made within or between the designated areas.

The GST registered person is liable to pay tax on all taxable supplies (standard rated) and can claim input tax credit of whatever amount of GST paid on the business inputs by offsetting against the output tax. Suppliers of zero rated goods and services are also entitled to claim full input tax credit. However, ITC (input Tax Credit) can be claimed only on the basis of ‘Tax Invoice’ issued by the supplier. The supplier has to issue Tax Invoice within 21 days of supply. There are provisions for Simplified Tax Iinvoice as well as self made Tax Invoice in certain circumstances.

GST returns are generally required to be filed quarterly by all GST registered persons within one month from the end of each quarter. However, there are provisions to grant permission to file returns on monthly or six monthly basis subject to certain conditions. The returns can be filed either online through internet or manual through paper returns.

Payment of taxes, as per return, has to be made within the same time limit as for filing return. Payment can be made either online or through money order or a/c payee cheques or bank drafts drawn in the name of specified authority.

Refunds, if any, as per periodic returns are granted automatically within 14 days from the date of submitting return (in case of electronic return) and within 28 days (in case of manual return).

Some Important Aspects:

There are few important aspects of GST that one needs to study, they include,

  • Transitional provisions: from existing indirect tax laws to one integrated tax without loss of input credits that is lying unutilised and also embedded in stock in trade or work – in – progress.
  • M eaning of ‘supply’ as a most important term replacing the terms, ‘sale of goods’ and ‘provision of service’.
  • Place of Supply Rules
  • Seamless flow of credit till the supply reaches to the destination
  • Point of Taxation
  • Uniform revenue neutral rate for different kind of goods and servicesExempt goods and services
  • Special kind of supplies
  • Procedural issues like registration, payment of tax, filing of returns, assessments, dispute resolution mechanism and robust network infrastructure 

In this article, attempt is made to evaluate the meaning of term supply, transitional provisions, time of supply and input tax credit mechanism in the context of Singapore and Malaysian GST law.

I. Meaning of term “Supply”:

Under Malaysian law:

  • ‘Supply’ means all forms of supply, sale, barter or exchange including import, for a consideration. Land and transfer of any right in land including tenancy rights and immovable properties are covered in GST as goods. Further, supply of goods includes any activity or transaction under hire purchase or finance lease agreement.
  • Anything which is not a supply of goods but is done for a consideration is a supply of services. “Services” mean anything done or to be done including the granting, assignment or surrender of any right or making available any facility or advantage for a consideration. This would include, license, rental, lease and right to use of the immovable properties and transfer of possession of goods without transferring the ownership.

However, the following are not regarded as supply:

  • Transfer of business undertaking as a going concern.
  • Supplies not in the course of furtherance of business.
  • Supply by any society or similar registered organisation to its members in conformity of the aims and objectives, without any payment other than subscription and where the value of supply is nominal.
  • Contribution to pension, provident or social security fund.
  • Supply of services between an insurer and insured
  • Supply of money or investment article

Under Singapore law:

‘Supply’ includes anything done for a consideration. The following shall be treated as ‘supply’ for the purposes of GST:

  • Possession transferred under an agreement
  • Treatment of process
  • Supply of utility
  • Grant assignment or surrender of any interest or right over land
  • Transfer or disposal of business assets.

The following shall not be treated as supply of goods:

  • Financial services including financial products like equity, debts equity, derivative, life insurance, annuities, commodity features, mutual fund units, exchange of currency
  • I mport of precious metal
  • Grant assignment or surrender of any interest or right over land, license to occupy such land, residential properties, land used for residential purpose or for condominium development, vacant land supplied for public or statutory authority of residential or condominium residence
  • Land or building or part thereof used principally for residential purpose.

II. Transitional provisions

A. In case of supply of goods under Malaysian/ Singapore law:

1. I f the dealer has supplied the goods (under Malaysian law) or removal of goods or made available to the purchaser (under Singapore law) before the effective date and invoice is issued or payment is received for that supply on or after effective date, the supply of goods would be covered under the existing law prior to implementation of GST and the invoice issued or payment received on or after the appointed day for those supplies shall be regarded as inclusive of Sales Tax. However, if the invoice is issued for the supply made after the appointed day, the dealer would not be required to charge GST to the extent the supply is covered by Sales Tax.

2. I f supplies are made before the appointed day and ends on or after the appointed day where the invoice is issued or the payment is received before the appointed day, the consideration for supply shall be deemed to be inclusive of GST, appointed day or effective date is the date when GST comes into force for the portion of supplies made on or after the appointed day.

3. For all goods held in stock on effective date, including the exempted goods or service, are liable to be taxed under the old law.

4. The dealer is required to file his return under the old law covering all the supplies prior to effective date and discharge the liability thereon.

5. I n a case where tax is required to be paid under GST on above supplies, refund can be claimed of the tax paid under existing law.

6. Credit notes issued for return of goods after the appointed day shall be dealt with under the existing law and refund of sales tax paid can be claimed.

7. T he person registered under the GST and in the old law will have no further liability under GST to account for tax on such goods in respect of which the last return under the old law is submitted.

8. A window of five years of zero rating is provided in case a non-taxable supply under the existing law when it becomes taxable under GST and the contract is not renewed to effectuate the tax element in the price. (This means that the existing contracts can be reworked to include GST in the price till five years and would be zero rated till such period, imposing no tax liability and still allowing imput tax credit. Really a very wholesome measure for long term infrastructure projects and government contracts which are normally of “all inclusive” nature.)

B. Exempt supplies under Singapore law –

GST would not be chargeable if the person making the supply, made after appointed day, receives a payment in respect of the supply of goods or services before the appointed day, and the supply of goods or services shall be treated as taking place before that date. However, if no such payment is received before the appointed day but the invoice for a taxable supply of goods or services is issued before that date, that supply made in post GST regime shall be treated as taking place after the appointed day and accordingly tax shall be chargeable on the supply.

C. In case of Services under Malaysian/ Singapore law:

In case of supply of services when the service is performed or payment received prior to introduction of GST, the provisions of old law would apply. In case supply is made on or after the appointed day, the service provider is not required to charge GST on supplies to the extent covered by the invoice before the appointed day or payment received.

D. In case of goods or services not subject to sales tax or service tax but subject to GST Malaysia:

In such a case, the GST liability would be as follows:

  • If such supplies are made before 1st April 2015 where the invoice is issued or payment is received on or after 1st April 2015, the consideration for the supplies is not subject to GST.
  • If such supplies are made before 1st April 2015 and ends on or after 1st April 2015 (spanning 1st April 2015) where the invoice is issued or payment is received on or after 1st April 2015, the portion of supplies made on or after 1st April 2015 is subject to GST.
  • If such supplies are made on or after 1st April 2015 where the invoice is issued or payment is made before 1st April 2015, the consideration for the supplies is deemed as inclusive of GST.
  • If such supplies are made before 1st April 2015 and ends on or after 1st April 2015 (spanning 1st April 2015) where the invoice is issued or payment is received before 1st April 2015, the consideration for the supplies is deemed as inclusive of GST for the portion of supplies made on or after 1st April 2015.

E. Transitional provision as regards to input tax credit Singapore:

In case of dealer having accumulated credit prior to GST regime, the same is allowed to be carried forward to the extent the credit attributable to the taxable supplies made in post GST regime. Special relief is granted to allow businesses to claim GST incurred before GST regime in first return form. This would also apply to a dealer who is partially exempt if he makes both exempt and taxable supplies. In case where input tax cannot be directly indentified with income in the making of either taxable or exempt supplies, the input tax known as residual input tax is required to be apportioned. Taxable supplies would include zero-rated supplies. In case of capital goods, the same is allowed subject to certain exceptions on period based proportions.

Malaysia: A registered person is entitled to a special refund of sales tax of taxable goods (subject to certain percentage of the value of goods) held on hand on (stock) appointed day for making a taxable supply provided the goods were taxable under the sales tax law and the sales tax has been charged and paid by the claimant dealer. A special refund shall not be granted when,

a) goods have been capitalised
b) have been used partially or incorporated into some other goods
c) held for hire d) good held for use other than in business
e) goods not held for sale or exchange
f) where a claim of drawback of sales tax paid is made on subsequent export after the appointed day
g) on such goods on which the claimant is allowed to claim the deduction of service tax under the relevant rules

Where the claim for special refund is made, the goods shall be deemed to have been given credit for the input tax the unpaid taxes be off-setted against the special refund.

(No such provision exists in Singapore)

III. I nput Tax Credit Mechanism :
A. Singapore/Malaysia (conditions for grant of input credit)

  • The business has to be GST registered
  • The goods or services must have been supplied or imported by the business which must be supported by import permits which show the business as importer of goods
  • For local purchase the input tax claim must be supported by tax invoices addressed to the business
  • The goods or services are used or will be used for the furtherance of the business within the country or export which would be regarded as taxable supplies if made in the exporting country
  • The input tax claim is not otherwise disallowable as per specific exclusions.

 It is not necessary to match the input tax claim with output tax charged in the same accounting period, meaning that input tax can be claimed even before supply of goods or service is actually made.

Supply of goods without consideration for a community project may be treated as a supply made in the course or furtherance of the business. Any asset acquired which is taxable may be treated as attributable to the business’s taxable supply and any input tax incurred for any supply made for a community project by the business is claimable. (Above provision exists only in Malaysia)

B. Input tax claim on tripartite arrangement

  • When a taxable person makes taxable supplies of goods or services to a recipient who is a registered person, the recipient is able to claim input tax for an acquisition he makes in the course of his business. However, in a tripartite arrangement, the recipient is not the person who makes the payment for the supply.
  • For a supply made to a third party, there must be a binding agreement or a link between the supplier and the person who makes payment for the supply. Any agreement which does not bind the parties does not amount to a supply unless there is a supply of goods or services between the parties. The person who has an agreement with a supplier for a supply is the recipient of that supply (even if that supply is provided to a third party). The documentation (terms of the contract) is the logical starting point in determining the supplies that have been made.
  • In this regard, the person who makes payment will be entitled to claim input tax on the acquisition of the goods since it is a taxable supply made by the supplier to the person who makes the payment of the supply. (Above provision exists only in Malaysia)

C. Time Limit to claim input tax credit

If input tax is not claimed in the taxable period in which he is supposed to claim, then such input tax can be claimed within six years after the date of the supply to or importation by the taxable person.

D. Refund of Input Tax

A refund will be made to the claimant if the amount of input tax is more than the amount of output tax. Any refund of input tax credit may be offset against unpaid GST, excise duty, import and export duties.

Time When Refund is Made

A registered person can claim refund of input tax in the GST return furnished to the concerned authority. If the amount of input tax exceeds the amount of output tax, the balance will be refunded. The refund of input tax will be made within 14 working days after the return to which the refund relates is received for online submission and 28 working days after the return to which the refund relates is received for manual submission. (Malaysia)

E. Bad Debt relief

Bad debt is amount owed that cannot be collected and all reasonable efforts to collect it have been done. A person is entitled for a bad debt relief subject to the following conditions:
(a) GST is already paid;
(b) The person has not received any payment or part payment within 6 months (12 months in case of Singapore GST) from date of supply or debtor has become insolvent (bankrupt, wound up or receivership) before that period has elapsed; and
(c) Sufficient efforts have been made to recover the debt.

If the person has not received any payment in respect of the taxable supply, he can make a deduction or claim for the whole of the tax paid. However, if he has received part of the payment he can deduct or claim on pro-rata basis of the receipt. In the event where the bad debt relief is granted but subsequently the payment is received by the claimant he is required to repay the amount.

F. Input Tax credit in relation to registration

Credit pertaining to pre-incorporation is not allowed. Input credit on services prior to registration is also not eligible. However, in case of capital goods, the registered person is entitled to claim input tax credit on the goods he holds at the time of registration. Input tax on any asset held on hand (stock) can be claimed on book value within 6 years from the date of registration irrespective of date when the asset is acquired. In case of land and building, input tax can be claimed in on open market value of the asset or the book value whichever is lower. Where a person registers on a date later than the date he becomes liable to be registered, he is entitled to claim input tax incurred on, a) goods held on hand at the time he is liable to be registered; and b) goods or services used in making taxable supplies during the period he became liable to be registered.

IV. Time of supply:

Malaysia:

For goods:
a) when the goods are removed; or
b) when the goods are made available to the person to whom the goods are supplied if the goods are not to be removed.
c) I n the case of supply of goods sent, taken on approval, sale or returned, the time of supply is when it becomes certain that a taxable supply has taken place or twelve months after the removal whichever is the earlier.

For Services:

For services, the time of supply is treated as taken place at the time when the services are performed.

Singapore

The time of supply is based on the earliest of the events:
a) Issuance of invoice
b) Receipt of payment
c) Removal of goods or making it available to the customer.

In case of services, the time of performance In any case, the business is required to issue a tax invoice within 30 days from the time of supply. If the supply is before GST registration date, GST cannot be charged to the customers.

Conclusion: It can be seen that the Malaysian GST, being the latest one, has been carefully crafted, as the law which is lucid with examples and appropriate guidance notes, leaves almost no room for ambiguity and litigation. It even has the provisions for refund of excess claim of input credit if not utilised within six years which is seamlessly granted within a short time of Fourteen days as provided in the law. The term ‘supply’ invokes the liability only in case of consideration. The transitional provisions ushering from exempt to taxable regime are also drafted in a fair manner. In case of exempt product or services becoming taxable under GST, a window of five years for re-working of contract is granted and zero rating is provided for intervening period allowing input tax credits. Provisions are made for allowance of tax credit when the supply results into a bad debt. Input credit is allowed in case of asset acquired for a community project which is regarded in the course of furtherance of business. Tax on import of goods and service is available as input tax credit. The Malaysian GST has more or less adopted the Singaporean model which is taxpayer friendly. The rate of tax in both the countries is minimum in the world, however still GST is blamed in Malaysia as inflationary. India should take a clue from the GST regime in both these countries in drafting its GST legislation.

Representation of cases before Authority for Advance Ruling- Instruction F.No.225/261/2015/ITA.II dated 28.10.2015 ( copy available on www.bcasonline.org)

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Representation of cases before Authority for Advance Ruling- Instruction F.No.225/261/2015/ITA.II dated 28.10.2015 ( copy available on www.bcasonline.org)

‘Tolerance Range’ For Transfer Pricing Cases For AY 2015-16

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Notification No. 86 /2015/F. No. 500/1/2014-APA-II dated 29.10.15

Where the variation between the arm’s length price determined u/s. 92C and the price at which the international transaction or specified domestic transaction has actually been undertaken does not exceed one percent of the latter in respect of wholesale trading and three percent of the latter in all other cases, the price at which the international transaction or specified domestic transaction has actually been undertaken shall be deemed to be the arm’s length price for Assessment Year 2015-2016.

The CBDT has instructed all CCITs to strictly follow the time limit of six months as specified in sec. 12AA(2) of the Act for passing an order granting or refusing registration and to take suitable administrative action against those officers not adhering to the time limit – Instruction No. 16 of 2015 dated 06.11.2015

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The CBDT has instructed all CCITs to strictly follow the time limit of six months as specified in sec. 12AA(2) of the Act for passing an order granting or refusing registration and to take suitable administrative action against those officers not adhering to the time limit – Instruction No. 16 of 2015 dated 06.11.2015 (copy available on www.bcasonline.org)

CBDT has issued an internal instruction to constitute local committees to deal with taxpayers grievances from high pitched scrutiny assessment – Instruction No. 17/2015 dated 9.11.15 ( copy available on www. bcasonline.org)

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CBDT has issued an internal instruction to constitute local committees to deal with taxpayers grievances from high pitched scrutiny assessment – Instruction No. 17/2015 dated 9.11.15 ( copy available on www. bcasonline.org)

Charitable and religious trust – Anonymous donations – Special rate of tax – Section 115BBC – A. Y. 2009-10 – Exception – Religious trust – Overall activities of trust to be seen – Charitable activity part of religious activity – Assessee is a public religious trust – Special rate not attracted

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CIT vs. Bhagwan Shree Laxmi Narayandham Trust; 378 ITR 222 (Del): 280 CTR 335 (Del):

The assessee was a public religious trust. For the A. Y. 2009-10 the assessee had received anonymus donations to the extent of Rs. 27,25,306/-. The Assessing Officer applied the provisions of section 115BBC of the Incometax Act, 1961 and levied tax at the special rate. The Tribunal held that the Revenue had incorrectly applied section 115BBC to the facts of the assessee’s case.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:
“i) T he question of receipt of anonymus donations could not be addressed within the narrow scope of the specific wordings of some of the clauses of the trust deed but in the overall context of the actual activities in which the trust was involved in including imparting spiritual education to persons of all casts and religions, organizing samagams, distribution of free medicine and cloths to the needy and destitute, provision of free ambulance service for needy and destitute patients and so on.

ii) What can constitute religious activity in the context of Hindu religion need not be confined to the activities incidental to a place of worship like a temple. A Hindu religious institution like the assessee is also engaged in charitable activities which were very much part of the religious activity. In carrying on charitable activities along with organizing of spiritual lectures, the assessee by no means ceased to be religious institution. The activities described by the assessee as having been undertaken by it during the assessment year in question could be included in the broad conspectus of Hindu religious activity when viewed in the context of objects of the trust and its activities in general.

iii) Thus, the Tribunal was justified in coming to the conclusion that for the purpose of section 115BBC(2)(a) anonymus donations received by the assessee would qualify for deduction and it can not be included in its assessable income.”

Capital gain – Short term capital gain or business income – A. Y. 2008-09 – Purchase and sale of shares – Entire investment in shares consistently treated as investment in shares and not stock-intrade – Transactions not of high volume – Own funds used for the purposes of investment in shares – Transactions delivery based – Income to be treated as short term capital gains and not business income

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CIT vs. Smt. Datta Mahendra Shah (Bom)

In the A. Y. 2008-09, the assessee claimed Rs. 9.25 crores as short term capital gain. The Assessing Officer held that it was business income. The Commissioner (Appeals) found that the assessee had been an investor in shares and had consistently treated her entire investment in shares as investment and not stock-intrade. The assessee was dealing in 35 scrips, involving 59 transactions for the entire year could not be considered for high volume so as to be classified as trading income. The assesee had not borrowed any funds but had used her own funds. He held the income to be treated as shortterm capital gains. The Tribunal upheld the decision of the Commissioner (Appeals).

In appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“(i) T he Commissioner (Appeals) considered all the facts including the stand taken by the Revenue as found in the Assessing Officer’s order. On examination of all the facts he came to the conclusion that the activities carried out by the assesee could not be classified under the head “business income” but more appropriately as claimed by the assessee under the head “shortterm capital gains”. This was particularly so on application of the CBDT circular.

(ii) In view of the concurrent finding of fact arrived at by the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal no substantial question of law would arise.”

Business expenditure – Section 37(1) – A. Y. 2009- 10 – Payment made by the assessee law firm to the Indian branch of the International Fiscal Association towards the cost of constructing one of its meeting halls on the understanding that the hall would be named after the assessee firm was deductible as business expenditure

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CIT vs. Vaish Associates; 280 CTR 605 (Del): The assessee, a law firm, had agreed to contribute Rs. 50 lakh to the Indian branch of the International Fiscal Association (IFA) on progressive basis towards the cost of constructing one of its meeting halls on the understanding that the hall would be named after the asessee firm. In the relevant year, i.e. A. Y. 2009-10, the assessee had paid Rs. 19 lakh and the same was claimed as business expenditure. The Assessing Officer disallowed the claim. However, he allowed 50% deduction u/s. 80G of the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Tribunal allowed the full claim u/s. 37(1) of the Act.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) T he Tribunal has accepted the explanation of the assessee that the IFA is a professional body and a non-profit organization engaged in the study of international tax laws and policies. It, inter alia, undertakes research, holds conferences and publishes materials for the use of its members. Mr. Ajay Vora, one of the partners of the assessee firm, was also a member of the executive body of the IFA.

ii) T he contribution made by the assessee to the IFA was held to be for inter alia creating greater awareness of the assessee firm’s activities and therefore an expenditure incurred for the purposes of the profession of the assessee. It was accordingly held to be allowable as a deduction u/s. 37(1) of the Act.”

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s. 14A – A. Y. 2007-08 – Disallowance u/s. 14A is not automatic upon claim to exemption – AO’s satisfaction that voluntary disallowance made by assessee unreasonable and unsatisfactory is necessary – In the absence of such satisfaction the disallowance cannot be justified

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CIT vs. I. P. Support Services India (P) Ltd.; 378 ITR 240 (Del):

In the A. Y. 2009-10, the assessee had earned dividend income which was exempt. The Assessing Officer asked the assessee to furnish an explanation why the expenses relevant to the earning of dividend should not be disallowed u/s. 14A. The assessee submitted that as no expenses had been incurred for earning dividend income, this was not a case for making any disallowance. The assessing Officer held that the invocation of section 14A is automatic and comes into operation, without any exception. He disallowed an amount of Rs. 33,35,986/- u/s. 14A read with rule 8D and added the amount to the total income. The Commissioner (Appeals) found that no interest expenditure was incurred and that the investments were done by using administrative machinery of PMS, who did not charge any fees. He deleted the addition. The Tribunal affirmed the order of the Commissioner (Appeals).

In appeal by the Revenue, the Delhi High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“i) The Assessing Officer had indeed proceeded on the erroneous premise that the invocation of section 14A is automatic and comes into operation as soon as the dividend income is claimed as exempt. The recording of satisfaction as to why the voluntary disallowance made by the assessee was unreasonable or unsatisfactory, is a mandatory requirement of the law.

ii) N o substantial question of law arises. The appeal is dismissed.”

Business expenditure – Disallowance u/s. 14A – A. Y. 2007-08 – Higher disallowance under rule 8D agreed before AO – Assessee could not be bound by such offer – Tribunal justified in reducing the amount of disallowance

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CIT vs. Everest Kanto Cylinders Ltd.; 378 ITR 57 (Bom):

For the A. Y. 2007-08, the assessee and the Assessing Officer worked out the amount disallowable u/s. 14A read with rule 8D at Rs.20,27.896/- Before the Tribunal the assessee pointed out that the disallowance is on a higher side and claimed that a reasonable amount should be disallowed. The Tribunal restricted the disallowance to Rs. 1 lakh.

On appeal by the Revenue, the Bombay High Court upheld the decision of the Tribunal and held as under:

“The Tribunal had gone into the factual aspects in great detail and interpreted the law as it stood on the relevant date. Therefore, the order of the Tribunal restricting the disallowance to Rs. 1 lakh u/s. 14A was justified.”

Housing Project – Special Deduction – Law before 1st April, 2002 – There was no limit fixed in section 80-IB(10) regarding built-up area to be used for commercial purpose in a housing project and it could be constructed to the extent provided in local laws under which local authority gives sanction to the housing project.

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CIT vs. Veena Developers [SLP (c) No.22450 of 2011 dated 30-4-2015]

The assessees had undertaken construction projects which were approved by the municipal authorities/local authorities as housing projects. On that basis, they claimed deduction u/s. 80IB(10) of the Act.

However, the income tax authorities rejected the claim of deduction on the ground that the projects were not “housing project” inasmuch as some commercial activity was also undertaken in those projects. This contention of the Revenue was not accepted by the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal as well as the High Court. The High Court interpreted the expression “housing project” by giving grammatical meaning thereto as housing project is not defined under the Income-tax Act insofar as the aforesaid provision is concerned. The High Court held that since sub-section (10) of section 80-IB very categorically mentioned that such a project which is undertaken as housing project is approved by a local authority, once the project is approved by the local authority it is to be treated as the housing project. The High Court had made observations in the context of Development Control Regulations (hereinafter referred to as ‘DCRs’ in short) under which the local authority sanctions the housing projects and noted that in these DCRs itself, an element of commercial activity is provided but the total project is still treated as housing project. The Supreme Court noted that on the basis of this discussion, after modifying some of the directions given by the ITAT , the conclusions arrived at by the High Court were as follows:-

a) Upto 31/3/2005 (subject to fulfilled other conditions), deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) is allowable to housing projects approved by the local authority having residential units with commercial user to the extent permitted under DC Rules/Regulations framed by the respective local authority.

b) I n such a case, where the commercial user permitted by the local authority is within the limits prescribed under the DC Rules/Regulation, the deduction u/s. 80- IB(10) upto 31/3/2005 would be allowable irrespective of the fact that the project is approved as ‘housing project’ or ‘residential plus commercial’.

c) I n the absence of any provision under the Income-tax Act, the Tribunal was not justified in holding that upto 31/3/2015 deduction u/s. 80-IB(10) would be allowable to the projects approved by the local authority having residential building with commercial user upto 10% of the total built-up area of the plot.

d) Since deductions u/s. 80-IB(10) is on the profits derived from the housing projects approved by the local authority as a whole, the Tribunal was not justified in restricting section 80-IB(10) deduction only to a part of the project. However, in the present case, since the assessee has accepted the decision of the Tribunal in allowing section 80-IB(10) deduction to a part of the project, the findings of the Tribunal in that behalf were not disturbed.

e) Clause (d) inserted to section 80IB(10) with effect from 1/4/2005 was prospective and not retrospective and hence could not be applied for the period prior to 1/4/2005.

The Supreme Court agreed with the aforesaid answers given by the High Court to the various issues. The Supreme Court however, clarified that in so far as answer at para (a) was concerned, it would mean those projects which were approved by the local authorities as housing projects with commercial element therein.

There was much debate on the answer given in para (b) above before the Supreme Court. It was argued by learned senior counsel, for the Revenue that a project which was cleared as “residential plus commercial” project could not be treated as housing project and therefore, this direction was contrary to the provisions of section 80-IB(10) of the Act. However, according to the Supreme Court reading the direction in its entirety and particularlly the first sentence thereof, the commercial user which was permitted was in the residential units and that too, as per DCR.

The Supreme Court clarified that direction (b) was to be read in the context where the project was predominantly housing/residential project but the commercial activity in the residential units was permitted.

Housing Project – Special Deduction- Section 80IB(10) – Change of Law with effect from 1st April, 2005 – Cannot be applied to those projects which were sanctioned and commenced prior to 1st April, 2005 and completed by the stipulated date though such stipulated date is after 1st April, 2005.

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CIT vs. Sarkar Builders (2015) 375 ITR 392(SC)

The question of law that arose for consideration before the Supreme Court was formulated by it as under:

“Whether section 80-IB(10)(d) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, applies to a housing project approved before March 31, 2005, but completed on or after April 1, 2005”?

The Supreme Court observed that sub-section (10) of section 80IB stipulates certain conditions which are to be satisfied in order to avail of the benefit of the said provision. Further, the benefit is available to those undertakings which are developing and building “housing projects” approved by a local authority. Thus, this section is applicable in respect of housing projects and not commercial projects. At the same time, it is a fact that even in the housing projects, there would be some are for commercial purposes as certain shops and commercial establishments area needed even in a housing project.

That has been judicially recognised while interpreting the provision that existing before 1st April, 2005 in CIT vs. Veena Developers [SLP (c) No.22450/2011 dated 30-4- 2015], and there was no limit fixed in section 80-IB(10) regarding the built-up area to be used for commercial purpose in the said housing project. The extent to which such commercial area could be constructed was as per the local laws under which local authority gave the sanction to the housing project. However, vide clause (d), which was inserted by the aforesaid amendment and made effective from 1st April, 2005, it was stipulated that the built-up area of the shops and other commercial establishments in the housing projects would not exceed 5 % of the aggregate built-up area of the housing project or 2,000 square feet, whichever is less (there is a further amendment whereby 5 % is reduced to 3 % and instead of the words “2,000 square feet, whichever is less” the words “5,000 square feet, whichever is higher” have been substituted). According to the Supreme Court, the question, thus, that required for consideration was as to whether in respect of those housing projects which finished on or after 1st April, 2005, though sanctioned and started much earlier, the aforesaid stipulation contained to clause (d) also has to be satisfied. The Supreme Court noted that all the High Courts have held that since this amendment is prospective and has come into effect from 1st April, 2005, this condition would not apply to those housing projects which had been sanctioned and stared earlier even if they finished after 1st April, 2005.

The Supreme Court noted that with effect from 1st April, 2001, section 80-IB(10) stipulated that any housing project approved by the local authority before 31st March, 2001, was entitled to a deduction of 100 % of the profits derived in any previous year relevant to any assessment year from such housing project, provided—(i) the construction/ development of the said housing project commenced on after 1st October, 1998, and was completed before 31st March, 2003; (ii) the housing project was on a size of a plot of land which had a minimum area of one acre; and (iii) each individual residential unit had a maximum built-up area of 1,000 square feet, where such housing project was situated within the cities of Delhi or Mumbai or within 25 kms. from municipal limits of these cities, and a maximum built-up area of 1,500 square feet at any other place. Therefore, for the first time, a stipulation was added with reference to the date of approval, namely, that approval had to be accorded to the housing project by the local authority before 31st March, 2001. Before this amendment, there was no date prescribed for the approval being granted by the local authority to the housing project. Prior to this amendment, as long as the development/ construction commenced on or after 1st October, 1998, and was completed before 31st March, 2001, the assessee was entitled to the deduction. Also by this amendment, the date of completion was changed from 31st March, 2001, to 31st March, 2003. Everything else remained untouched.

Thereafter, by the Finance Act, 2003, further amendments were made to section 80-IB(10). The only changes that were brought about were that with effect from 1st April, 2002: (i) the housing project had to be approved before 31st March, 2005; and (ii) there was no time limit prescribed for completion of the said project. Though these changes were brought about by the Finance Act, 2003, the Legislature thought it fit tht these changes be deemed to have been brought into effect from 1st April, 2002. All the remaining provisions of section 80-IB(10) remained unchanged.

Thereafter, significant amendment, with which the Supreme Court was directly concerned, was carried out by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2004, with effect from 1st April, 2005. The Legislature made substantial changes in subsection (10). Several new conditions were incorporated for the first time, including the condition mentioned in clause (d). This condition/restriction was not on the statute book earlier when all these projects were sanctioned. Another important amendment was made by this Act to sub-section (14) of section 80-IB with effect from 1st April, 2005, and for the first time under clause (a) thereof the words “built-up area” were defined.

Prior to the insertion of section 80-IB(14)(a), in many of the rules and regulations of the local authority approving the housing project “built-up area” did not include projections and balconies. Probably, taking advantage of this fact, builders provided large balconies and projections making the residential units far bigger than as stipulated in section 80-IB(10), and yet claimed the deduction under the said provision. To plug this lacuna, clause (a) was inserted in section 80-IB(14) defining the words “built-up area” to mean the inner measurements of the residential unit at the floor level, including the projections and balconies, as increased by the thickness of the walls but did not include the common areas shared with other residential units.

According to the Supreme Court, the only way to resolve the issue was to hold that clause (d) is to be treated as inextricably linked with the approval and construction of the housing project and an assessee cannot be called upon to comply with the said condition when it is not in contemplation either of the assessee or even the Legislature, when the housing project was accorded approval by the local authorities.

The Supreme Court held that by way of an amendment in the form of clause (d), an attempt is made to restrict the size of the said shops and/or commercial establishments. Therefore, by necessary implication, the said provision has to be read prospectively and not retrospectively. As is clear from the amendment, this provision came into effect only from the day the provision was substituted. Therefore, it cannot be applied to those projects which were sanctioned and commenced prior to 1st April, 2005, and completed by the stipulated date, though such stipulated date is after 1st April, 2005. According to the Supreme Court, these aspects were dealt with by various High Courts elaborately and convincingly in their judgments and had taken a correct view that the assesses were entitled to the benefit of section 80-IB(10). The Supreme Court dismissed the appeals filed by the Revenue.

Surtax – Exemption – Agreements with foreign companies for services or facilities for supply of ship, aircraft, machinery and plant to be used in connection with the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils – Chargeable profits are liable to tax under the Companies (Profits) Surtax Act, 1964 – Exemption vide Notification No.GSR 370(E) dated 31-3-1983 u/s. 24AA not available.

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Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd. vs. CIT (2015) 377 ITR 117(SC)

Section 24AA of the Surtax Act, vests in the Central Government the power to make exemption, reduction in rate or other modification in respect of surtax in favour of any class of foreign companies which are specified in s/s. (2), in regard to the whole or any part of the chargeable profits liable to tax under the Surtax Act. Sub-section (2) of section 24AA refers to two categories of foreign companies. The first is foreign companies with whom the Central Government has entered into agreements for association or participation, including participation by any authorised person, in any business consisting of the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils. The second category of foreign companies mentioned in s/s. (2) is foreign companies that may be providing services or facilities or supplying any ship, aircraft, machinery or plant in connection with any business of prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils carried on by the Central Government or any authorised person. Specifically the section states that mineral oils will include petroleum and natural gas.

The exemption notification bearing No. G. S. R. 307(E), dated 31st March, 1983, specifically grants exemption in respect of surtax in favour of foreign companies with whom the Central Government has entered into agreements for association or participation of that Government or any authorised person in the business of prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils.

The ONGC had executed agreements with different foreign companies for services or facilities or for supply of ship, aircraft, machinery and plant, as may be, all of which were to be used in connection with the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils. Such agreements did not contemplate a direct association or participation of the ONGC in the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils but involved the taking of services and facilities or use of plant or machinery which is connected with the business of prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils.

In the above situation, the primary authority took the view that the agreements executed by the ONGC with the foreign companies being for services to be rendered and such agreements not being for association or participation in the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils, would not be covered by the exemption notification in question which by its very language granted exemption only to foreign companies with whom there were agreements for participation by the Central Government or the person authorised in the business of prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oils. The agreements in question, according to assessing authority, were, therefore “service agreements” and, hence, covered by sub-section (2)(b) of section 24AA of the Surtax Act and were, accordingly, beyond the purview of the exemption modification.

The said view was reversed by the learned Appellate Commissioner and upheld by the learned Income-tax Appellate Tribunal. In the appeal u/s. 260A of the Act, the High Court of Uttarakhand overturned the view taken by the Appellate Commissioner and the learned Tribunal.

The Supreme Court held that section 24AA of the Surtax Act vests power in the Central Government, inter-alia, to grant exemption to foreign companies with whom agreements have been executed by the Central Government for association or participation in the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils and also to foreign companies who are providing support services or facilities or making available plant and machinery in connection with the business of prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils in which the Central Government or an authorised person is associated. In other words, the power to grant exemption is two-fold and covers agreements directly associated with the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils or contracts facilitating or making available services in connection with such a business. There is nothing in the provisions of the Act which could have debarred the Central Government from granting exemptions to both categories of foreign companies mentioned above or to confine the grant of exemption to any one or a specified category of foreign companies. The Notification No. G. S. R. 307(E), dated 31st March, 1983, however grants exemption only to foreign companies with whom the Central Government had executed agreements for direct association or participation by the Central Government or the person authorised by it (ONGC) in the prospecting or extraction or production of mineral oils. In other words, the exemption notification confines or restricts the scope of the exemption to only one category of foreign companies which has been specifically enumerated in sub-section (2)(a) of section 24AA of the Surtax Act. The Second category of foreign companies that may be providing services as enumerated in sub-section (2)(b) of section 24AA is specifically omitted in the exemption notification. The power u/s. 24AA of the Surtax Act, is wide enough to include even this category of foreign companies. The omission of this particular category of foreign companies in the exemption notification, notwithstanding the wide amplitude and availability of the power u/s. 24AA, clearly reflects a conscious decision on the part of the Central Government to confine the scope of the exemption notification to only those foreign companies that are enumerated in and covered by sub-section 2(a) of section 24AA of the Surtax Act.

The Supreme Court affirmed the orders of the High Court and dismissed the appeals.

Non-Resident – Income deemed to accrue or arise in India – Prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oils – Presumptive Tax – If the works or services mentioned under a particular agreement was directly associated or inextricably connected with prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oils, payments made under such agreement to a non-resident/foreign company would be chargeable to tax under the provisions of section 44BB and not section 44D of the Act.

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Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Ltd. vs. CIT (2015) 376 ITR 306 (SC)

The appellant – ONGC and a non-resident/foreign company one M/s. Foramer France had entered into an agreement by which the non-resident company had agreed to make available supervisory staff and personnel having experience and expertise for operation and management of drilling rigs Sagar Jyoti and Sagar Pragati for the assessment year 1985-86 and the drilling rig Sagar Ratna for the assessment year 1986-87.

The appellant – ONGC has been assessed in a representative capacity on behalf of the foreign company with whom it had executed agreements for services to be rendered by such company in connection with prospecting extraction or production of mineral oils by ONGC. The primary/assessing authority took the view that the assessments should be made u/s. 44D of the Act and not section 44BB of the Act. The Appellate Commissioner and the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal disagreed with the views of the assessing authorities leading to the institution of appeal before the High Court of Uttarakhand. The High Court overturned the view taken by the Appellate Commissioner and the Tribunal and held the payments made to be liable for assessment u/s. 44D of the Act.

The High Court took the view that under the agreement, payment to M/s. Foramer France was required to be made at the rate of 3,450 $ per day and that the contract clearly contemplated rendering of technical services by personnel of the non-resident company as the contract did not mention that the personnel of the non-resident company were also carrying out the work of drilling of wells and as the company had received fees for rendering service, the payments made were liable to be taxed under the provisions of section 44D of the Act.

Aggrieved, the ONGC has filed appeal before the Supreme Court.

The Supreme Court held that a careful reading of the provisions of the Act goes to show that u/s. 44BB(1) in the case of a non-resident providing services or facilities in connection with or supplying plant and machinery used or to be used in prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oils the profit and gains from such business chargeable to tax is to be calculated at a sum equal to 10 per cent of the aggregate of the amounts paid or payable to such non-resident assessee as mentioned in s/s. (2). On the other hand, section 44D contemplates that if the income of a foreign company with which the Government or an Indian concern had an agreement executed before 1st April, 1976, or on any date thereafter but before April, 2003 the computation of income would be made as contemplated under the aforesaid section 44D. Explanation (a) to section 44D, however, specifies that “fees for technical services” as mentioned in section 44D would have the same meaning as in Explanation 2 to clause (vii) of section 9(1). The said Explanation, defines “fees for technical services” to mean consideration for rendering of any managerial, technical or consultancy services. However, the later part of the Explanation excludes from consideration for the purposes of the expression, i.e., “fees for technical services” any payment received for construction, assembly, mining or like project undertaken by the recipient or consideration which would be chargeable under the head “Salaries”. Fees for technical services, therefore, by virtue of the aforesaid Explanation would not include payments made in connection with a mining project.

The Supreme Court noted that the Income-tax Act does not define the expressions “mines” or “minerals”. The said expressions however were found defined and explained in the Mines Act, 1952, and the Oil Fields (Development and Regulations) Act, 1948. The Supreme Court having regard to the said definition and to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, held that drilling operations for the purpose of production of petroleum would clearly amount to a mining activity or a mining operation. Viewed thus, it was the proximity of the works contemplated under an agreement, executed with a non-resident assessee or a foreign company, with mining activity or a mining operation that would be crucial for the determination of the question whether the payments made under such an agreement to the non-resident assessee or the foreign company is to be assessed u/s. 44BB or section 44D of the Act. The Supreme Court noted that the Central Board of Direct Taxes had accepted the said test and had in fact issued a Circular as far back as 22nd October, 1990, to the effect that mining operations and the expressions “mining projects” or “like projects” occurring in Explanation 2 to section 9(1) of the Act would cover rendering of service like imparting of training and carrying out drilling operations for exploration of and extraction of oil and natural gas and, hence, payments made under such agreement to a non-resident/foreign company would be chargeable to tax under the provisions of section 44BB and not section 44D of the Act.

According to the Supreme Court, it was not possible to take any other view if the works or services mentioned under a particular agreement was directly associated or inextricably connected with prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oils. Keeping in mind the above provisions and looking into each of the contracts involved in the group of cases before it, it found that the pith and substance of each of the contracts/agreements was inextricably connected with prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oil. The dominant purpose of each of such agreement was for prospecting, extraction or production of mineral oils though there would be certain ancillary works contemplated thereunder. The Supreme Court therefore held that the payments made by ONGC and received by the non-resident assessees or foreign companies under the said contracts was more appropriately assessable under the provisions of section 44BB and not section 44D of the Act.

Capital Gains – Exemption u/s. 54G – Transfer of Unit from Urban Area to Non-Urban Area – Advances paid for the purpose of purchase and/or acquisition of the assets would certainly amount to utilisation by the assessee of the capital gains made by him for the purpose of purchasing and/ or acquiring the aforesaid assets.

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Fire Boards (P) Ltd. vs. CIT [2015] 376 ITR 596 (SC)

The assessee, a private limited company, had an industrial unit at Majiwada, Thane, which was notified urban area as per notification dated 22nd September, 1967 issued u/s. 280Y(d) for the purpose of Chapter XXII-B. With a view to shift its industrial undertaking from an urban area to a non-urban area at Kurukumbh Village, Pune District, Maharashtra, it sold its land, building and plant and machinery situated at Majiwada, Thane to Shree Vardhman Trust for a consideration of Rs.1,20,00,000, and after deducting an amount of Rs.11,62,956, had earned a capital gain of Rs.1,08,33,044. Since it intended to shift its industrial undertaking from an urban area to a non-urban area, out of the capital gain so earned, the appellant paid by way of advances, various amounts to different persons for purchase of land, plant and machinery, construction of factory building, etc. Such advances amounted to Rs.1,11,42,973 in the year 1991-92. The appellant claimed exemption u/s. 54G of the Income-tax Act on the entire capital gain earned from the sale proceeds of its erstwhile industrial undertaking situated in Thane in view of the advances so made being more than the capital gain made by it. Section 54G was introduced by the Finance Act, 1987 with effect from assessment year 1988-89.

The Assessing Officer imposed a tax on capital gains, refusing to grant exemption to the appellant u/s. 54G. According to the Assessing Officer, non-urban area had not been notified by the Central Government and therefore the plea of shifting the non-urban area could not be accepted. Further, it could not be said that giving advance to different concerns meant utilisation of money for acquiring the assets. Hence, failure to deposit the capital gain in the Capital Gains Deposit Account by the assessee the claim could not be allowed.

The Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) dismissed the appellant’s appeal. The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal however, allowed the assessee’s appeal stating that even an agreement to purchase is good enough and that the Explanation to section 54G being declaratory in nature would be retrospective.

The High Court reversed the judgment of the Incometax Appellate Tribunal and held that as the notification declaring Thane to be an urban area stood repealed with the repeal of the section under which it was made, the appellant did not satisfy the basic condition necessary to attract section 54G, namely, that a transfer had to be made from an urban area to a non-urban area. Further, the expression “purchase” in section 54G could not be equated with the expression “towards purchase” and, therefore, admittedly as land, plant and machinery had not been purchased in the assessment year in question, the exemption contained in section 54G had to be denied.

The Supreme Court held that on a conjoint reading of the Budget Speech, Notes on clauses and Memorandum Explaining the Finance Bill of 1987, it was clear that the idea of omitting section 280ZA and introducing on the same date section 54G was to do away with the tax credit certificate scheme together with the prior approval required by the Board and to substitute the repealed provision with the new scheme contained in section 54G. It was true that section 280Y(d) was only omitted by the Finance Act, 1990, and was not omitted together with section 280ZA. However, this would make no material difference inasmuch as section 280Y(d) was a definition section defining ‘urban area” for the purpose of section 280ZA only and for no other purposes. It was clear that once section 280ZA was omitted from the statute book, section 280Y(d) had no independent existence and would for all practical purposes also be “dead”. Quite apart from this, section 54G(1) by its Explanation introduced the very definition contained in section 280Y(d) in the same terms. Obviously, both provisions were not expected to be applied simultaneously and it was clear that the Explanation to section 54G(1) repealed by implication section 280Y(d). Further, from a reading of the Notes on Clauses and the Memorandum of the Finance Bill, 1990, it was clear that section 280Y(d) which was omitted with effect from 1st April 1, 1990, was so omitted because it had become “redundant”. It was redundant because it had no independent existence, apart from providing a definition of “urban area” for the purpose of section 280ZA which had been omitted with effect from the very date that section 54G was inserted, namely, 1st April, 1988.

The Supreme Court further held that the idea of section 24 of the General Clauses Act is, as its marginal note shows, to continue uninterrupted subordinate legislation that may be made under a Central Act that is repealed and re-enacted with or without modification. It being clear in the present case that section 280ZA which was repealed by omission and re-enacted with modification in section 54G, the notification declaring Thane to be an urban area dated 22nd September, 1967, would continue under and for the purposes of section 54G. It was clear, therefore, that the impugned judgment in not referring to section 24 of the General Clauses Act at all had thus fallen into error.

The Supreme Court for all the aforesaid reasons was therefore, of the view that on omission of section 280ZA and its re-enactment with modification in section 54G, section 24 of the General Clauses Act would apply, and the notification of 1967, declaring Thane to be an urban area, would be continued under and for the purposes of section 54G. The Supreme Court held that a reading of section 54G makes it clear that the assessee is given a window of three years after the date on which transfer has taken place to “purchase” new machinery or plant or “acquire” building or land. The High Court had completely missed the window of three years given to the assessee to purchase or acquire machinery and building or land. This is why the expression used in section 54G(2) is “which is not utilised by him for all or any of the purposes aforesaid.” According to the Supreme Court, it was clear that for the assessment year in question all that was required for the assessee to avail of the exemption contained in the section was to “utilize” the amount of capital gains for purchase and acquisition of new machinery or plant and building or land. It was undisputed that the entire amount claimed in the assessment year in question had been so “utilized” for purchase and/or acquisition of new machinery or plant and land or building. If the High Court was right, the assessee had to purchase and/or acquire machinery, plant, land and building within the same assessment year in which the transfer takes place. Further, the High Court missed the key words “not utilized” in sub-section (2) which would show that it was enough that the capital gain made by the assessee should only be “utilized” by him in the assessment year in question for all or any of the purposes aforesaid, that is towards purchase and acquisition of plant and machinery, and land and building. Advances paid for the purpose of purchase and/or acquisition of the aforesaid assets would certainly amount to utilisation by the assessee of the capital gains made by him for the purpose of purchasing and/or acquiring the aforesaid assets.

Power of High Court to Review – High Courts being courts of record under Article 215 of the Constitution of India, the power of review would inherent in them and section 260A(7) does not purport in any manner to curtail or restrict the application of the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure.

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CIT vs. Meghalaya Steels Ltd. [2015] 377 ITR 112 (SC)

In the first judgment of the High Court dated 16th September, 2010, various points on the merits were gone into, inter alia, as to whether deductions to be made u/s. 80-IB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, were allowable on facts and whether transport subsidies were or were not available together with other incentive. Ultimately, the High Court after stating in paragraph 2 that two substantial questions of law arose u/s. 260A of the Income-tax Act went on to answer the two questions. The first question so framed was answered in the negative, that is in favour of the Revenue, and against the assessee. However, the second question was answered in the affirmative, in favour of the assessee, and against Revenue, and the appeal was disposed of in the aforesaid terms.

Against the aforesaid judgment dated 16th September, 2010, a Review Petition was filed by the assessee before the very Division Bench. In a long judgement dated 8th April, 2013, the Division Bench recalled its earlier order dated 16th September, 2010 for the reason that there was an omission to formulate the substantial questions of law. Before the Supreme Court Learned Senior Advocate appearing on behalf of the Revenue, assailed the aforesaid judgment dated 8th April, 2013, stating that it was factually incorrect that no substantial question of law have been framed and that such questions were to be found in the very beginning of the judgment dated 16th September, 2010, itself. He further argued, referring to section 260A(7), that only those provisions of the Civil Procedure Code could be looked into for the purposes of section 260A as were relevant to the disposal of appeals, and since the review provision contained in the Code of Civil Procedure were not so referred to, the High Court would have no jurisdiction u/s. 260A to review such judgment.

The Supreme Court noted that by the review order dated 8th April, 2013, the Division Bench felt that it should not have gone into the matter at all given the fact that on an earlier occasion, before 16th September, 2010, it had reserved the judgment on whether substantial questions of law in fact exist at all or not. This being the case, in a lengthy order the Division Bench has thought it fit to recall its own earlier judgment.

The Supreme Court in such circumstances was not inclined to interfere with the judgment in view of what had been recorded in the impugned judgment dated 8th April, 2013. The Supreme Court further held that High Courts being courts of record under article 215 of the Constitution of India, the power of review would in fact be inherent in them. Also on reading of section 260A(7), it was clear that the said section did not purport in any manner to curtail or restrict the application of the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure. Section 260A(7) only states that all the provisions that would apply qua appeals in the Code of Civil Procedure would apply to appeals u/s. 260A. That does not in any manner suggest either that the other provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure are necessarily excluded or that the High Court’s inherent jurisdiction is in any manner affected.

Wealth Tax – Valuation of Asset – “Price that asset would fetch in market” – Valuation of vacant land in excess of ceiling limit could only be valued at the amount of maximum compensation under the Ceiling Act.

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S. N. Wadiyar (Decd. Through L. R.) vs. CWT [2015] 378 ITR 9 (SC)

The appellant was assessed to wealth-tax under the Act for the assessment years 1977-78 to 1986-87. The valuation of the property which was the subject matter of wealth-tax under the Act was the urban land appurtenant to the Bangalore Palace (hereinafter referred to as “the property”). The total extent of the property was 554 acres or 1837365.36 sq. mtrs. It comprised of residential units, non-residential units and land appurtenant thereto, roads and masonry structures along the contour and the vacant land. The vacant land measured 11,66,377.34 sq.mtrs. The aforesaid property was the private property of the late Sri Jaychamarajendra Wodeyar, the former ruler of the princely State of Mysore. He died on 23rd September, 1974. After the death of Sri Jaychamarajendra Wodeyar, his son Sri Srikantadatta Wodeyar, the assessee applied to the Settlement Commission to get the dispute settled with regard to valuation of property and lands appurtenant thereto for the assessment years 1967-68 to 1976-77.

The application of the assessee before the Settlement Commission for the assessment years 1967-68 to 1976- 77 was disposed of on 29th September, 1988 laying down norms for valuation of the property. The Wealthtax Officer adopted the value as per the Settlement Commission for the assessment years 1976-77, 1977- 78 and 1978-79 at Rs.13.18 crore (for both land and buildings). For the assessment year 1979-80, since there was no report of the Valuation Officer, the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) worked out the value of the property at Rs.19.96 crore for the assessment year 1979- 80, which was adopted by the Wealth-tax Officer for the assessment year 1980-81 as well. For the assessment years 1981-82, 1982-83 and 1983-84, the Wealth-tax Officer fixed the value of land and building at Rs.18.78 crore, Rs.29.85 crore and Rs.29.85 crore, respectively. For the assessment year 1984-85, the Wealth-tax Officer took the value at Rs.31.22 crore on the basis of the order passed by the Commissioner (Appeals) for earlier years.

The orders of the Wealth-tax Officer passed under the Act fixing the value of the land for different assessment years for the purpose of the Act was challenged by the assessee before the Commissioner (Appeals). In these appeals, the contention of the assessee was that the value of the property was covered by the Ceiling Act for which maximum compensation that could be received by the assessee was only Rs.2 lakh. The appeals filed for the assessment years, namely, 1980-81, 1982-83 and 1983- 84 were disposed of by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) by a common order dated 9th January, 1990, in which he made slight modifications to value adopted for the assessment year 1981-82 and confirmed the valuation of the Wealth-tax Officer for the assessment years 1982-83 and 1983-84. However, in respect of appeals relating to the assessment years 1977-78 to 1980-81, the Commissioner (Appeals) passed the orders dated 31st July, 1990, accepting that the urban land appurtenant to the property be valued at Rs.2,00,000. Similar orders came to be passed by the Commissioner of Incometax (Appeals) for the assessment years 1984-85 and 1985-86 also. Against these orders of the Commissioner (Appeals), both the assessee as well as the Revenue/ Department went up in appeals before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Bangalore Bench, Bangalore.

The issue before the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal was only with regard to the valuation of vacant land attached to the property since the assessee had accepted the valuation in regard to residential and non-residential structures within the said property area and appurtenant land thereto.

The Income-tax Appellate Tribunal, Bangalore, passed the order directing the vacant land be valued at Rs.2 lakh for each year from the assessment years 1977-78 to 1985-86. Its reasoning was that the competent authority under the Ceiling Act had passed an order determining that the vacant land was in excess of the ceiling limit, and had ordered that action be taken to acquire the excess land under the Karnataka Town and Country Planning Act, 1901. And under the Land Ceiling Act, an embargo was placed on the assessee to sell the subject land and exercise full rights. The assessee was only eligible to maximum compensation of Rs.2 lakh under the Ceiling Act. Hence, given these facts and circumstances the subject land could only be valued at Rs.2 lakh for wealthtax purposes on the valuation date for the assessment years 1977-78 to 1985-86.

Against the order of the Tribunal, the Commissioner of Wealth-tax sought reference before the Karnataka High Court in respect of the assessment years, namely, 1977-78 to 1985-86 arising out of the consolidated order of the Tribunal.

The High Court, vide the impugned order dated 13th June, 2005 holding that although the prohibition and restriction contained in the Ceiling Act had the effect of decreasing the value of the property, still the value of the land cannot be the maximum compensation that is payable under the provision of the Ceiling Act. Thus, the question referred had been answered against the assessee.

The Supreme Court observed that the valuation of the asset in question has to be in the manner provided u/s. 7 of the Act. Such a valuation has to be on the valuation date which has reference to the last day of the previous year as defined u/s. 3 of the Income-tax Act, if an assessment was to be made under that Act for that year. In other words, it is 31st March, immediately preceding the assessment year. The valuation arrived at as on that date of the asset is the valuation on which wealth-tax is assessable. It is clear from the reading of section 7 of the Act that the Assessing Officers has to keep hypothetical situation in mind, namely, if the asset in question is to be sold in the open market, what price it would fetch. The Assessing Officer has to form an opinion about the estimation of such a price that is likely to be received if the property were to be sold. There is no actual sale and only a hypothetical situation of a sale is to be contemplated by the Assessing Officers. The tax officer has to form an opinion about the estimated price if the asset were to be sold in the assumed market and the estimated price would be the one which an assumed wiling purchaser would pay for it. On these reckoning, the asset has to be valued in the ordinary way.

The Supreme Court noted that the effect of the provisions of the Urban Land (Ceiling and Regulation) Act, 1976 in the context of instant appeals was that the vacant land in excess of the ceiling limit was not acquired by the State Government as notification u/s. 10(1) of the Ceiling Act had not been issued. However, the process had started as the assessee had filed statement in the prescribed form as per the provisions of section 6(1) of the Ceiling Act and the competent authority had also prepared a draft statement u/s. 8 which was duly served upon the assessee. The fact remained that so long as the Act was operative, by virtue of section 3 the assessee was not entitled to hold any vacant land in excess of the ceiling limit. Order was also passed to the effect that the maximum compensation payable was Rs.2 lakh.

The Supreme Court held that the Assessing Officer took into consideration the price which the property would have fetched on the valuation date, i.e., the market price, as if it was not under the rigours of the Ceiling Act. Such estimation of the price which the asset would have fetched if sold in the open market on the valuation date(s), would clearly be wrong even on the analogy/rationale given by the High Court as it accepted that restrictions and prohibitions under the Ceiling Act would have depressing effect on the value of the asset. Therefore, the valuation as done by the Assessing Officer could not have been accepted. The Supreme Court observed that it was not oblivious of those categories of buyers who may buy “disputed properties” by taking risks with the hope that legal proceedings may ultimately be decided in favour of the assessee and in such a eventuality they were going to get much higher value. However, as stated above, hypothetical presumptions of such sales are to be discarded as one has to keep in mind the conduct of a reasonable person and “ordinary way” of the presumptuous sale.

The Supreme Court held that when such a presumed buyer is not going to offer more than Rs.2 lakh, the obvious answer is that the estimated price which such asset would fetch if sold in the open market on the valuation date(s) would not be more than Rs.2 lakh. The Supreme Court having held so pointed out one aspect which was missed by the Commissioner (Appeals) and the Tribunal as well while deciding the case in favour of the assessee. The compensation of Rs.2 lakh was in respect of only the “excess land” which was covered by sections 3 and 4 of the Ceiling Act. The Supreme Court held that the total vacant land for the purpose of the Wealth-tax Act is not only excess land but other part of the land which would have remained with the assessee in any case. Therefore, the valuation of the excess land, which was the subject matter of the Ceiling Act, would be Rs.2 lakh. To that market value of the remaining land would have to be added for the purpose of arriving at the valuation for payment of wealth-tax. 

Appellate Tribunal – Difference of Opinion between Members of Bench on factual matters – Advice to Tribunal – Disagreement and dissent to be avoided by meaningful discussion and continuous dialogue.

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Commissioner of Customs (II) vs. Nitin Aminchand Shah 2015 (323) ELT 466 (Bom.)

In the initial order passed on 6-8-2013 by the CESTAT, there was difference of opinion between the Member (Judicial) and the Member (Technical). The Member (Judicial) was of the opinion that for the reasons indicated by him, the appeals of the assessee deserved to be allowed. Whereas the Member (Technical) passed a separate order upholding the Department’s stand, but yet remanded the case to the Commissioner for ascertaining the value of the impugned goods by constituting a Panel in accordance with the Departmental instructions.

On account of this difference of opinion, the matter was referred by the President, CESTAT to a Third Member. In the meanwhile, the importers filed rectification of mistake applications pointing out the alleged mistake in the initial order of the Tribunal dated 6-8-2013. As was expected, even when these applications for rectification were placed before the same Bench, the Members thereof differed. The applications were admitted by the Member (Judicial) whereas the Member (Technical) recorded a separate order. That separate order of the Member (Technical) did not conclude the applications for rectification of mistake. Thereafter, the rectification applications were finally decided on 8-12-2014 but recording a dissent and difference of opinion between the two Members.

Then, this difference of opinion was also marked and referred to the same Third Member who was to resolve the disagreement in the initial order dated 6-8-2013.

The Hon’ble Court observed that this was one more instance where the Members of the Bench have differed and recorded dissenting opinions. By consent of both sides, the appeals decided by the initial order dated 6-8-2013 were restored to the file of the CESTAT for being decided afresh in accordance with law. The Hon’ble Court further advised that the Tribunal should bear in mind the caution administered by the Court in case of the Starto Electro Equipments Pvt. Ltd. vs. UOI 2015 (318) ELT 55
(Bom) and all such decisions rendered prior thereto. Why should there be a difference of opinion on factual matters? By some meaningful discussion, continuous dialogue and by not demonstrating unnecessary haste, disagreements and dissents can be avoided.

Swachh Bharat cess exemplifies how the Indian tax payer is taken for granted – Roll it back

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These are taxing times. Finance minister Arun Jaitley’s fiscal policy
this year has been characterised by a combination of higher tax rates,
removal of tax exemptions and a new tax. So successful has j aitley’s
strategy of enhancing the tax burden been that indirect taxes this
financial year have grown almost twice as fast as his original target in
an economy with muted demand. j aitley often promises foreign investors
a stable and rational tax regime. h e should consider extending the
same courtesy to i ndian tax payers.

India has an annual budget intended to raise revenues for carrying out basic public welfare functions such as education, health and sanitation. i f these have to be funded through additional cesses and surcharges, that raises the question whether normal budgetary revenues are being frittered away on sops to vested interests – exemplifying maximum government, minimum governance. t here has been a constant increase in collections through different kinds of cess and surcharge. t heir collections exceeded r s. 1 trillion in 2013-14, or 13.14% of gross tax revenue. A cess today is levied on an extraordinarily wide range of activities, from salt to “cine workers”.

The rationale for every additional cess gets more and more unconvincing – we need to cease taxation by stealth. a mong the problems with the Swachh Bharat cess is that it runs counter to the spirit of cooperative federalism as revenue raised through a cess or surcharge is excluded from the pool that is split between Centre and states. C a G has pointed out that there is inadequate transparency and incomplete reporting in government accounts of the manner in which the money is spent. Jaitley’s fiscal policy is also an example of schizophrenia in i ndia’s economic policymaking. t he government constantly urges r B i to cut interest rates to stimulate demand but also follows a tax policy which limits demand.

Given that it imposes an additional burden, a levy should need a powerful reason. a clean energy cess imposed specifically on dirty fossil fuels and ploughed back specifically into clean energy projects makes sense, as it improves our environment. But a cess to carry out a basic function such as sanitation is an example of taking people for granted. i t must be rolled back.
Indians provide the lion’s share of India’s savings and investment. t hey deserve the same consideration as foreign investors.

[2015] 63 taxmann.com 43 (Bangalore – Trib.) Food World Supermarkets Ltd vs. DDIT A.Y.: 2008-09, Date of Order: 28-10-2015

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Section 9(1)(vii), the Act – reimbursement made for salaries of secondees was FTS since they were performing services based on their technical knowledge; matter remanded to examine the issue whether secondment constitutes service PE under the Act and consequently, is subject to section 44DA of the Act

Facts
The taxpayer was an Indian company engaged in the business of ownership and operation of supermarket chain in India. Taxpayer was in need of personnel to assist with its operations in India. For this purpose, it entered into a Secondment agreement with a Hong Kong based company (“HKCo”), which was engaged in identical business as that of the Taxpayer. Accordingly, HKCo deputed its five employees (“secondees”) to the taxpayer. As per the agreement, HKCo was to pay the salary to the secondees and the taxpayer was to reimburse the same to HKCo. The taxpayer withheld tax from the salary of the secondees u/s. 192 and paid the same to the Government. The taxpayer did not withhold tax from the reimbursement amount paid to HKCo.

According to the AO, the reimbursement amount was FTS and hence, the taxpayer was required to withhold tax therefrom. Concluding that there was no master-servant relationship between the taxpayer and the secondees, CIT upheld the order of the AO.

Held
Payment in nature of FTS u/s. 9(1)(vii) of the Act

It was evident from the agreement and the qualifications of the secondees that they were high level managers/ executives which showed that they were deputed for their expertise and managerial skills in the field.

The agreement was entered into between the taxpayer and HKCo and the secondees were not parties to the agreement. Further, secondees were assigned by HKCo and there was no contract of employment between the taxpayer and the secondees. Their deputation was for a short period and their employment with HKCo continued during the deputation period. Neither the taxpayer nor the secondees had any enforceable right or obligation against each other, including claim for salary. Thus, the secondees were performing their duties for and on behalf of HKCo.

Since the secondees were rendering managerial services requiring high expertise to the taxpayer as part of their duty to HKCo, the payment for such services was in the nature of FTS as defined in explanation 2 to section 9(1) (vii) of the Act.

In Centrica India Pvt. Ltd. vs. CIT 364 ITR 336 (Delhi)2, the High Court, considering an identical issue in the context of definition of FTS in Article 13(4) of India-UK DTAA which includes the expression “payments of any kind of any person in consideration for the rendering of any technical or consultancy services (including the provision of services of a technical or other personnel)”, held that as the secondees were required to draw from their technical knowledge, their services fell within the scope of the term technical or consultancy services.

In case of section 9(1)(vii) of the Act, it is irrelevant whether the payment has any element or not. Accordingly, the gross payment is chargeable to tax.

Service PE
There is no tax treaty between India and Hong Kong. Also, there is no concept of a service PE under the Act.

While analysing the definition of PE u/s. 92F(iii) of the Act, in Morgan Stanley and Co Inc.3, the Supreme Court observed that the intention of the Parliament in adopting an inclusive definition of PE covers the service PE, agency PE, software PE, construction PE, etc.

Relying on the said decision, the taxpayer has raised alternative plea that deputation of secondees would constitute service PE and hence, the amount should be chargeable to tax as per the provision of section 44DA of the Act. Since this plea has been raised by the taxpayer for the first time before the Tribunal and since there is no tax treaty between India and Hong Kong, the concept of service PE requires proper examination of all the relevant facts and provisions on the point whether deputation of secondees constitutes service PE in India or not. Accordingly, the issue was remanded to the AO for adjudication.

[2015] 63 taxmann.com 11 (Ahmedabad – Trib.) ADIT vs. Adani Enterprise Ltd A.Y.: 2010-11, Date of Order: 2-9-2015

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Sections 5, 9, the Act – since funds raised by issue of FCCBs were utilised for investment in foreign subsidiary carrying on business outside India, interest paid to bond holders was covered under exclusion in section 9(1) (v)(b) of the Act

Facts
The taxpayer had raised funds from certain nonresident investors by issuing FCCBs to them. The funds were invested in a company which was incorporated outside and which was carrying on business outside India. The taxpayer remitted interest to the bond holders without withholding tax on the ground that interest was neither received by non-resident bond holders in India nor had it accrued in India. Even if it was deemed to have accrued in India, the same was eligible for source rule exclusion as the borrowed funds were utilised for the purpose of earning income from source outside India.

According to the AO, the interest accrued or arose to non-resident bond holders in India. Consequently, the income was primarily subject to section 5(2). Accordingly, resorting to section 9 was not permissible. Therefore, the AO held that the income was chargeable to tax under section 5(2) and exclusion u/s. 9(l)(v)(b) was not relevant.

Held
Identical issue was considered in case of the taxpayer in earlier year. The Tribunal had observed that funds raised by issue of FCCBs were invested in foreign subsidiary which was involved in financing of businesses abroad.

The term “business” is wide enough to include investment in subsidiaries or joint ventures which are further involved in business or commerce. Therefore, the AO’s observation that the taxpayer was not earning out of business carried on outside India was not correct. Exclusion clause will not have any purpose unless the income is covered within the provision to which exclusion clause applies. Hence, the presence of exclusion in section 9(1)(v)(b) proves that the income is falling within the ambit of deeming provision. Thus, it cannot be accepted that the same income can also fall within the ambit of income which has accrued and arisen in India.

Since nothing contrary was brought on record in the relevant tax year, following the order of the Tribunal in case of the taxpayer, interest earned by non-resident bond holders was not chargeable to tax in India.

[2015] 62 taxmann.com 319 (Rajkot – Trib.) ITO vs. MUR Shipping DMC Co., UAE A.Y.: 2009-10, Date of Order: 23-10-2015

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Articles 4, 8, 24, India-UAE DTAA – if a UAE company was managed and controlled wholly in UAE DTAA benefits could not be denied by invoking LOB clause even though entire share capital was owned by Swiss companies.

Facts
The taxpayer was a company incorporated in, and tax resident of, UAE. It was engaged in operation of ships in international traffic. Its entire share capital was held by two companies incorporated in Switzerland. The taxpayer had obtained a ship under a long-term time charter arrangement from a company incorporated in Marshall Islands. While the manager director of the taxpayer was residing in UAE, its two other directors also had permanent residential visa of UAE. The Board meetings and important decision were being taken at Dubai. The taxpayer had obtained tax residency certificate from UAE tax authority. The taxpayer claimed that having regard to the provisions of Article 8 of India-UAE DTAA, its profit from shipping activity was not taxable in India.

The AO concluded that the effective control and management of the taxpayer was not situated in UAE. Hence, it was not resident in UAE. Therefore, he invoked LOB provision in Article 29 on the ground that: (i) the ship was owned by an entity from a country with which India did not have DTAA ; and (ii) the taxpayer was owned by Swiss shareholders who would not have been entitled to DTAA benefit if they had directly carried on business. The AO held that the agent/freight beneficiary was not entitled to claim benefit under DTAA.

In appeal, the CIT held that the taxpayer was entitled to India-UAE DTAA benefit.

Held
In ADIT vs. Mediterranean Shipping Co. SA [(2013) 56 SOT 278 (Mum.)], it is held that effectively, the income from operations of ships in international traffic is not taxable in India, irrespective of whether it is earned by a Swiss tax resident or a UAE tax resident because Article 22(1) of India-Switzerland DTAA , and Article 8 of India- UAE DTAA respectively exempt the income from taxation in India.

As regards residential status under article 4(1), what is required is that it should be a “company which is incorporated in the UAE and which is managed and controlled wholly in UAE”. This was not disputed. The directors were resident in UAE. It is irrelevant that they were not UAE nationals.

The AO was not justified in invoking LOB clause in Article 29 and denying benefits under India-UAE DTAA because there was reasonable evidence to suggest that the affairs of the company were conducted from UAE, and further no material was brought on the record to establish that the company was not wholly controlled and managed in UAE.

India’s Double taxation Avoidance Ag reements [DTAAs] & Ag reements for Exchange of information [AEIs] – Recent Developments

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In the last 3 years since our last Article on the subject published in
the December, 2012 issue of BCAJ, India has signed DTAAs with 8
countries and has entered into revised DTAAs with 4 countries. India has
also amended few DTAAs by signing Protocols amending the existing
DTAAs. In this Article, our intention is to highlight the salient
features of such DTAAs or Protocols amending the DTAAs. The purpose is
not to deal with such DTAAs or Protocols extensively or exhaustively. It
will be seen that the recent treaties/protocols follow more or less a
similar pattern.

Further, the DTAAs with certain countries have
been modified primarily to include ‘Limitation of Benefits (LOB)
Clause’. Further, Articles on ‘Exchange of Information’ and ‘Assistance
in Collection of Taxes’ have been included or the scope of such existing
Articles has been extended.

The reader is advised to refer the text of the relevant DTAA or the Protocol while dealing with facts of a particular case.

Aadhar Card Scheme – Right to Privacy – Judicial Discipline – View expressed by smaller benches without explaining reasons for not following pronouncements of larger Benches – Matter referred to larger Bench – Constitution of India Article 141.

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Justice K. S. Puttaswamy & Anr. vs. UOI & Ors. AIR 2015 SC 3081

The collection by the Govt. of biometric data of residents under Aadhar Card Scheme challenged to be violative of the right to privacy.

The Court directed that the Union of India shall give wide publicity in the electronic and print media including radio and television networks that it is not mandatory for a citizen to obtain an Aadhar card. The production of an Aadhar card will not be a condition for obtaining any benefits otherwise due to a citizen. The Unique Identification Number or the Aadhar card will not be used by the Govt. for any purpose other than the PDS Scheme and in particular for the purpose of distribution of food grains, etc. and cooking fuel, such as kerosene. The Aadhar card may also be used for the purpose of the LPG Distribution Scheme. The information about an individual obtained by the Unique Identification Authority of India while issuing an Aadhar card shall not be used for any other purpose, save as above or as may be directed by a Court for the purpose of criminal investigation.

The Hon’ble Court was of the opinion that the cases on hand raise far reaching questions of importance involving interpretation of the Constitution. What is at stake is the amplitude of the fundamental rights including that precious and inalienable right under Article 21. If the observations made in M. P. Sharma (AIR 1954 SC 300) and Kharak Singh (AIR 1963 SC 1295) are to be read literally and accepted as the law of this country, the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India and more particularly right to liberty under Article 21 would be denuded of vigour and vitality. The Hon’ble Court was also of the opinion that the institutional integrity and judicial discipline require that pronouncement made by larger Benches of the Court cannot be ignored by the smaller Benches without appropriately explaining the reasons for not following the pronouncements made by such larger Benches. The Hon’ble Court was of the opinion that there appeared to be certain amount of apparent unresolved contradiction in the law declared by the Court.

BEPS and the Likely Impact on Indian Tax Laws

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Introduction

The recent tax investigations by the British Parliamentary Committees, U. S. Senate and the Australian Senate Economics References Committee on the tax-avoidancedriven structures of multi-national corporations, such as Starbucks, Apple, Google and Microsoft among others, have shifted the focus from prevention of tax evasion to prevention of tax avoidance and aggressive tax planning. Today, countries, whilst trying to maintain a certain form of tax competitiveness, have realised the effect that the tax loss on account of the aggressive tax planning structures is having on the recovering economies, and are trying hard to crack down on aggressive tax planning structures, which result in the erosion of their sovereign tax base. Closer home, this shift is also reflected in the big-bang amendments to the Finance Bill, 2012 in the aftermath of the Vodafone judgement.

However, there was a growing consensus among the member countries of the G20 that there would need to be a common set of guidelines to be enacted by all the countries so as to effectively tackle such aggressive structures. Hence, the OECD on request by the leaders of the member countries of the G20, in 2013, formulated a 15 – point Action Plan under the Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (‘BEPS’) Project. On 5th October 2015, the OECD issued the final reports on the BEPS Project. During the 2 years, the OECD released discussion drafts for public comments under each of the Action Plans. The final reports were issued after taking into consideration the public comments received on the discussion drafts as well as on the basis of discussion with various other organisations such as the United Nations, African Tax Administration, Centre de recontre des administrations fiscales and the Centro Interamericano de Administraciones Tributarias, the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.

This article attempts to briefly summarise all the Action Plans of the BEPS Project and the possible impact in India, due to likely amendments in the Income-tax Act, 1961 (‘Act’) in light of the BEPS Project. In this regard, it may be pointed out that it would be worthwhile for a practitioner in the field of international tax to understand all the Action Plans, irrespective of their effect in an Indian context, as international tax involves the interaction of the domestic tax laws of various countries. It may be possible that while not implemented in India, some of the Action Plans may have been implemented in various other countries, involved in future transactions with India, and would therefore impact such transactions.

Action 1: Addressing the Tax Challenges of the Digital Economy

While recognising that in today’s world of the digital economy, the international tax laws, many of which are nearly a century old, would need to be amended, the report on Action 1 states that it is difficult to ring fence the digital economy from the non–digital economy and therefore, in respect of direct taxes, the recommendations have been incorporated in the other Action Plans of the BEPS Project.

Action 2: Neutralising the Effects of Hybrid Mismatch Arrangements

A hybrid financial instrument is generally treated as a debt instrument in the country of the payer, thus leading to a deduction of the interest, but as equity in the country of the recipient, thus leading to be considered eligible for a participation exemption. A hybrid entity on the other hand is one which varies in respect of it’s opacity from a tax perspective in different jurisdictions. One country treats such entity as transparent under its tax laws, whereas another country treats the same entity as opaque under its tax law.

The OECD recognises that hybrid mismatch arrangements can be used to achieve double non – taxation or long – term deferral by exploiting the differences in the tax treatment of instruments or entities under the laws of two or more tax jurisdictions. The Action Plan clearly defines the scope as covering only those mismatch arrangements which involve a hybrid element. Therefore, payments made to exempt entities have not been considered in this Action Plan. Hybrid mismatch arrangements generally involve the use of hybrid financial instruments or hybrid entities. The Action Plan states that the use of hybrid mismatch arrangements leads to lower tax by way of three outcomes, namely

(a) Deduction and Non – Inclusion of Income (D/NI Income): This generally refers to a deduction being claimed in one country for a particular payment with no corresponding income being considered in the country of the recipient.

(b) D ouble Deduction (DD): This generally refers to a single payment being claimed twice as a deduction in two different countries.

(c) Generation of multiple foreign tax credits for one amount of foreign tax paid.

One example of such a possible hybrid mismatch arrangement is provided in order to understand the term better. A partnership firm in India, ABC is treated as an entity, liable to tax in India (as it is a person defined in section 2(31) of the Act), whereas such a firm is treated as transparent in the UK, i.e. the partners are liable to tax on the income of the partnership in the UK. In case, ABC, which has its partners in the UK, makes a payment to a third party, the payment would be considered as a deduction in India while computing the income of ABC. Similarly, at the same time, the UK would disregard the existence of ABC and therefore, would grant the deduction of such payment to its partners, leading to a case of double deduction for the same payment in two different jurisdictions through the use of a hybrid entity, in this case, an Indian partnership.

The OECD has provided the following recommendations in respect of hybrid mismatch arrangements:

(a) I n the case of use of hybrid instruments or hybrid entities giving rise to a D/NI outcome, it is recommended that the payer jurisdiction deny the deduction in the hands of the payer. However, in case the payer jurisdiction does not deny the deduction in the hands of the payer, a secondary rule is recommended whereby the recipient jurisdiction is required to consider the payment as income in the hands of the recipient.

(b) I n the case of payment made to a reverse hybrid (an entity which is transparent under the tax laws of the country in which it is incorporated but opaque under the tax laws of other countries) giving rise to a D/NI outcome, it is recommended that the payer country deny the deduction.

(c) I n the case of payment made by a hybrid entity giving rise to a DD outcome, it is recommended that the jurisdiction of the parent deny the deduction. In case the jurisdiction of the parent is unable to deny the deduction, it is recommended that the jurisdiction of the payer deny the deduction.

(d) In the case of a payment made by a dual resident giving rise to a DD outcome, it is recommended that the jurisdiction of the residence deny the deduction.

 In this regard, it may be pointed out that the recommendations provided require amendments in the domestic tax laws of various countries.

Therefore, there is a possibility of the Act being amended to incorporate these recommendations, especially the primary rule of denying the deduction which gives rise to a D/NI outcome. Moreover, the use of primary and defensive or secondary rule may result in an additional compliance burden on the taxpayer as well as the tax administration, as information would be required as regards the taxation of the payments in the corresponding countries, in order to determine if there is a hybrid mismatch arrangement on a case-by-case basis. It is also believed that even in case there is no specific amendment in order to incorporate the recommendations in respect of the hybrid mismatch arrangements, the GAAR in the Act, which is currently proposed to be effective from AY 2018-19, can be used to tackle such structures.

Action 3: Designing Effective Controlled Foreign Company Rules

Action 3 of the BEPS Project provides recommendations regarding the design of CFC rules. It does so by breaking down the CFC rules into building blocks:

a. Definition of CFC

b. Threshold requirements

c. Definition of CFC income

d. Rules for computing income

e. Threshold for attribution of income

f. Rules to prevent or eliminate double taxation

The report states that the main objective of CFC rules is to prevent the income from being shifted either from the parent jurisdiction or the parent as well as other jurisdictions. This would need to be kept in mind while formulating a policy. In respect of the definition of a CFC, it is recommended to broadly define the entities covered under the CFC regime, in order to include even the permanent establishments and transparent entities. With regards to the definition of control for the purpose of determining as to whether an entity is a CFC or not, the report recommends that the CFC rules should provide a combination of both legal and economic control, and supplement that with a de facto test (decision making) or a test based on consolidation for accounting purposes. Further, the report also provides that control should be defined to include both direct as well as indirect control. The report also recommends inclusion of a modified hybrid mismatch rule, which requires an intragroup payment to a CFC to be taken into account for calculation of the income under the CFC rules. Under this modified hybrid mismatch rule, an intragroup payment may be taken into account if the payment is not included in the CFC income and if the payment would have been included in the CFC income if there was no hybrid mismatch. With regards to threshold limits, the report recommends that the CFC rules only apply in case of those foreign companies who are effectively taxed at a rate meaningfully lower than that applied in the parent jurisdiction.

With regards to the CFC income, the report recommends that the rules cover at least the following types of income:

a. Dividends;

b. Interest and other financing income;

c. Insurance income;

d. Sales and services income;

e. Royalties and other IP income.

In respect of computation of income, the report recommends that the rules of the jurisdiction of the parent company apply. It also recommends that the losses of a CFC should be offset against the profits of the same CFC or against the profit of another CFC from the same jurisdiction. Finally, in respect of the attribution of the CFC income to the appropriate shareholders of the CFC, the report recommends that the attribution should be tied to the minimum control threshold and the amount of income to be attributed to each shareholder should be determined in reference to their proportionate shareholding or influence. It may be worthwhile to point out that the proposed Direct Taxes Code Bill, 2010 included CFC rules. The Finance Minister, while presenting the Finance Bill, 2015, stated that the work on DTC would be abandoned as most of the proposed amendments have already been enacted in the Income-tax Act, 1961. However, the legislation in relation to CFC has not yet been enacted in the domestic tax law, and therefore, it is only a matter of time before the same is introduced in the Act.

Action 4: Limiting Base Erosion Involving Interest Deductions and Other Financial Payments

Action 4 relating to limitation of interest deductions attempts to address three main risks:

(a) High level of debts being shifted to high tax countries thus leading to an overall lower tax burden for the group;

(b) Intragroup loans being used to generate interest deductions in excess of the group’s actual third party interest expense;

(c) Third party debt or intragroup financing being used to fund the generation of tax exempt income.

In order to address these risks, the report recommends a fixed ratio rule whereby the interest deduction available is linked as a percentage (recommended range of 10% to 30%) of the profits of the entity before taking into account the interest deduction, tax expenditure, depreciation and amortisation (EBITDA). Additionally, the report also recommends that in case the interest expense of an entity exceeds the fixed ratio rule, a country may still allow the deduction up to a limit of the ratio of the overall group’s net interest/EBITDA. In this regard, it may be pointed out that this limit on deduction of interest will apply to all interest expenditure and not just that involving related entities. The Act currently allows deduction of the interest only to the extent it qualifies for a business purpose. There are no rules in the Act specifically limiting the deduction of interest to a specified percentage of profits or earnings. Such a limitation, if introduced, would have a significant tax impact on many Indian companies, which are highly leveraged. Such an amendment may also make it difficult to monitor the overall group’s interest deductions and ratio, and therefore, may lead to an increase in the administrative as well as compliance burden of the taxpayer, as well as that of the tax authorities.

Action 5: Countering Harmful Tax Practices More Effectively, Taking Into Account Transparency and Substance

The report on Action 5 deals with preferential tax regimes, such as the IP Box regime, and the amendments required in such regimes, in order to ensure that there is a fair tax competition between the countries. One of the approaches recommended is the nexus approach, which provides that a taxpayer can avail the benefit of the preferential regimes (mainly IP regimes) only to the extent it incurred qualifying R&D expenditure, which gave rise to IP income. The report also recommends the exchange of information in relation to rulings where BEPS may be an issue between countries. Finally the report reviews the preferential regimes of a few countries to determine if they are amounting to harmful tax competition. In this regard, the report provides that the special tax regimes available to certain taxpayers in India such as those in the SEZ, for shipping companies, offshore banking units and life insurance business are not harmful. Therefore, no amendment is expected in respect of this recommendation.

Action 6: Preventing the Granting of Treaty Benefits in Inappropriate Circumstances

The Action Plan released in July 2013 by OECD on Action 6 read, “Develop model treaty provisions and recommendations regarding the design of domestic rules to prevent the granting of treaty benefits in inappropriate circumstances. Work will also be done to clarify that tax treaties are not intended to be used to generate double non – taxation and to identify the tax policy considerations that, in general, countries should consider before deciding to enter into a tax treaty with another country. The work will be co – ordinated with the work on hybrids.” In order to combat treaty shopping, the report follows a three-pronged approach:

a. A mendment in Preamble to treaties;

b. LOB clause; and

c. PPT rule

The report recommends the introduction of the LOB clause in the tax treaties. There are two versions of the clause provided in the report – a simplified version and a detailed version, with the choice given to the Contracting States.

The detailed version, as the nomenclature suggests, provides specific conditions to be satisfied, instead of the more generic ones provided in the simplified version. The LOB clause is a refined residence concept, as it goes beyond the concept of residence for the purposes of claiming the benefit of the treaty. The LOB clause provides that only a qualified person would be entitled to the benefits of the treaty. A qualified person is a person who has satisfied certain ownership and business requirements to provide sufficient link between the person and the Contracting State, the benefit of whose treaty network is being utilised. In addition to the LOB clause, the draft also includes a PPT clause as provided below, “Notwithstanding the other provisions of this Convention, a benefit under this Convention shall not be granted in respect of an item of income or capital if it is reasonable to conclude, having regard to all relevant facts and circumstances, that obtaining the benefit was one of the principle purposes of any arrangement or transactions that resulted directly or indirectly in that benefit, unless it is established that granting that benefit in these circumstances would be in accordance with the object and purpose of the relevant provisions of this Convention”.

Thus, the PPT clause makes it clear that no benefit shall be provided for an income if one of the purposes (and not necessarily the sole purpose) was to obtain the benefits of the treaty. Further, the report also attempts to tackle the abuse of the lower rate of tax in the country of source, in the case of dividends paid to parent companies exceeding a certain threshold of ownership under Article 10(2)(a) of the OECD Model Convention. The report provides that the required percentage of holding for obtaining the benefit of the lower rate of tax should also include a minimum period, for which such shareholding should be maintained, before the dividend is paid. Currently, Article 13(4) of the OECD Model Convention provides that gains derived by a company from the sale of shares, of which an immovable property constituted more than 50% of the value, is taxable in the country of source. The report recommends that this clause should be extended to include comparable interests in other forms of entities such as partnership. Additionally, the report also recommends that there should be a provision for considering a period for which the percentage of value of the immovable property must be considered, in order to tackle situations wherein assets are transferred from other entities in order to dilute the percentage of value of the immovable property to that of the shares or comparable interest being alienated. In the case of dual resident companies, Article 4(3) of the OECD Model Convention provides that for the purposes of the Convention, a dual resident company shall be deemed to be a resident of the Contracting State in which the place of effective management is situated. However, in order to combat tax avoidance through this area, the report recommends that the residence of a dual resident company for the purposes of a tax treaty be determined by competent authorities, and not where the place of effective management is situated. In respect of abuse of the domestic tax laws, the report recommends the enactment of the GAARs along with specific anti – abuse rules, such as thin capitalisation rules, in the domestic tax laws. Finally, the report recommends the change in the Preamble to the treaty to include non – creation of opportunities for non – taxation or reduced taxation through tax evasion or tax avoidance. This would enable the reader to understand the object of the treaty in accordance with Article 31(1) of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties. From an Indian context, the Act has already provided for GAARs which would come into effect from Assessment Year 2018-19. Currently, India’s treaty with the US (the LOB clause was first introduced in the US Model Convention) has an LOB clause which prevents tax avoidance to a certain extent.

Action 7: Preventing the Artificial Avoidance of Permanent Establishment Status

Currently, business carried on by a resident of a Contracting State through a commissionaire structure in the other Contracting State is not taxable in the latter State on account of the absence of a permanent establishment. Under Article 5 of the OECD Model Convention, an agent can said to constitute a PE for the principal if he habitually concludes contracts which are binding on the principal. This lead to many abusive transactions wherein the agent (commissionaire) negotiated the major terms of the contract but would be officially concluded only by the principal. In order to counter such abusive transactions, the report has recommended an amendment in Article 5(5) of the Model Convention to extend the definition of permanent establishment to these commissionaire structures as well, by providing that in case a person plays an important role in the conclusion of the contract which is concluded by the principal without any material modifications, such person or agent shall be deemed to be considered as the permanent establishment of the principal. Further, it has been recommended that the meaning of the term “independent agent” under Article 5(6) of the OECD Model be amended to exclude an agent, which satisfies certain ownership criteria in respect of the holding of the principal in the agent. Currently, Article 5(4) of the OECD Model provides a list of activities which do not constitute a fixed – place permanent establishment in a Contracting State. These activities included use of facilities and maintenance of stock of goods for storage, delivery or display of goods, maintenance of a fixed place of business for processing by another enterprise or for collecting information. These activities were considered to be excluded from the definition of the permanent establishment, irrespective of whether the activities were considered to be of a preparatory or auxiliary nature in respect of the business of a taxpayer. The report now has recommended that the aforementioned activities be excluded from being considered as a permanent establishment only if they are of a preparatory or auxiliary nature to the business of the taxpayer. In order to ensure that there is no abuse of the exclusion of the activities from the definition of a permanent establishment by splitting up the activities of the group, the report recommends that a new paragraph of anti – fragmentation be added to Article 5(4), which provides that in case the activities of the enterprise along with its related enterprise together do not constitute activities of a preparatory or auxiliary nature, the enterprise would not be eligible to claim the benefit of Article 5(4). As these recommendations refer to the OECD Model and the tax treaties, no amendment is expected in this regard in the Act.

Actions 8-10: Aligning Transfer Pricing Outcomes with Value Creation

The reports on Actions 8, 9 and 10 attempt to revise the OECD Transfer Pricing Guidelines (‘TPG’) in order to ensure that the transfer pricing outcomes are linked to value creation.

Some of the major amendments recommended in the TPG are as follows:

a. Contractual arrangements would need to be matched with actual conduct of the parties to the contract/ transaction. In case the contract and the conduct does not match, the contractual arrangements would need to be ignored for determining the arm’s length price;

b. An entity would not be entitled to higher returns if it undertakes risks which it does not control, or it does not have the financial capacity to control the risks.

 In other words, it is not just the undertaking of the risk, but also the control over the risk and ability to control the risk, that would entitle an entity to higher returns in the case of determination of the arm’s length price;

c. In the case of the synergistic benefits available for being a member of a group, the benefit of the synergies should be allocated only to those parties, which have contributed to such benefit being available;

d. In the case of funding without any additional economic activities, the entity funding would be only entitled to a risk – free return and no additional return is to be provided while determining the arm’s length price, specifically under the profit split method.

The report recommends the following steps for analysing the transactions involving intangibles:

a. Identifying the legal owner of the intangibles;

b. Identifying the parties performing the functions, using the assets and assuming risks relating to the development, enhancement, maintenance, protection and exploitation of the intangibles (‘DEMPE functions’);

c. Confirming the actual conduct of the parties in accordance with legal arrangements;

d. Identifying the controlled transactions related to the above activities;

e. Determining the arm’s length price in accordance with each party’s contributions to the functions, assets and risks.

The report further provides that the legal owner of the intangibles is entitled to all the anticipated returns from the exploitation of the intangible if it performs functions, provides assets and controls as well as bears the risks in relation to the development, enhancement, maintenance, protection and exploitation of the intangible. As the recommendations discussed above involve an amendment to the TPG, which is merely guidance in respect of determining the arm’s length price, no major amendment in the Act is expected in this regard. However, one may see an impact of this change in the future assessments in transfer pricing cases.

Action 11: Measuring and Monitoring BEPS

Understanding the effect that base erosion and profit shifting has on the economic activity of a country, Action 11 provides guidance and recommendations on how to measure and monitor BEPS.

The report provides the following indicators of BEPS behaviours and activity in a country:

 a. The profit rates of an MNE group is higher in a lowtax country as compared to the average worldwide profit rate;

b. T he effective tax rate of an MNE entity is substantially lower than similar enterprises having only domestic operations;

c. T he FDI is heavily concentrated;

d. The taxable profits of an entity are not higher where the intangible assets are situated in a commercial or economic sense;

e. T here is a high intragroup and third – party debt specifically in the high – tax countries

As this would require high co-ordination between the countries, the report recommends that the OECD work closely with the participating countries and provide corporate tax statistics. As this report merely refers to how BEPS can be monitored, major amendment is expected in this regard in the Act.

Action 12: Mandatory Disclosure Rules

The report on Action 12 provides a framework for formulation of mandatory disclosure rules of international tax schemes in order to enhance transparency, provide timely information and act as a deterrence. As the reports only provides the framework for such rules, they have not been analysed in this article.

Action 13: Transfer Pricing Documentation and Country-by-Country Reporting

In order to provide the necessary tools to the tax authorities in order to ensure that the profit attributed is linked to value creation, the report on Action 13 recommends certain changes in the transfer pricing documentation.

The three – tiered approach recommended in respect of the transfer pricing documentation is as follows:

a. A “master file” containing information of the global operations of the MNE group and the transfer pricing policies shall be made available to all the tax authorities in which the group does business;

b. A “local file” containing detailed information about the transactions and related parties in respect of each entity shall be made available to the tax authorities in which the entity is situated.

This local file is similar to the transfer pricing documentation that is available today; c. A “Country – by – Country Report (CBCR)” shall be made available to the tax authorities of the jurisdiction in which the parent company of the group is situated. The CBCR will contain information concerning business activity, profits before tax, income tax paid, number of employees, capital structure, retained earnings and tangible assets of each entity in the group irrespective of the jurisdiction in which it is situated. A number of countries have begun implementation of the CBCR. It is expected that India may also amend the transfer pricing regulations in order to ask for this information from the taxpayer. One of the major concerns in the introduction of the CBCR is that it enables the tax authorities to ascertain the transfer prices beyond the principle of the arm’s length price. However, the report clearly states that this information should not be used by tax authorities to conduct complementary audits.

Action 14: Making Dispute Resolution Mechanisms More Effective

The report on Action 14 recommends minimum standards for countries to adhere to in order to ensure that the Mutual Agreement Procedure provided in the tax treaties through Article 25 has been effectively implemented. The minimum standards recommended are:

a. Treaty obligations in respect of Mutual Agreement Procedures have been fully effected in a timely manner and with good faith;

b. Administrative issues in relation to treaty disputes should be resolved in a timely and effective manner;

c. Taxpayers should face minimum administrative and procedural burden to request for a MAP.

In order to ensure that corresponding adjustments in respect of transfer pricing adjustments do not face any hurdles, the report recommends that Article 9(2) of the OECD Model should be incorporated in all tax treaties. A group of countries (which notably does not include India) have agreed to incorporate a mandatory arbitration clause in the MAP Article in their tax treaties. No major amendment to the Act is expected in respect of this recommendation.

Action 15: Developing a Multilateral Instrument to Modify Bilateral Tax Treaties

The report on Action 15 recommends incorporating the recommendations discussed above in the existing tax treaties through a multilateral instrument. This will ensure that the lengthy procedure of negotiating each bilateral tax treaty is not required. India is one of the expected signatories to the multilateral instrument, which is expected to be open for signatures from December 2016. However, the major challenge in this multilateral instrument is that bilateral treaties in most countries, including India, come into effect after they have been approved by the Parliament. Therefore, the concern in signing a multilateral treaty to override the existing bilateral tax treaties without approval from the Parliament is genuine. In this regard, it is believed that the Income -tax Act, 1961 will be amended to allow the multilateral treaty to override the bilateral tax treaties signed by India without any approval of the Parliament. Moreover, in the case of a multilateral instrument, the wordings of the instrument would need to be carefully written in order to ensure that all the treaties, which may not necessarily have the same wordings, are appropriately modified. Similarly, it would be important to ensure that all the countries, which would be a signatory to the instrument, come to a consensus in respect of the wordings of the instrument as well as the recommendations itself. Additionally, all the countries in the world are not signatories to the multilateral instrument. Therefore, it would be interesting to see how the countries which are not signatories would react in respect of treaties with the countries which are signatory to the instrument.

Conclusion

To conclude, there is a question mark over the success of the BEPS Project, especially in respect of the implementation of the recommendations. However, that has not stopped countries from viewing tax avoidance very seriously. It is only a matter of time before countries start amending their tax laws to implement some, if not all, of the recommendations. India, being an active member in the BEPS Project, is almost certain to do so, and we may see quite a few amendments in the Finance Act, 2016 in respect of some of the recommendations. This will significantly alter the way multinational enterprises and we, as tax advisors will have to function. It will give rise to a new line of thought in the evolving world of tax planning wherein one would need to balance value creation and substance along with transparency with tax efficiency. _

VAT – Works Contract – Goods Involved in Execution of Works Contract – Rate of Tax Applicable to The Goods Deemed to be Sold, section 4(1)(c)of The Karnataka Value Added Tax Act, 2003

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10. M/S Durga Projects Inc vs. State of Karnataka and Another, [2013] 62 VSTs 482 (Karn)

VAT – Works Contract – Goods Involved in Execution of Works Contract – Rate of Tax Applicable to The Goods Deemed to be Sold, section 4(1)(c)of The Karnataka Value Added Tax Act, 2003

Facts
The appellant, a partnership firm, engaged in the business of civil works contract, purchased necessary building materials, hardware, etc., the goods falling under Schedule III, certain items of ‘declared goods’ falling u/s. 15 of the CST Act and other non-scheduled goods from within and outside the State as well as from unregistered dealers. The appellant made an application u/s. 60 of the KVAT Act before the Authority for Clarifications and Advance Rulings (ACAR for short) seeking for clarification in respect of: a) A pplicability of the rate of tax on execution of civil works contract under the Act; and b) Whether input tax credit can be availed out of output tax paid by the contractor. The ACAR, after examining the matter in detail, by its order dated 2-8-2006 came to the conclusion that there is no specific entry providing rate of tax on works contract under the KVAT Act, up to 31-3-2006 and therefore, tax should be levied as per the rate applicable on the value of each class of goods involved in the execution of works contract i.e. if the goods involved are taxable at the rate of 4%, then works contract rate would be at 4% and if the rate is 12.5%, the works contract rate would also be at 12.5%. With regard to the clarification of input tax credit is concerned, no finding was given. The appellant subsequently sought for rectification of the order dated 2-8-2006 before the ACAR. The ACAR further clarified on 7-12-2006 stating that iron and steel is one of the commodities specified u/s. 14 of the CST Act 1956, as goods of special importance and therefore, the iron and steel are to be subjected to works contract tax at 4%, when it was used in the same form and if they are used in manufacture or fabrication of product, it would no longer qualify as iron and steel and would have to be subjected to works contract tax at 12.5%.The Commissioner for Commercial Taxes after noticing the clarification order passed by the ACAR found that the order passed by the ACAR is erroneous and prejudice to the interest of the revenue and issued notice u/s. 64(2) of the Act on 25- 8-2010. The Commissioner for Commercial Taxes, after considering the objections filed by the appellant, by its order dated 12-10-2010 set aside the order passed by the ACAR in exercise of its suo-motu revisionary power and held that the goods used in the works contract cannot be treated on par with the normal sale of goods for the purpose of arriving at the rate for the period prior to 1-4- 2006. Further, the iron and steel or any other declared goods used for executing the works contract would be liable to be taxed as per the State Law. The appellant, being aggrieved by the order dated 12-10-2010 passed by the Commissioner of Commercial Taxes, filed appeal before the Karnataka High Court.

Held

Section 4(1)(c) was inserted by Act No.4 of 2006 w.e.f. 1-4-2006 thereby levying tax on the works contract by specifying the rate of tax under the Sixth Schedule. Prior to the amendment, the tax was being collected on the rate applicable to sale of each class of goods under Section 3(1) of the Act. Section 3(1) of the Act provides for levy of tax on sale of goods. Section 4 prescribes the rate of tax. Neither section 3 nor section 4 of the Act seeks or intend to levy or prescribe different rate of tax for the goods involved in the normal sale and for the goods involved in the deemed sale. Both normal sale as well as the deemed sale should be treated as one and the same with respect to levy of tax on sale of goods. Admittedly, prior to 1-4- 2006 insertion of clause (c) to section 4, the rate of tax was not prescribed in respect of transfer of the property in goods, (whether as goods or in any other form) involved in the execution of works contract. Hence, the tax has to be levied as per section 3(1) of the Act. The sale under the works contract is a deemed sale of transfer of the goods alone and it is not different from the normal sale. Hence, the tax has to be levied on the price of the goods and material used in the works contract as if there was a sale of goods and materials. The property in the goods used in the work contract will be deemed to have been passed over to the buyer as soon as the goods or material used are incorporated to the moveable property by principle of accretion to the moveable property. For the period prior to 1-4-2006, tax has to be levied as per section 3(1) of the Act and for the period subsequent to 1-4-2006, tax has to be levied as per section 4(1)(c) of the Act. Accordingly, the High Court allowed the appeal filed by the firm. The order passed by the Commissioner was set aside and the order passed by the ACAR was restored.

Value Added Tax – Providing Passive Infrastructure Service and Related Operations and Maintenance Services – To Telecommunication Operators – on a Share Basis – Not a Transfer of Right to Use Goods – Not Taxable, Section 2(1)(2c) (vi) of The Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004.

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9. M/S. Indus Tower Ltd vs. Union of India, [2013] by VST 422 (Delhi)

Value Added Tax – Providing Passive Infrastructure Service and Related Operations and Maintenance Services – To Telecommunication Operators – on a Share Basis – Not a Transfer of Right to Use Goods – Not Taxable, Section 2(1)(2c) (vi) of The Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004.

Facts

Indus, the petitioner company, registered with the Department of Telecommunication for providing passive infrastructure services and related operations and maintenance services to various telecommunications operators in India on a sharing basis. It is the policy of the Government of India to encourage extensive infrastructure sharing and in pursuance with the policy, the telecom operators were required to create a high quality, rapid and wide coverage of mobile telecommunications network in India. The passive infrastructure facilities or services could be shared by several telecom operators so that it becomes cost effective.

Accordingly, it put up passive infrastructure facilities at several places. The arrangement worked this way. Indus would put up the towers and a shelter which is a construction in which the telecom operators are permitted to keep and maintain their base terminal stations (BTS), associated antenna, back-haul connectivity to the network of the sharing telecom operator and associated civil and electrical works required to provide telecom services. The telecom tower and shelter, both put up by the petitioner, is called “the passive infrastructure”. In addition to the tower and shelter, Indus also provided diesel generator sets, air-conditioners, electrical and civil works, DC power system, battery bank, etc. All these were known as passive infrastructure. The “active infrastructure” consists of the BTS, associated antenna, back-haul connectivity and other requisite equipment and associated civil and electrical works required to provide the telecommunication services by the telecom operator at a telecom and telecommunication site other than the passive infrastructure. The active infrastructure was owned and operated by the sharing telecom operator, passive infrastructure was owned by Indus. There could be several operators who may use the tower and shelter which are parts of the passive infrastructure by keeping their BTS, etc., therein and sharing the entire passive infrastructure on an agreed basis. The antennae belonging to the sharing telecom provider may be put up or installed at different heights in the tower as per the requirements of the sharing telecom operators. The working of the telecom network basically involves the process of receiving and transmitting the telecom signals. The active infrastructure which is owned and put up by the sharing telecom operators needs certain conditions for proper functioning and uninterrupted telecom network/ signals. These conditions are maintenance of a particular temperature, humidity level, safety, etc. These conditions are ensured by the passive infrastructure made available by the petitioner to the sharing telecom operators. The Indus Company filed application before the Commissioner of Vat u/s. 84 of the Delhi Value Added Tax Act, 2004 (DVAT ) and posed following question to be determined by him;- “Whether, in the facts and circumstances, the provision of passive infrastructure services by the applicant to sharing operators would tantamount to ‘Transfer of right to use goods’ as per section 2(1)(zc)(vi) of the DVAT Act, 2004 and therefore become liable to tax under the DVAT Act? If yes, then how should the sale price as per section 9(1) (zd) of the DVAT Act be determined for the purpose of discharging the liability under the DVAT Act ?” The Commissioner, on an examination of the agreement entered into between the petitioner and M/s. Sistema Shyam Tele Services Ltd., which was taken as representative of the agreements entered into by the petitioner with various telecom operators, held that the entire amount of consideration received from the sharing telecom operators for providing access to the passive infrastructure would amount to consideration for the “transfer of the right to use goods” as defined in section 2(1)(zc)(vi) of the DVAT Act and was exigible to tax under the said Act. He however held that since a separate bill was being raised for consumption of energy by each sharing operator as per actual consumption as detailed in the contract, the charges collected by the petitioner on this account shall be exempt from the levy of value added tax. The Company filed writ petition before the Delhi High Court against the impugned order of the Commissioner.

Held

The ‘right to use goods’ – in this case the right to use the passive infrastructure can be said to have been transferred by Indus to the sharing telecom operators only if the possession of the said infrastructure had been transferred to them. They would have the right to use the passive infrastructure if they were in lawful possession of it. There has to be, in that case, an act demonstrating the intention to part with the possession of the passive infrastructure. There is none in the present case. The passive infrastructure is an indispensable requirement for the proper functioning of the active infrastructure which is owned and operated by the sharing telecom operators. The passive infrastructure is shared by several telecom operators and that is why they are referred to as sharing telecom operators in the MSA. The MSA merely permits access to the sharing telecom operators to the passive infrastructure to the extent it is necessary for the proper functioning of the active infrastructure. It was the responsibility of Indus to ensure that the passive infrastructure functions to its full efficiency and potential, which in turn means that it had to be in possession of the passive infrastructure and cannot part with the same in favour of the sharing telecom operators. With several such restrictions and curtailment of the access made available to the sharing telecom operators to the passive infrastructure and with severe penalties prescribed for failure on the part of the Indus to ensure uninterrupted and high quality service provided by the passive infrastructure, it is difficult to imagine how Indus could have intended to part with the possession of part of the infrastructure. That would have been a major impediment in the discharge of its responsibilities assumed under the MSA. The limited access made available to the sharing telecom operators is inconsistent with the notion of a “right to use” the passive infrastructure in the fullest sense of the expression. At best it can only be termed as a permissive use of the passive infrastructure for very limited purposes with very limited and strictly regulated access. It is therefore difficult to see how the arrangement could be understood as a transfer of the right to use the passive infrastructure. When Indus has not transferred the possession of the passive infrastructure to the sharing telecom operators in the manner understood in law, the limited access provided to them can only be regarded as a permissive use or a limited license to use the same. The possession of the passive infrastructure always remained with Indus. The sharing telecom operators did not therefore, have any right to use the passive infrastructure. Accordingly, the High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the Indus and quashed the order passed by the Commissioner holding the Indus liable to pay vat.

Sales Tax – Pulp based Drink – Known as “Slice” – Predominantly Contained Water – Not a Food Article Within the Meaning of Entry 47 of Schedule I, Section – 4(1)(a)(d) and Entry 47 of Schedule I of The Delhi Sales Tax Act, 1975

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8. M/S. Varun Beverages Ltd vs. Commissioner of Vat, [2003] 62 VST 388 (Delhi)

Sales Tax – Pulp based Drink – Known as “Slice” – Predominantly Contained Water – Not a Food Article Within the Meaning of Entry 47 of Schedule I, Section – 4(1)(a)(d) and Entry 47 of Schedule I of The Delhi Sales Tax Act, 1975

FACTS

The appellant trades in aerated drinks, mineral water and fruit pulp based drink known as “slice”. It sought to deposit sales tax at 8% under residual entry on the basis that “slice” is not a preserved food article thus not covered by entry 47 of Schedule I of the Act. The department on the other hand treated it as food article and levied tax @12% under entry 47 of Schedule I of the Act. The appellant filed appeal up to Tribunal without any success. The appellant thereafter filed appeal before The Delhi High Court against the decision of the Tribunal rejecting the appeal filed by it.

HELD

There is no reference under the Delhi Sales Tax Act imposing definition contained in The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act and reliance by the Tribunal on it was misplaced. The predominant content of the Mango Pulp Drink is water i.e. 70 % and the Mango Pulp content is 17%. This product does not claimed to be a fruit juice and therefore the revenue cannot urge that it has even a minimum modicum of nutritive properties. Arguably, if the product was entirely milk based, the consideration might have been different. However, the mango pulp based drink, at best an instant energy giver and in all cases a thirst quencher; by no stretch of imagination can it be called a “food article” at least not within the contemplation of the statute, by an application of the common parlance test. Accordingly, the High Court allowed the appeal filed by the company and held that the impugned product is not covered by entry 47 of Schedule I of the Act as “preserved food article” and taxable at 8% under residual entry.

VAT – Levy of VAT on MRP – Not Permissible, Section 4(5) of The Karnataka Value Added Tax Act, 2004.

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7. M/S. ITC Limited vs. State of Karnataka and Others, [ 2013] 62 VST 320 (Karn)

VAT – Levy of VAT on MRP – Not Permissible, Section 4(5) of The Karnataka Value Added Tax Act, 2004.

FACTS

The Petitioner filed a Writ Petition before the Karnataka High Court challenging the constitutional validity of section 4(5) of the Act, inserted by Karnataka Value Added Tax (Amendment) Act, 2004 for levy of tax on sale of Cigars, Gutkha and other manufactured tobacco, on the maximum retail price (MRP) indicated on the label of the container or packing thereof.

HELD

The Supreme Court, in Rajasthan Chemist Association [2006] 147 STC 542, while considering the validity of a provision similar to the one impugned herein had upheld view of the Rajasthan High Court that it is not permissible for the legislature of a State to levy tax on sale of goods by adopting a notional price as a measure of tax; such a legislative measure has to be outside the ambit of entry 54 of List II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. The same reasoning applies to the provision impugned herein as both are similar. Accordingly, the High Court allowed the writ petition filed by the company and sub-section (5) of section 4 of the Act providing levy of tax on sale of cigars, tobacco etc. on the MRP as unconstitutional on the ground that such a taxing provision is beyond the legislative competence of the State under entry 54 of List II of the seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India.

Contribution to expenses cannot by any stretch be deemed to be a consideration for any identified service rendered to members by access to the facilities or advantage by a club or association. However, if the payments are specifically attributable to such facility, advantage or service, the subscription will be taxable.

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45. [2015] 62 taxmann.com 2 (Mumbai – CESTAT) Cricket Club of India Ltd vs. Commissioner of Service Tax

Contribution to expenses cannot by any stretch be deemed to be a consideration for any identified service rendered to members by access to the facilities or advantage by a club or association. However, if the payments are specifically attributable to such facility, advantage or service, the subscription will be taxable.

Facts

The Assessee is a members’ club providing various facilities to its members. Service tax was paid on the entrance fees under protest under Club or Association service. A refund was sought of the amount paid on account of principle of mutuality and on the ground that entrance fees is not a consideration for any service. The department denied refund and the same was upheld by the Commissioner (Appeals), accordingly the present appeal is filed.

Held

The Tribunal noted that Clubs or Associations need funds to exist. Wages of employees, energy charges, maintenance and repairs etc. are necessary expenses for sustenance. Implicit in membership of clubs and associations is the obligation to share in such expenses for maintaining the assets of the club and the contributing members are not the direct beneficiaries of such services. Contribution to expenses cannot, by any stretch, be deemed to be consideration for any identified service rendered to individual members by access to the facilities or advantage that is within the wherewithal of the “club or association”. However, to the extent that it is possible to identify the facilities, advantage or services without further payments specifically attributable to such facility, advantage or service, the subscription will be taxable. It was also observed that without an identified recipient who compensates the identified provider with appropriate consideration for an identified service, a service cannot be held to have been provided. Further, relying on the decision of the Sports Club of Gujarat [2013] 40 STT 486/35 taxmann.com 557 (Guj.), the principle of mutuality was upheld and the appeal was allowed.

Reassessment beyond Reasons

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Issue for Consideration
Quite often, one comes across orders of reassessment wherein additions are made in respect of items that are not listed in the reasons recorded for reopening at the time of issue of notice u/s. 147, for reopening an assessment.

In many a case, no additions are made for the issues that formed part of the reasons for reopening, while passing an order of reassessment, and instead, additions are made on altogether new issues that are not part of the reasons recorded.

There has been an ongoing conflict concerning the scope of reassessment. Should the scope extend to cover issues not recorded in the reasons and, if yes, should such extension be denied, at least in cases where the reasons for which the reopening was made, have been found to be invalid on final reassessment. An additional issue that arises is whether a fresh notice u/s. 148 is required to be issued for covering the new issue in reassessment.

The issue about including new issues where additions are also made in respect of the recorded reasons is settled in favour of sustenance of addition on account of a new or additional issues. What appears however, to be open is the issue where addition is made on account of an issue that has not been found in the reasons recorded and where no addition is made for the reasons recorded. Conflicting decisions are delivered on the subject by High Courts with some upholding the right of the Assessing Officer, and some dismissing it.

N. Govindaraju’s case
The issue recently came up for consideration of the Karnataka High court in the case of N. Govindaraju vs. ITO, 60 taxmann.com 333 (Karnataka).In that case, the assessee, an individual, had income from house property, transport business, capital gains and other sources, and had filed the return of income, which was processed u/s. 143(1) and accepted. A notice u/s. 148 was issued for reopening the assessment for the purpose of assessing the income from the sale of property u/s. 45(2) and also for denying the benefit of indexation. The reassessment was completed on total income of Rs.29.91 lakh. No addition was made u/s. 45(2), nor was indexation denied to him in reassessment. Additions were however made for reasons other than the one recorded in the notice.

On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) confirmed the reassessment and the Tribunal held that the reopening of assessment was justified in law.

On appeal to the High Court, the assessee raised the following questions for consideration of the court; “Whether the Tribunal was correct in upholding reassessment proceedings, when the reason recorded for re-opening of assessment u/s.147 of Act itself does not survive. Whether the Tribunal was correct in upholding levy of tax on a different issue, which was not a subject matter for re-opening the assessment and moreover the reason recorded for the re-opening of the assessment itself does not survive.”

On behalf of the assessee, it was submitted that the order u/s. 147 of the Act had to be in consonance with the reasons given for which notice u/s. 148 had been issued, and once it was found that no tax could be levied for the reasons given in the notice for reopening the assessment, independent assessment or reassessment on other issues would not be permissible, even if subsequently, in the course of such proceedings some other income chargeable to tax was found to have escaped assessment; the reason for which notice was given had to survive, and it was only thereafter that ‘any other income’ which was found to have escaped assessment could be assessed or reassessed in such proceedings; the reopening of assessment should first be valid (which could be only when reason for reopening survived) and once the reopening was valid, then u/s. 147 of the Act, the entire case could be reassessed on all grounds or issues; if reopening was valid and reassessment could be made for such reason, then only the AO could proceed further and not doing so, without even the reason for reopening surviving, it could lead to fishing and roving enquiry and would give unfettered powers to the AO.

The Revenue submitted that under the old section 147 (as it stood prior to 1989), grounds or items for which no reasons had been recorded could not be opened, and because of conflicting decisions of the High Courts, the provisions of the said section had now been clarified to include or cover any other income chargeable to tax which might have escaped assessment and for which reasons might not have been recorded before giving the notice; that the said section 147 was in two parts, which had to be read independently, and the phrase “such income”, in the first part, was with regard to which reasons had been recorded and the phrase “any other income” in the second part was with regard to where no reasons were recorded in the notice and had come to notice of the AO during the course of the proceedings. Both being independent, once the satisfaction in the notice was found sufficient, addition could be made on all grounds, i.e., for which reason had been recorded and also for which no reason had been recorded. All that was necessary was that during the course of the proceedings u/s. 147, income chargeable to tax must be found to have escaped assessment. Strong reliance was placed by the Revenue on the insertion of Explanation 3 in support of its contentions.

The court, on hearing the contentions of the parties, held that once the notice for reopening of a previously closed assessment was held to be valid, the assessment proceedings as well as the assessment order already passed would be deemed to have been set aside and the AO would then have the power to pass fresh assessment order with regard to the entire income which escaped assessment and to levy tax thereon. and doing so was his duty .

The court observed that the issue was whether the latter part of the section relating to ‘any other income’ was to be read in conjunction with the first part (relating to ‘such income’) or not; if it was to be read in conjunction, then without there being any addition made with regard to ‘such income’ (for which reason had been given in the notice for reopening the assessment), the second part could not be invoked; however, if it was not to be so read in conjunction, the second part could be invoked independently even without the reason for the first part surviving.

In the opinion of the court, from a plain reading of section 147, it was clear that its latter part provided that ‘any other income’ chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment and which had come to the notice of the AO subsequently in the course of the proceedings, could also be taxed. It further noted that the sole purpose of Chapter XIV of the Act was to bring to tax the entire taxable income of the assessee and, in doing so, where the AO had reason to believe that some income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment, he might assess or reassess such income. In doing so, it would be open to him to also independently assess or reassess any other income which did not form the subject matter of notice.

The court took note of the conflicting decisions of the high courts on the subject, noting that some had held that the second part of section 147 was to be read in conjunction with the first part, and some had held that the second part was to be read independently.

It held that the insertion of Explanation 3 could not be but for the benefit of the revenue, and not the assessee. In that view of the matter, on reading section 147, it was clear that the phrase ‘and also’ joined the first and second parts of the section; the phrase ‘and’ was conjunctive which was to join the first part with the second part, but ‘also’ was for the second part and was disjunctive; it segregated the first part from the second. Upon reading the full section, the phrase ‘and also’ could not be said to be conjunctive. It was thus clear to the court that once satisfaction of reasons for the notice was found sufficient, i.e., if the notice u/s. 148(2) was found to be valid, then addition could be made on all grounds or issues (with regard to ‘any other income’ also) which might come to the notice of the AO subsequently during the course of proceedings u/s. 147, even though reason for notice for ‘such income’ which might have escaped assessment, did not survive.

Importantly, the court held that Explanation 3 was inserted to address the ambiguity in the main provision of the enactment that had arisen because of the different interpretation of different High Courts about the issue whether the second part of the section was independent of the first part, or not. To clarify the same, Explanation 3 was inserted, by which it had been clarified that the AO could assess the income in respect of any issue which had escaped assessment and also ‘any other income’ (of the second part of section 147) which came to his notice subsequently during the course of the proceedings under the section. After the insertion of Explanation 3 to section 147, it was clear that the use of the phrase ‘and also’ between the first and the second parts of the section was not conjunctive and assessment of ‘any other income’ (of the second part) can be made independent of the first part (relating to ‘such income’ for which reasons were given in notice u/s. 148), notwithstanding that the reasons for such issue (‘any other income’) had not been given in the reasons recorded u/s. 148(2).

Considering the provision of section 147 as well as its Explanation 3, and also keeping in view that section 147 was for the benefit of the revenue and not the assessee, and was aimed at garnering the escaped income of the assessee, and also keeping in view that it was the constitutional obligation of every assessee to disclose his total income on which it was to pay tax, it was held by the court that the two parts of section 147 (one relating to ‘such income’and the other to ‘any other income’) were to be read independently. In doing so, it observed that the phrase ‘such income’ used in the first part of section 147 was with regard to which reasons had been recorded u/s. 148(2), and the phrase ‘any other income’ used in the second part of the section was with regard to a case where no reasons had been recorded before issuing notice and a reason had come to the notice of the AO subsequently during the course of the proceedings, which could be assessed independent of the first part, even when no addition could be made with regard to ‘such income’, once the notice on the basis of which proceedings had commenced, was found to be valid.

The Karnataka High Court took note of the decisions in the cases of CIT vs. Jet Airways (I) Ltd. 331 ITR 236( Bom.) Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. CIT, 336 ITR 136(Dl.) and CIT vs. Adhunik Niryat Ispat Ltd.(Del.) and CIT vs. Mohmed Juned Dadani, 355 ITR 172 (Del.). and noted that, with due respect to the view taken in the aforesaid cases, it was unable to persuade itself to follow the same.

The court concurred with the decision of the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of Majinder Singh Kang vs. CIT, 344 ITR 358 which was delivered after noticing that the earlier judgments in the cases of CIT vs. Atlas Cycle Industries 180 ITR 319 and CIT vs. Shri Ram Singh 306 ITR 343 were rendered prior to the insertion of Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act, wherein it was held that “a plain reading of Explanation 3 to section147 clearly depicts that the Assessing Officer has power to make additions even on the ground that reassessment notice might not have been issued in the case during the reassessment proceedings, if he arrives at a conclusion that some other income has escaped assessment which comes to his notice during the course of proceedings for reassessment u/s.148 of the Act. The provision nowhere postulates or contemplates that it is only when there is some addition on the ground on which reassessment had been initiated, that the Assessing Officer can make additions on any other grounds on which the income has escaped assessment”.

The court further noted that the same view was reiterated by the Punjab & Haryana High Court in the case of CIT vs. Mehak Finvest (P.) Ltd,.367 ITR 769 wherein it was also noticed that the Special Leave Petition filed against the judgment in the case of Majinder Singh (supra ) had been dismissed by the Supreme Court.

Mohmed Juned Dadani’s case
The issue had arisen in the case of CIT-II vs. Mohmed Juned Dadani, 30 taxmann.com 1 (Gujarat). In this case, the assessment was completed allowing assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80HHC. Subsequently, the Assessing Officer initiated reassessment proceedings taking a view that if two export incentives, i.e., DEPB licence income and excise duty refund were excluded from the income of the assessee, there would be a loss from export business and, consequently, assessee would not be entitled to deduction u/s. 80HHC. In the reassessment, the AO made additions of cash credit u/s. 68 and on account of some unverifiable purchases. However, the AO did not disturb the deduction u/s. 80HHC, previously claimed by the assessee.

The assessee carried such order in appeal before the Commissioner (Appeals) where he contended that the AO had no jurisdiction to travel beyond the reasons for reopening the assessment, which appeal however, was rejected by the Commissioner (Appeals). The Tribunal, finding that in the reassessment proceedings, no disallowance had been made towards assessee’s claim for deduction u/s. 80HHC, which was the reason on the basis of which notice for reopening of the assessment was issued, held that the order of reassessment was without jurisdiction and bad in law.

On revenue’s appeal to the Gujarat High Court, the court addressed the following substantial question of law. “Whether the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal was right in law in coming to the conclusion that when on the ground on which the reopening of assessment is based, no additions are made by the Assessing Officer in the order of assessment, he cannot make additions on some other grounds which did not form part of the reasons recorded by him.” .

On behalf of the revenue, it was submitted that the Tribunal committed a grave error in interpreting the provisions contained in section 147 of the Act ; the section as amended w.e.f. 01.04.1989, gave ample authority to an AO to assess or reassess any income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment, as long as the requirements of a valid reopening of the assessment were satisfied; once an assessment was reopened, by virtue of valid exercise of powers u/s. 147 of the Act, thereafter, there would be no further limitation on the AO framing assessment on all or any of the grounds mentioned in the reasons recorded or even on the grounds not so mentioned; that the position was clear even before Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act was added with retrospective effect from 01.04.1989; in any case, by virtue of such Explanation being introduced in section 147, the issue had been put beyond any pale of controversy. The decision of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in case of Majinder Singh Kang vs. CIT 344 ITR 358 was relied upon by the revenue.

On the other hand, the assessee drew attention to the statutory provisions contained in section 147 of the Act, as amended w.e.f. 01.04.1989, and the explanatory memorandum clarifying the background in which Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act was enacted. It was submitted that section 147 of the Act, prior to introduction of Explanation 3, permitted the AO to assess or reassess any income chargeable to tax which had escaped assessment and also any other income which had escaped assessment and which came to the notice of the AO subsequently in the course of the proceedings for reassessment; that the words “and also any other income” must be understood as to be referring to such income which had escaped assessment but the ground for which had not been mentioned in the reasons recorded, in addition to income which had escaped assessment and for which mention had been made in the reasons recorded; that Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act did not change the basic proposition, nor it was meant to do so, as would be clear from the explanatory memorandum explaining the reasons for introduction of the said explanation; that power to reopen the assessment which had been previously closed was peculiar in nature and was available to the AO under the Income-tax Act which was not normally available to an officer exercising judicial or quasi judicial powers; such powers, therefore, must be strictly construed, authorising an AO to assess income under any head even if the same was not part of the reasons recorded for reopening of the assessment, would give wide powers which were possible of arbitrary exercise; that for an AO to assess income on any ground not mentioned in the reasons recorded, it was essential that there was a valid reopening of assessment; if the grounds, on which the reopening of the assessment failed, there would thereafter be no longer a valid reopening of an assessment in which the AO could make any additions on some other grounds.

The Gujarat High Court held that the Tribunal was right in law in coming to the conclusion that when on the ground on which the reopening of assessment was based, no additions were made by the AO in the order of assessment, he could not make additions on some other grounds which did not form part of reasons recorded by him. It was not in dispute that once an assessment was reopened by a valid exercise of jurisdiction u/s. 147, it was open for the AO to assess or reassess any income which had escaped assessment which came to his light during the course of his assessment proceedings which was not mentioned in the reason for issuing notice u/s. 148, provided the ground on which the notice was issued for reopening survived.

Significantly, the court supplied an interesting dimension by noting that in a notice for reassessment which had been issued beyond a period of four years from the end of relevant assessment year, the condition that income chargeable to tax had escaped assessment for the reason of the failure on the part of the assessee to disclose truly and fully all material facts for the purpose of assessment must also be established. If in such a situation, the stand of the revenue was accepted, a very incongruent situation would come about, if ultimately the AO were to drop the ground on which notice for reopening had been issued, but to chase some other grounds not so mentioned for issuance of the notice. In such a situation, even if a case where notice for reopening had been issued beyond a period of four years, the assessment would continue even though on all the grounds on which the additions were being made, there was no failure on the part of the assessee to disclose true and full material facts. In such a situation, an important requirement of failure on part of the assessee to disclose truly and fully all material facts would be totally circumvented. Thus, it was apparent that Explanation 3 to section 147 does not change the situation insofar as the present controversy was concerned.

In deciding the case, the High court approved the decision relied upon by the assessee in the case of CIT vs. Jet Airways (I) Ltd. 331 ITR 236 in which the Bombay High Court considering an identical situation, interpreting the provisions contained in section 147 of the Act, held that the situation would not be different by virtue of introduction of Explanation 3 to the said section. The High Court, placing heavy reliance on the explanatory memorandum, held that if upon issuance of a notice u/s. 148 of the Act, the AO did not assess the income which he had reason to believe had escaped assessment and which formed the basis of a notice u/s.148, it was not open to him to assess independently any other income which did not form the subject matter of the notice.

In addition, the Gujarat High Court approved the decisions in the case of Ranbaxy Laboratories Ltd. vs. CIT , 336 ITR 136 (Delhi) wherein the court besides approving the ratio of the decision of the Bombay High Court in the case of Jet Airways, held that sub-section (2) of section 148 mandated reasons for issuance of notice by the AO and s/s. (1) thereof mandated service of notice to the assessee before the AO proceeded to assess, reassess or recompute the escaped income and those conditions were required to be fulfilled to assess or reassess the escaped income chargeable to tax. The Gujarat High court also approved the observations of the Delhi High Court to the effect that the Legislature could not be presumed to have intended to give blanket powers to the AO such that on assuming jurisdiction u/s. 147 regarding assessment or reassessment of the escaped income, he could keep on making roving inquiry, and thereby including different items of income not connected or related with the reasons to believe, on the basis of which he assumed jurisdiction, and also the finding of the Delhi High Court, that for every new issue coming before the AO during the course of proceedings of assessment or reassessment of escaped income, and which he intended to take into account, he would be required to issue a fresh notice u/s. 148. The ratio of the decision in the case of Asstt. CIT vs. Major Deepak Mehta, 344 ITR 641 (Chhattisgarh) was also approved by the court.

The Gujarat High Court, relying on the Memorandum explaining the provisions of Explanation 3, held that it was meant to be clarificatory in nature and to put the issue beyond any legal controversy; when the Legislature found that in face of the provisions contained in section 147 of the Act post 01.04.1989, some of the courts had taken a view that the AO was restricted to the reassessment proceedings only on issues in respect of which the reasons were recorded for reopening the assessment, such explanation was introduced in the statute; thus, the explanation was meant to be merely clarificatory in nature and was introduced with the purpose of putting at rest the legal controversy regarding the true interpretation of section 147 of the Act which had arisen on account of certain judicial pronouncements especially in the cases of CIT vs. Atlas Cycle Industries, 180 ITR 319 (P&H), Travancore Cements Ltd. vs. Asstt. CIT 305 ITR 170 (Kerala).

The Gujarat High Court did not agree with the decision of the Punjab and Haryana High Court in case of Majinder Singh Kang (supra) by noting that all other courts had uniformly taken a view that Explanation 3 to section 147 of the Act did not change the situation insofar as the present controversy was concerned, and for the reason that the explanatory memorandum to Explanation 3 to section of the Act was not brought to the notice of the High Court in the said case.

Observations

On a bare reading of the main provision, it is gathered that section 147, as is substituted by the Direct Tax Laws (Amendment) Act, 1987 w.e.f. 01.04.1989, enables inclusion of any other income that has escaped assessment and which comes to the notice subsequently in the course of proceedings. Accordingly, it should be possible for an AO to also include any new item while making reassessment, though such item was not included in recorded reasons. This main provision was found to be deficient, in the past by the courts, on the following two counts;

The substituted provision while permitting the AO to rope in a new issue in the scope of reassessment, did not override the specific provisions of section148(2), which required an AO to record reasons before issue of a notice u/s. 148 for doing so.

The substituted provision permitted the AO to rope in a new issue in the scope of reassessment only where the original issue on which the reassessment was reopened has been found to be valid.

One of the above referred deficiencies has been expressly cured by insertion of Explanation 3 w.e.f 01.04.1989 by the Finance (No.2) Act, 2009, whereunder the requirement of the new issue being recorded in reasons for reopening as per section 148(2), before a notice is issued, has been dispensed with. As regards the other deficiency concerning the need for survival of the recorded issue, some courts recently have found that the AO is empowered to expand the scope of reassessment either by virtue of Explanation 3 or independent of it, while a few other courts have found that the deficiency continued in spite of Explanation 3.

The issue that has attracted conflicting views therefore is narrowed down to whether the word ‘and also’ used in the main proviso are conjunctive and cumulative or they are disjunctive and detach the latter part of the provision from the earlier part. In the alternative, whether, with insertion of Explanation 3, the AO is authorised to rope in a new issue, even where no addition is made in respect of the issue recorded in reasons for reopening.

The question is that when the reason recorded for reopening the assessment u/s. 147 itself does not survive, can tax be levied for a totally different reason or issue, which was not the subject matter of reopening the assessment. In other words, if reasons for reopening are (a) and (b) and during reassessment proceedings , income is found to have escaped from assessment for some other reason say, (c) and (d), then, if reasons (a) and (b) do not survive, and no addition can be made for such reasons, can additions be made on the basis of reasons or grounds (c) and (d) that did not find place in the reasons recorded. The related questions are whether the main provision permits such an assessment and whether the insertion of the Explanation 3 has made such an assessment possible.

Section 147 of the Act, even without the aid of Explanation 3, enabled the AO while framing an assessment section 147 of the Act, to assess or reassess such income for which he had recorded his reasons to believe had escaped assessment and also any other income which escaped assessment which came to his notice subsequently in the course of the assessment proceedings.

Insertion of Explanation in a section of an Act is for a different purpose than insertion of a ‘Proviso’. Explanation gives a reason or justification and explains the contents of the main section, whereas ‘Proviso’ puts a condition on the contents of the main section or qualifies the same. ‘Proviso’ is generally intended to restrain the enacting clause, whereas Explanation explains or clarifies the main section. ‘Proviso’ limits the scope of the enactment as it puts a condition, whereas Explanation clarifies the enactment as it explains and is useful for settling a matter or controversy. In the instant case, insertion of Explanation 3 to section 147 does not in any manner override the main section and has been added with no other purpose than to explain or clarify the main section so as to also bring in ‘any other income’ (of the second part of section 147) within the ambit of tax, which may have escaped assessment, and comes to the notice of the AO subsequently during the course of the proceedings.

Circular 5 of 2010 issued by the CBDT also makes this position clear. There is no conflict between the main section 147 and its Explanation 3. This Explanation has been inserted only to clarify the main section and not to curtail its scope, even though it is for the benefit of the revenue and not the assessee.

Explanation 3 thus does not, in any manner, even purport to expand the powers of the AO u/s. 147 of the Act. In any case, an explanation cannot expand the scope and sweep of the main body of the statutory provision. In case of S. Sundaram Pillai vs. V. R. Pattabiraman AIR 1985 (SC) 582 the Supreme Court observed that, an explanation added to a statutory provision is not a substantive provision, but as the plain meaning of the word itself shows, it is merely meant to explain or clarify certain ambiguities which may have crept in the statutory provision.

An explanation cannot override the scope of the main provision nor can it extend the scope. An explanation can only explain the scope of the main provision by eliminating the ambiguity.

The Rajasthan High Court in Shri Ram Singh 306 ITR 343 and the Punjab & Haryana High Court in CIT vs. Atlas Cycle Industries, 180 ITR 319 had interpreted the words ‘and also’, used in the main section itself, in a cumulative and conjunctive sense and held that to read these words as being in the alternative, would be to rewrite the language used by the Parliament. The said decision was delivered before insertion of Explanation 3.

Parliament must be regarded as being aware of the interpretation that was placed on the words “and also”. Parliament however has not taken away the basis of that decision while it was open to the Parliament, having regard to the plenitude of its legislative powers, to do so. It could have clearly provided in Explanation 3 that power to deal with a new issue would be irrespective of survival of the old issues for which reasons were recorded. It was not so done, and in view of that, the provisions of section 147 as they stood after the amendment of 1st April, 1989, continue to hold the field.

The fluid state of law on the issue prevailing up to 31.03.1988, was sought to be addressed by insertion of substituted provision w.e.f. 01.04.1989. This insertion was found inadequate by the courts for addressing the issue under consideration and to meet the concerns of the courts, Explanation 3 is claimed to have been inserted witnesses cannot be procured for various other reasons, like death of both attesting witness, out of jurisdiction, physical incapacity, insanity etc. Section 69 should apply and can be extended to such cases. Hence, the word “not found” occurring in section 69 of Evidence Act should receive a wider purposive interpretation than its literal meaning and should take in situation where the presence of the attesting witness cannot be procured. This view gets its support from Venkataramayya vs. Kamisetti Gattayya (AIR 1927 Madras 662) and Ponnuswami Goundan vs. Kalyanasundara Ayyar (AIR 1930 Madras 770).

It is settled that mode of proving a Will does not ordinarily differ from that of proving any other document except as to the special requirement of attestation prescribed by section 63 of Indian Succession Act. Section 69 imposes a twin fold duty on the propounder. It provides that if no such attesting witness can be found, it must be proved that attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting and also that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person. Hence, to rely on a Will propounded in a case covered by section 69 the propounder should prove i) that the attestation is in the handwriting of the attesting witness and ii) that the document was signed by the executant. Both the limbs will have to be cumulatively proved by the propounder. Evidently, the section demands proof of execution in addition to attestation and does not permit execution to be inferred from proof of attestation. However, section 69 presumes that once the handwriting of attesting witness is proved he has witnessed the execution of the document. The twin requirement of proving the signature and handwriting has to be in accordance with section 67 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Transfer of immovable property – TDS under section 194-IA: Analysis and Issues

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Introduction
Section 194-IA has been introduced by the Finance Act, 2013 (FA, 2013) with effect from 1st June, 2013. Section 194-IA provides for deduction of tax at source in respect of payment, by any person, being a transferee, to a resident transferor, of any sum by way of consideration for transfer of any immovable property. The Explanation to the section defines the terms `agricultural land’ and `immovable property’.

Object of introducing section 194-IA
In case the language of the provision is capable of two interpretations then the one which advances the object of introducing the provision will have to adopted. The Memorandum explaining the salient features of the Finance Bill, 2013 classified this provision under the caption `Widening of Tax Base and Anti Tax Avoidance Measures’. The Heydon’s Mischief Rule of Interpretation states that while interpreting a provision that interpretation has to be adopted which removes the mischief which was prevalent before the introduction of the provision. The Object of introducing the provision and the Mischief which the Legislature sought to remove can be better understood from the following extracts from the Explanatory Memorandum to the Finance Bill:

“E. WIDENING OF TAX BASE AND ANTI TAX AVOI DANCE MEASURES
Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) on transfer of certain immovable properties (other than agricultural land)

…………. However, the information furnished to the department in Annual Information Returns by the Registrar or Sub-Registrar indicate that a majority of the purchasers or sellers of immovable properties, valued at Rs. 30 lakh or more, during the financial year 2011-12 did not quote or quoted invalid PAN in the documents relating to transfer of the property.

……… In order to have a reporting mechanism of transactions in the real estate sector and also to collect tax at the earliest point of time, it is proposed to insert a new section 194-IA to provide that every transferee, at the time of making payment or ………”

A perusal of the above, clearly indicates that the difficulty faced was that the Annual Information Return, furnished to the Department, by the Registrar or Sub-Registrar, in a majority of the cases, did not have a PAN or had an invalid PAN in the documents relating to transfer of property. This is what is sought to be curbed by introducing the provisions of section 194-IA.

The two objects of introducing the provisions of section 194-IA are:-

(i) to have a reporting mechanism of transactions in the real estate sector; and
(ii) to collect tax at the earliest point of time.

These objectives will have to be kept in mind while interpreting some of the provisions, the language whereof is capable of two interpretations.

Text of Section 194-IA:
For the sake of convenience, the provisions of section194- IA are reproduced hereunder:

“194-IA. (1) Any person, being a transferee, responsible for paying (other than the person referred to in section 194LA) to a resident transferor any sum by way of consideration for transfer of any immovable property (other than agricultural land), shall, at the time of credit of such sum to the account of the transferor or at the time of payment of such sum in cash or by issue of a cheque or draft or by any other mode, whichever is earlier, deduct an amount equal to one per cent of such sum as income-tax thereon.

(2) No deduction under sub-section (1) shall be made where the consideration for the transfer of an immovable property is less than fifty lakh rupees.

(3) The provisions of section 203A shall not apply to a person required to deduct tax in accordance with the provisions of this section.

Explanation.–– For the purposes of this section,––

(a) “agricultural land” means agricultural land in India, not being a land situated in any area referred to in items (a) and (b) of sub-clause (iii) of clause (14) of section 2;

(b) “immovable property” means any land (other than agricultural land) or any building or part of a building.”

Analysis of Section 194-IA:
Conditions for applicability of the section:
(i) there is a transferee;
(ii) there is a transferor;
(iii) the transferor is a resident;
(iv) there is a transfer of an immovable property, as defined, from the transferor to the transferee;
(v) the transferee is responsible for paying any sum;
(vi) such sum is by way of consideration for transfer of any immovable property;
(vii) the amount of consideration is Rs. 50 lakh or more;
(viii) the transferee is not a person referred to in section 194LA;
(ix) the transferee either :
(a) credits such sum referred to in (vi), or
(b) makes a payment of such sum;
(x) the payment referred to in (ix)(b) is made either by

(a) cash, or
(b) by issue of cheque, or
(c) by issue of draft, or
(d) by any other mode.

Consequences if the above conditions apply:
(i) The transferee becomes liable to deduct tax at source;
(ii) such deduction shall be of an amount;
(iii) the amount of deduction shall be equal to 1% of the sum referred to in (vi) above;
(iv) such a liability arises upon credit of such sum or at the time of making the payment, whichever is earlier;
(v) provisions of section 203A shall not apply to the transferee.

Exceptions: This section would not apply if –
(i) The transferee is a person covered by section 194LA; or
(ii) the transferor is a non-resident; or
(iii) consideration for transfer of immovable property is less than Rs. 50 lakh; or
(iv) the immovable property transferred is an agricultural land as explained subsequently.

Analysis of certain terms used in section 194-IA:
Immovable Property has been defined in Explanation (a) to section 194-IA to mean:
• any land [including land described in section 2(14) (iiia) and 2(14)(iiib) i.e. land which is commonly known as urban agricultural land];
• any building; and
• any part of a building;
• but does not include `agricultural land’.

Agricultural land has been defined in Explanation (b) to section 194-IA – Agricultural land situated in India not being land referred to in section 2(14)(iiia) and 2(14)(iiib). Transferee: The obligation to deduct tax is on the transferee of any immovable property, as defined. The transferee may be any person. He may be an individual, Hindu undivided family, firm, LLP, company, AOP, BOI, cooperative society. He could even be a builder / developer. However, where Government is the purchaser, the section may not apply since Government is not a person (CIT vs. Dredging Corporation of India) (174 ITR 682) (AP). Residential status of the transferee is immaterial. The section applies even to a non-resident buyer or even to a buyer who is an agriculturist. Other conditions being satisfied, the section will apply even when the purchaser / transferee is a family member / relative of the seller / transferor. However, the purchaser / transferee should not be a person referred to in section 194LA. If the purchaser / transferee is a person referred to in section 194LA, such a person is not required to deduct tax under this section. Joint transferee: In case of joint transferee each coowner will be liable for compliance with this section. Transferor: The transferor / seller may be any person. The transferor should be a resident. He may even be Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident. If the transferor / seller happens to be a non-resident the provisions of section 195 may apply but certainly not the provisions of this section.

Any sum: The section states that the purchaser / transferee should be responsible for paying to the seller / transferor any sum by way of consideration for transfer of immovable property. The term `sum’ has not been defined in the Act.

The expression “any sum paid” has been interpreted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of H.H. Sri Rama Verma vs. CIT (187 ITR 308) (SC) to mean only amount of money given as donations and not to donations in kind.

In the context of section 194-IA an issue would arise as to whether the section applies when the consideration is in kind e.g. in cases of exchange. This issue has been dealt with, in detail, subsequently under the caption `Issues’.

Consideration: The term `consideration’ has not been defined in the Act. The term is also not defined in the Transfer of Property Act. The Patna High Court in Rai Bahadur H.P. Banerjee vs. CIT ([1941] 9 ITR 137)(Pat) held that the word ‘consideration’ is not defined in the Transfer of Property Act and must be given a meaning similar to the meaning which it has in the Indian Contract Act. Similar view has been taken by the Kerala High Court in the case of CGT vs. Smt. C K Nirmala (215 ITR 156)(Ker) and by the Bombay High Court in the case of Keshub Mahindra vs. CGT (70 ITR 1)(Bom). Section 2(b), of the Indian Contract Act defines `consideration’ as under:

“When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing or promises to do or to abstain from doing, something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise.”

An issue which arises for consideration is whether the amount of service tax, VAT payable by the transferee to the transferor constitutes part of consideration and therefore tax is required to be deducted even on these amounts. By virtue of Circular No. 1/2014 dated 13.1.2014, tax is not required to be deducted at source on the amount of service tax. The question of deduction of tax at source, therefore, survives only in respect of VAT . Looked at it from a common man’s perspective the amount of service tax and VAT agreed to be paid by the transferee to the transferor would certainly form part of consideration for transfer of immovable property. The liability to pay these amounts under the respective statutes is of the transferor. Accordingly, it appears that VAT amount constitutes consideration and tax will have to be deducted even on the amount of VAT . In addition, these amounts may also attract stamp duty under the stamp law of a State. However, in cases where the transferee is faced with a show cause notice for failure to deduct tax at source on the amount of VAT , the transferee may contend that the analagoy of excluding service tax would apply equally to VAT as well.

Immovable Property: This term is defined exhaustively to mean land (other than agricultural land) or any building or a part of a building. Agricultural land is not immovable property. Agricultural land is defined for this purpose. Urban agricultural land is immovable property. Immovable property could be land, agricultural land outside India, urban agricultural land, office, flat, shop, godown, theatre, hotel, hospital, etc. Immovable property could be stock-intrade of the developer. Immovable property could be held as either stock-in-trade or as capital asset.

Meaning of ‘transfer’: The section applies to consideration for transfer. The question which arises is whether the term `transfer’ would mean only transfer by way of conveyance under general law through a registered instrument or it would even cover the transactions / agreements referred to in section 2(47)(v) and (vi) i.e. in cases where possession is given in part performance of the contract u/s. 53A of the Transfer of Property Act or a transaction of becoming a member of a co-operative society, company, etc. Also, would the provisions be applicable to part payments made but not in the year of transfer (conditions of 2(47)(v) not being satisfied)?

Immovable Property located outside India: The section does not mention that the immovable property should be situated in India. Therefore, a literal interpretation would be that the immovable property could be situated any where may be in India or may be outside India. Further, the term `agricultural land’ has been defined to mean agricultural land situated in India. The fact that agricultural land in India is excluded from immovable property could be understood in two ways – one that from the immovable property in India exclusion is to be made of agricultural land in India and the other could be that from the immovable property wherever situated only the agricultural land in India is excluded. Thus, two interpretations are possible. However, if a view is taken that the section applies even in respect of immovable property situated outside India then the position will be that a buyer who is outside India and who is neither a citizen of India nor a resident of India who is buying immovable property located outside India from a resident of India, will be required to deduct income-tax under the provisions of the Act. Therefore, it would mean that it is expected of every person dealing with a resident of India to be aware of the provisions of the Indian laws. Assuming that such a buyer is aware of these provisions and decides to comply with the provisions of this section, he will have to obtain a PAN so as to be able to make payment of the amount of TDS. A question would arise as to whether the Government of India can cast an obligation on a non-resident to deduct tax from payments made by him for purchase of a property which is situated outside India. The only nexus which such a transferor has with India being that he is buying immovable property from a person who is a resident of India. In case of default in complying with the provisions of this section, the buyer would be regarded as an assessee-in-default and would be liable to pay interest and penalty as well. Such an interpretation may not be upheld by Courts. Therefore, it appears that the section would apply to only immovable property situated in India.

Threshold for non-deduction: Sub-section (1) of section 194-IA casts an obligation on the transferee to deduct tax at source. S/s. (1) does not have a threshold limit. S/s. (2) provides that no deduction under subsection (1) shall be made where the consideration for the transfer of an immovable property is less than fifty lakh rupees. The issue for consideration is whether the limit of fifty lakh rupees is qua the immovable property or is it qua the transferee. This issue is dealt with, in detail, subsequently under the caption `Issues’.

Quantum of tax to be deducted: Deduction is to be of an amount equal to one per cent of such sum as incometax. Surcharge and cess on this amount are not to be deducted. If the transferor / seller does not provide PAN, technically, the rate of tax could be 20% by virtue of provisions of section 206AA. However, the challan for payment of tax deducted u/s. 194-IA requires PAN as a compulsory field and it does not proceed without PAN having been filled in. Challan No. 281 which is applicable for payment of TDS other than TDS u/s. 194-IA, does not have a field to make payment of TDS u/s. 194-IA, though the same may have been deducted at the rate mentioned in section 206AA. It seems that the procedure has been so designed so as to further the objective stated in the Memorandum explaining the salient features of the provisions of the Finance Bill, 2013 viz. to overcome the difficulty which was being faced viz. the PAN Nos. not being quoted or invalid PAN Nos. being quoted in the AIR.

At this stage, it would be relevant to note the Karnataka High Court in the case of A. Kowsalya Bai vs. UOI (346 ITR 156)(Kar) has read down the provisions of section 206AA and has held it to be inapplicable to persons whose income is less than the taxable limit.

The deduction is with reference to consideration and not with reference to valuation as done by stamp valuation authorities though in the case of transferor / seller section 50C / section 43CA may be attracted.

No deduction / Deduction at lower rate: There is no provision of either the transferor giving a declaration to the transferee asking him not to deduct tax at source or to deduct tax at lower rate. Transferor cannot even obtain an order from the Assessing Officer authorizing the transferee / buyer not to deduct tax or to deduct it at a lower rate. Thus, tax is deductible at source even in cases where the transferor is entitled to exemption u/s. 54, 54EC, 54F. Similar is the position where the transferor is to suffer a loss as a result of transfer or has brought forward losses which are available for set off against gain on transfer of immovable property.

Consequences of non-deduction: Failure to deduct tax under this section may result in the person i.e. the transferee being deemed to be an assessee in default. Failure to deduct tax will attract interest and penalty. Also, provisions of section 40(a)(ia) will be attracted with effect from assessment year 2015-16.

No requirement to obtain TAN / file quarterly returns: The transferee is not required to obtain TAN if he does not have one. Also, he is not required to file quarterly returns / statements.

Obligation to pay tax so deducted and issue certificate: The tax deducted by the transferee has to be paid to the credit of the Central Government within 7 days from the end of the month in which the deduction is made. TDS payment shall be accompanied by a challancum- statement in Form 26QB. Payment is to be made by remitting it electronically to RBI or SBI or any authorised bank or by paying it physically in any authorised bank. Payer / Transferee is required to issue TDS certificate in Form 16B, to be generated online from the web portal. The TDS certificate is to be issued within 15 days from the due date for furnishing challan-cum-statement in Form 26QB.

Issues: Various issues arise in day to day practice on the applicability of the provisions of section 194-IA of the Act. The author does not necessarily have an answer to all the issues which may arise. Some of the important and more common issues are as under: –

(a) Amounts paid before the provision coming into effect – Provisions of section 194-IA have been introduced in the Income-tax Act, 1961 with effect from 1.6.2013. The obligation to deduct tax under this section arises at the time of payment or at the time of credit of the amount to the account of the transferor, which ever is earlier. Therefore, in a case where either the payment or the credit has been made before 1.6.2013, the question of deduction of tax at source under this section should not arise. While this position may appear to be quite obvious interpretation of the provision, if an authority is required for this proposition a reference can be made to the order dated 3rd June, 2015 of the Karnataka High Court while deciding the Writ Petition in the case of Shubhankar Estates Private Limited vs. The Senior Sub-Registrar, The Union Bank of India and the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax (Writ Petition No. 57385/2013). The Karnataka High Court in this case directed the Registrar to complete the registration without insisting on the deduction of tax at source and to release the document to the petitioner. The Court has, in para 5 of the order, held as under –

“5. In that light, if the provision contained in Section 194-IA as extracted above is noticed, the obligation on the transferee to deduct 1% of the sale consideration towards TDS had come into effect only on 1.6.2013. If that be the position, as on 2.3.2012 when the petitioner in the instant case as the transferee had paid the amount to the transferor, there was no obligation in law on the petitioner to deduct the said amount. If this aspect of the matter is kept in view, even though the provision had come into force as on the date of presentation of the sale certificate for registration, the petitioner having parted with the sale consideration much earlier, was not expected to deduct the amount and produce proof in that regard to the Sub-Registrar. It is no doubt true that in respect of the said amount the third respondent would have the right to recover the taxes due. But, in the instant case, the communication as addressed from the third respondent to the first respondent could not have been held against the petitioner in the circumstances stated above. In the peculiar circumstances of the instant case, where the petitioner being an auction purchaser had paid the entire sale consideration much earlier to the provision coming into force, the endorsement dated 4.12.2013 requiring the petitioner to deduct the income-tax and indicating that the registration would be made thereafter cannot be sustained.”

(b) Applicability of section 206AA – Section 194-IA requires deduction of tax at source at the rate of one per cent. In a case where the transferor does not provide the payer with his PAN, technically, the provisions of section 206AA would be attracted and the deduction would have to be made at the rate of 20%. However, such a situation seems to be quite unlikely since the challan by which the tax is required to be paid by the deductor, transferee, requires the PAN of the transferor as a compulsory field. Hence, in the event that the deduction has to be made, it will have to be made at the rate mentioned in section 194- IA i.e. one per cent.

(c) Applicability to composite transactions where both land and building are subject matter of transfer – Under provisions of section 194-IA tax is required to be deducted, subject to satisfaction of other conditions mentioned in the section, on the amount of consideration for transfer of immovable property. The term `immovable property’ is defined in Explanation (a) to the section as meaning any land or any building or part of a building. Provisions of sections 43CA, 50C and 56(2)(vii) use the term land or building or both. The word `both’ is absent in section 194-IA. Therefore, in cases where tax has not been deducted (not deliberately as a planning measure) on amount of consideration for transfer of a composite transfer comprising of land and building both, one may contend that the Legislature has consciously used a different language in section 194-IA and has left out composite transactions of both land and building e.g. purchase of a bungalow comprising of building and also the land beneath it.

(d) Payment of consideration by a Bank / Housing Finance Institution to a transferor on behalf of the transferee – In a case where the transferee has taken a loan for discharge of consideration to the transferor, the bank / housing finance institution disburses the loan by issuing a cheque / pay order to the transferor towards consideration due to him from the transferee. In such a case, a question arises as to how does a transferee comply with his obligation to deduct tax at source under this section. The banks / financial institutions in such a case issue a cheque / pay order in favour of the transferor of the net amount and the amount equivalent to tax deductible at source under this section is given to the transferee upon his producing a challan evidencing the amount deposited by him towards tax deducted at source. The alternative to this could be that the transferee requests and authorises the bank / financial institution, in writing, to disburse the net amount to the transferor and to deposit the amount required to be deducted at source under this section to the credit of the Central Government on behalf of the transferee i.e. in such a case, the bank / financial institution will deposit tax at source as an agent of the transferee and the challan will contain the PAN and other particulars of the transferee. In actual practice, it is understood that, the first option is what the banks / financial institutions have been following.

(e) Limit of Rs. 50 lakh – whether it is qua an immovable property or qua the transferee / transferor – Threshold for non-deduction: Sub-section (1) of section 194-IA casts an obligation on the transferee to deduct tax at source. S/s. (1) does not have a threshold limit. S/s. (2) provides that no deduction under subsection (1) shall be made where the consideration for the transfer of an immovable property is less than fifty lakh rupees. The issue for consideration is whether the limit of fifty lakh rupees is qua the immovable property or is it qua the transferee. The following paragraphs attempt to address this issue :-

(i) The Memorandum explaining the salient provisions of Finance Bill, 2013 says the Annual Information Returns filed by sub-registrars often indicate that in majority of the cases purchaser or sellers of immovable property did not quote or quoted an invalid PAN in the documents relating to transfer of immovable property. The Sub-Registrar in terms of Rule 114E read with section 285BA is required to report each transaction involving purchase or sale of an immovable property valued at Rs. 30 lakh or more in the Annual Information Return.

(ii) Thus it is clear that the purpose of the newlyinserted section 194-IA is to augment what is already being reported by the Sub-Registrar.

(iii) It may be noted that the Sub-Registrar has got to report a transaction even if the share of each buyer, in case of joint ownership, is below Rs. 30 lakh.

(iv) Following the purpose for which the section 194-IA was inserted, one may conclude that the threshold limit of Rs. 50 lakh for applicability of Section 194-IA is to be determined property-wise and not transferee-wise. This is so because the buyers of immovable properties can’t be allowed to do what the sub-registrar couldn’t do i.e. split up the sale consideration buyer-wise and claim immunity from deduction of TDS since consideration attributable to each buyer is below Rs. 50 lakh.

(v) Thus, the provisions of section 194-IA will apply to a property transaction involving more than one buyer though the share of each buyer in the property is less than Rs. 50 lakh, but the consideration for transfer of the immovable property, in aggregate, is more than Rs. 50 lakh. In such case, tax will be deducted and deposited by each buyer in respect of their respective share in the immovable property.

(vi) Similarly, in case of a transaction involving more than one seller, tax will be deducted in respect of amount paid to each seller and their respective PAN will be quoted in Form 26QB while making payment.

(vii) Judicial pronouncements under Chapter XX-C of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (hereinafter referred to as Chapter XX-C) propose a similar philosophy that immovable property which is the subject matter of the transfer has to be seen in real light and provisions of Chapter XX-C shall apply when by a single agreement of transfer, co-owners of a property agreed to sell the property to the respondent which was above the limit prescribed for application of 269C.

(viii) Chapter XX-C dealt with purchase by Central Government of immovable properties in certain cases of transfer and provided for pre-emptive right of purchase of immovable property by the Government in a case where the apparent consideration for transfer of such property exceeded the specified limit mentioned under Section 269UC.

(ix) Section – 269-UC (1) read as follows:

“Notwithstanding anything contained in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (4 of 1882), or in any other law for the time being in force, no transfer of any immovable property in such area and of such value exceeding five lakh rupees, as may be prescribed, shall be effected except after an agreement for transfer is entered into between the person who intends transferring the immovable property (hereinafter referred to as the transferor) and the person to whom it is proposed to be transferred (hereinafter referred to as the transferee) in accordance with the provisions of s/s. (2) at least four months before the intended date of transfer.”

(x) The Bombay High Court in the case of Jodharam Daulat Ram Arora vs. M. B Kodnanai (120 CTR 166)(Bom) wherein there was one vendor and three purchasers, held as under:

‘The agreement in question before it was a composite agreement in respect of the flat and there was nothing in the agreement which indicate that the purchasers had agreed to buy individually an undivided 1/3rd share of the flat from the vendor. All the concerned parties had filed Form No.37-I and therefore it was not open to them to contend that section 269UD had no application and the appropriate authority had no jurisdiction.’

(xi) However, the Madras High Court took a contrary view in the case of K. V. Kishore vs. Appropriate Authority (189 ITR 264)(Mad). The Court held that –

‘What is sold, is the individual undivided share in the property and the value of each such share in the said immovable property was less than Rs. 25 lakh. The transferors were co-owners and each coowner was getting an apparent consideration that was less than the limit prescribed i.e less than Rs. 25 lakh. The provisions of Chapter XX-C was not attracted even though the amount that all the coowners received exceeded Rs. 25 lakh.’

(xii) Other High Courts in various judgments also upheld the above stated view of the Madras High Court.

(xiii) However, in Appropriate Authority vs. Smt. Varshaben Bharatbhai Shah (248 ITR 342)(SC), where two co-owners entered into an agreement to transfer immovable property, situated in Ahmedabad, to a seller for a sum of Rs. 47 lakh which was above the limit prescribed for application to appropriate authority u/s. 269UC of the Act, the Supreme Court reversing the decision of Gujarat High Court in Varshaben Bharatbhai Shah vs. Appropriate Authority (221 ITR 819)(Guj) and various judgments of other High Courts held that :

‘What, in our opinion, has to be seen for the purposes of attracting Chapter XX-C is: what is the property which is the subject-matter for such transfer and what is the apparent consideration for such transfer. This has to be seen in a real light with due regard to the object of the Chapter and not in an artificial or technical manner. Looked at realistically, it was the immovable property which was the subject matter of transfer. If the apparent consideration for the transfer is more than the limit prescribed for the relevant area under Rule 48K, what has then to be seen is whether the apparent consideration for the property is less than the market value thereof by 15 % or more. If so, the notice for pre-emptive purchase can be issued and it is then for the parties to the transaction to satisfy the appropriate authority that the apparent consideration is the real consideration for the transfer.’

‘In the present case the said agreement is for the sale of the immovable property and that the equal shares of the Respondent Nos. 2 and 3 therein were to be transferred to Respondent No. 1 is a necessary incident of such sale. The parties had also in Form 37-I correctly stated that what was being sold was the property and not the onehalf shares of the transferors and that the total apparent consideration for the transfer was Rs. 47 lakh. It was of no consequence that Respondents owned the property as tenants-in-common or that that was how they had shown their ownership in their income-tax returns. The provisions of Chapter XX-C applied.’

(xiv) The Supreme Court further added that: ‘Even if the agreement had been so drawn so as to show the transfer of the equal shares of the second and third respondents in the said immovable property, our conclusion would have been the same for, looked at realistically, it was the said immovable property which was the subject of transfer.’

‘We are of the opinion that the judgments of the Madras, Karnataka, Delhi and Calcutta High Courts referred to above are based on a wrong approach and are erroneous. We approve of the view taken by the Bombay High Court in Jodharam Daulatram Arora’s Case [1996]’

(xv) From the above judgment of the Apex Court, it is the law of the land that even if the property is owned by more than one persons and the apparent consideration in relation to the interest of each co-owner in the property is less than the ‘specified limit’, the provisions of Chapter XXC would be applicable if such property is transferred under a single agreement and the apparent consideration for the property as a whole exceeds the ‘specified limit’.

(xvi) Therefore, u/s. 194-IA also, if the consideration for the purchase of an immovable property shoots beyond 49,99,999/-, one has to withhold tax @ 1 per cent. The number of buyers signing up the agreement for transfer will not make a difference nor would the number of sellers make any difference either.

(f) Applicability of the section to a transaction of transfer by way of an exchange / where the consideration is in kind – The section requires deduction of tax at source by the transferee to a resident transferor out of any sum paid by way of consideration for the transfer of any immovable property (other than agricultural land). Questions do arise as to whether the provisions of this section are to be complied with, in cases, where the consideration is in kind eg., transactions of exchange or cases where the agreement is for joint development of the land belonging to the transferor by the transferee and the transferor is entitled to receive from the transferee a portion of the developed area i.e. a certain percentage of flats. There is no monetary consideration involved in such transactions. Assuming that the other conditions of the section are satisfied, the question being examined in this paragraph is whether the section contemplates the deduction only in cases where the consideration is in monetary terms or even in cases where the consideration is in kind. This controversy arises because of the words `any other mode’ used in sub-section (1) of section 194-IA.

The following arguments can be considered to support the proposition that the provisions of section 194-IA would apply only when the consideration is fixed in monetary terms:-

As has been stated earlier, the expression “any sum paid” has been interpreted by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of H. H. Sri Rama Verma vs. CIT (187 ITR 308) (SC) to mean only amount of money given as donations and not to donations in kind.

The provision contemplates `deduction’ – in cases where consideration is paid in kind ‘deduction’ is not possible.

Section 194B which deals with deduction from payment of any income by way of winnings from any lottery or cross word puzzle or card game or other game of any sort. This section has a specific proviso which was inserted by the Finance Act, 1997, w.e.f. 01.06.1997 which specifically deals with winnings wholly in kind or partly in cash and partly in kind, but the part in cash not being sufficient to meet liability of tax. Prior to the insertion of the proviso the CBDT had in Circular No. 428 dated 8.8.1985 stated that the section does not apply where the prize is given only in kind. The relevant portion of the circular is reproduced hereunder –

Circular : No. 428 [F. No. 275/30/85-IT(B)], dated 8-8-1985.

“3. The substance of the main provisions in the law insofar as they relate to deduction of income-tax at source from winnings from lotteries and crossword puzzles, is given hereunder :

(1) No tax will be deducted at source where the income by way of winnings from lottery or crossword puzzle is Rs. 1,000 or less.

(2) Where a prize is given partly in cash and partly in kind, income-tax will be deductible from each prize with reference to the aggregate amount of the cash prize and the value of the prize in kind. Where, however, the prize is given only in kind, no income-tax will be required to be deducted. ………..” U/s. 194B deduction is out of specified income.

U/s. 194-IA deduction is out of consideration for transfer of immovable property. Like consideration, income could be in cash or in kind. Following the above mentioned circular it can be safely argued that tax is not deductible when consideration is in kind. Recently, the Karnataka High Court in the case of CIT vs. Chief Accounts Officer, Bruhat Bangalore Mahanagar Palike (BBMP) (ITA NO. 94 of 2015 and ITA No. 466 of 2015; order dated 29th September, 2015), was dealing with a case where BBMP had taken over certain lands which were reserved and in lieu thereof it had allotted CDR (Certificate of Development Rights) to the persons who were the owners of the land so taken over. The owners of land were allotted CDR rights in the form of additional floor area, which shall be equal to one and a half times of area of land surrendered. The AO treated the BBMP as an assessee in default for not having deducted TDS u/s. 194LA. The language of section 194LA is materially similar to the language of section 194-IA. The Court has in para 9 held that where there is neither any quantification of the sum payable in terms of money nor any actual payment is made in monetary terms, it would not be fair to burden a person with the obligation of deducting tax at source and exposing him to the consequences of such default.

Thus, for the reasons stated above, it appears that the tax will be required to be deducted at source only in those cases where consideration is fixed in monetary terms. The consideration having been fixed by the parties in monetary terms the same may be discharged in kind. In cases, where the consideration is fixed in monetary terms but is discharged in kind, it is possible to argue that the provisions of the section may apply. In cases where consideration is fixed in kind (e.g. exchange transactions or cases of development agreement where the land owner is entitled to a share in the developed area and no monetary consideration), the better view appears to be that tax will not be required to be deducted at source. (f) Applicability of the section to rights in land or buildings or to reversionary rights -The section applies to consideration for transfer of immovable property (other than agricultural land). Immovable property has been defined to mean land or building or part of a building. Questions do arise as to whether tax is required to be deducted at source when the subject matter of transfer is not land or building or part of a building but rights in land or rights in building e.g. transfer of tenancy rights, grant of lease, etc. In the context of section 50C which applies to cases of transfer of land or building or both, the Tribunals have in the following cases taken a view that the provisions of section 50C do not apply to cases of transfer of rights in land or building but applies only when there is a transfer of land or building:
Kishori Sharad Gaitonde (ITA No. 1561/M/2009) (Mum SMC)(URO)
DCIT vs. Tejinder Singh [2012] 50 SOT 391 (Kol.)(Trib.)
Atul G. Puranik vs. ITO [2011] 58 DTR 208 (Mum.)(Trib.)
ITO vs. Yasin Moosa Godil [2012] 18 ITR 253 (Ahd.)(Trib.)

Following the ratio of the above decisions, it is possible to take a view that the provisions of section 194-IA do not apply to transfer of rights in land or building.

However, when reversionary rights are transferred by the landlord, the consideration paid for acquiring reversionary rights would be subject to deduction of tax at source in accordance with the provisions of this section.

(g) Applicability of the section to introduction of an immovable property by a partner of a firm into a firm – When a partner of a firm introduces land or building into a partnership firm where he is a partner, question arises whether tax is required to be deducted at source. If yes, who will deduct tax at source and on what amount? In a case where a partner of a firm introduces immovable property into a firm as his capital contribution, there is undoubtedly a transfer. Supreme Court has in the case of Sunil Siddharthbhai vs. CIT (1985) (156 ITR 509) (SC) held that what was the exclusive interest of a partner in his personal asset is, upon its introduction into the partnership firm as his share to the partnership capital, transformed into a shared interest with the other partners in that asset. Qua that asset, there is a shared interest. For the purposes of computing capital gains, the amount credited to the capital account of the partner is deemed to be full value of consideration by virtue of the deeming fiction created by section 45. The deeming fiction had to be introduced to overcome the observations of the Supreme Court in the case of Sunil Siddharthbhai (supra) where the SC held that the interest of a partner in the partnership firm is an interest which cannot be evaluated immediately. It is an interest which is subject to the operation of future transactions of the partnership, and it may diminish in value depending on accumulating liabilities and losses with a fall in the prosperity of the partnership firm. The evaluation of a partner’s interest takes place only when there is a dissolution of the firm or upon his retirement from it. While it may be an arguable proposition, to contend that the deeming fiction is only for the purposes of computation of capital gain and cannot be extended to provisions of section 194-IA of the Act, it would certainly be safer for the partnership firm to deduct tax at source u/s. 194-IA by considering the amount credited to the partner’s capital account as the amount of consideration.

Conclusion:
The above are some of the issues which arise in connection with the applicability of the provisions of section 194-IA. There are several other issues which are not covered here e.g. Applicability to cases of slump sale, amalgamation, amount paid by builder to a co-operative housing society/member thereof on redevelopment of property, applicability to acquisition of shares with occupancy rights attached to them, assignment of booking rights, etc. It would now be worthwhile to remind the reader of the golden rule applicable while interpreting the provisions of TDS i.e. when in doubt – Deduct. The arguments stated above can be resorted to in the event of any inadvertent slip in complying with the provisions.

Expectations from our new leaders

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When this issue reaches you, the voting for the Regional Councils and the Central Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI), will have been completed. The fate of the candidates, either seeking reelection or desiring to enter the council for the first time would have been sealed in the ballot boxes. The counting will take place and the election results will be known before the end of the year.

What is then that the ordinary members of the ICAI expect of our new leaders? First and foremost, our leaders should set an example for the members of the profession to follow. It is said that we get the leaders we deserve. However, it is equally true that when leaders show the path, followers follow. Members of the Council, whether it be Central or Regional, should set an example of ethical, disciplined, proactive and transparent behaviour. In the recent past, our profession has been continuously facing flak for declining ethical standards. If our leaders set high standards of morality and ethics, the general membership will look up to them. Further, they will then have the courage to represent to the government and other authorities when erroneous decisions, unfair to the members are being taken. I am deeply conscious that it is not easy to meet this expectation, but my suggestion to our new leaders is that they should make a beginning in that direction.

I have, in earlier editorials, expressed the view that the deliberations of our leaders both in councils and in various committees should be communicated to the general membership. This will achieve two objectives; the first is that, if discussions are regarding certain proposed amendments to legislation or regulations, both the concerned authorities and the members will be aware that the Council of a regulatory body is seized of the issues. The second is that the stakeholders would be able to communicate to the council their views, so that a decision after considering their thoughts can be taken. Transparency in governance is the buzzword today, and it is appropriate that a premier institution like the ICAI should set an example.

Another expectation is in regard to communication. Many times the government and the regulators take decisions which affect the interests of the members, their clients or both. While it is true that in regard to decisions affecting trade and industry it is the responsibility of the respective associations to take up the matter, it is equally true that the profession should be catalysts in that process. Therefore, if our leaders, through various committees or individually, have made various representations or have not made them for certain specific reasons, both should be placed in the public domain. The government may not necessarily accept the representation, but the fact that the leadership is taking action will boost the confidence of professional colleagues. Secondly, if an additional responsibility has been cast on the profession, and in discharging that responsibility the profession expects some specific action from the service recipient, that expectation should be communicated. If there are inherent limitations/difficulties in carrying out the new tasks, those also should be intimated. This will ensure that the service providers and service recipients work together rather than criticising each other. It is not as if today our leaders do not communicate. The need is that our leaders should not only speak, they should also listen, and the fact that they are listening should be made known to all.

At times professional colleagues may have expectations from our Institution, which may be totally unreasonable. In such a situation, the newly elected council members should be firm and explain patiently to the profession as to why the expectations are unwarranted. We elect leaders not for taking popular decisions but taking right decisions even if some of us find them difficult to digest. The true test of leadership is not in doing what the public wants but in doing what is right and in convincing people that what is being done is in their interest.

Lastly, significant attention needs to be given to students. These are members of the future. One often finds that, during the period of articleship, and even after passing the final examination and becoming Chartered Accountants students do not have any sense of belonging towards their alma mater. There is, in fact, a sense of alienation. This does not augur well for an institution which is into its seventh decade of existence and is really destined to play an important role in the life of a fast-growing nation. There is a feeling among new entrants that the ICAI does not do enough for them. It is a grudge that they harbour from their student days. Their grievances may not necessarily be correct, but this feeling needs to be addressed. It is only if younger members take interest in the affairs of an institution can it become vibrant. It is true that this is not a problem unique only to ICAI but is affecting other institutions as well. I hope our new leaders will take note.

I have tried to put together a few thoughts for the members of the new councils, Central and Regional. On behalf of all readers and the BCAS, I wish them well and hope all their dreams come true. When I communicate with you again the New Year would have already begun. I take this opportunity to wish all readers and their families a very happy and prosperous New Year!

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Namaskar

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‘Because I love life, I know I shall love death as well’
Gurudev Tagore

1.
We mortals live in the fear of death. We do not realise that `death’ is
a reliever of pain and `death’ also is a leveller, for it is said :
sceptre and crown in dust be equal made. The greatest wonder is that
whilst we see others die we don’t believe that we are also going to die.
We little realise that death is a certainty. There is a saying in Guru
Granth Saheb that implies death is a certainty. ‘Jo UPJIO so bins hai karo aaj ke kaaj’. Translated it means : Everything that is born must die – don’t greave, do today’s work.

2. The question is : what is death? Philosophers say : birth and death are two sides of the same coin – and are the threads which weave life. Death also gives birth when bible propounds the concept that ‘unless a seed dies it can produce no grain. A seed has to cease to be itself in order to be a source of life to others’.
I believe that ‘death’ is a friend who is born with me, walks with me,
laughs with me and weeps with me – the only thing I don’t know when he
is going to ask me to walk with him. This uncertainty brings in the fear
of the unknown. To face this uncertainty we have to accept death as
reality and be ready for it and do what Leonardo da Vinci said ‘while I
thought that I was learning how to live, I have been learning how to
die’. Let us learn how to die. Death is not to be feared.

3. The next question is : what does death do!
Death converts a person into a thought – memory. It makes us realise
that the physical body of ours comes with an expiry date and death is a
painful truth – nay – just truth. It at times impels us to think ‘life
is an illusion’. It also teaches us to reflect on our actions – in other
words – check our actions on the touchstone of morality.

4. Have we noticed that persons belonging to a particular sect apply Bhasma on their forehead! They probably believe that bhasma reminds them and prepares them to meet ‘death’ as ultimately body turns into Bhasma – ash. What a wonderful way to live with death.

5.
There is another way of viewing death. For those of us who believe in
the concept of re-incarnation – there is no death – because death is
only a comma and not a full stop. Hal Borland has put this concept
beautifully in words when he says ‘your end is neither an end nor a beginning but a going on, with all the wisdom that experience can instil in us’.
Every birth is an experience gatherer. Our philosophy of karma also
propounds the concept that we take birth again and again to live the
result of our good and bad actions.

6. Have we ever observed our
reactions at someone’s death. Death at 25 is shocking, at 50 it causes
anguish and at or after 70 death is accepted as a norm. We say either he
lived well or he is relieved of his pain and suffering.

7.
Swami Sukhabodhananda says: ‘Death is the most critical defining feature
of life. When you die, you are making the ultimate desirable assertion
that you have been alive. In fact, death is a precondition to life’.

8.
We have to realise that there should be no fear of an event that is
certain – death. We need to live life – live it and enjoy it because
life is worth living as it is a gift from God. Whilst enjoying life, the
one death we should seek is the death of ego.

9. I would conclude by quoting Osho :

‘It is not whether life exists after death. The real question is :Whether you are alive before death?

NB:
The author attempts every morning to ask himself the question : How
will I live this day if it was my last day – so should we all. The
answer, friends, would reflect the answer to the question asked by OSHO.

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Sahitya storm – Writers must stand up for intel – lectual freedom, returning awards may not be the best way

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A rising tide of writers are returning their Sahitya a kademi awards in protest against growing intolerance and restricted space for freedom of choice in the country, since nda governments came to power at the Centre in 2014 and subsequently in many states. Culture is an early warning sign, and BJP-led governments must take note of growing signs of disquiet. e ven as people are lynched on suspicion of consuming beef, three rationalists have been murdered in succession in m aharashtra and Karnataka – extremely un- i ndian acts that are being laid at the door of h indu extremists. they are usually followed by a stream of statements from high-ranking BJP leaders, which appear to condone heinous crimes and create a culture of impunity around them by trotting out the time-worn cliché of ‘hurt sentiments’.

If writers and intellectuals were to secede, it would seriously diminish i ndian soft power. But more importantly, they broach broader concerns. Poor people in the countryside are dependent on the cattle trade. Curtailing this due to the hysteria over beef will see a drop in their living standards at a time when the agricultural sector is already in crisis. moreover, youth have grown aspirational and will not take kindly to an atmosphere of restricted political and social freedoms. a ll this will hurt B j P in elections and make Prime minister Narendra Modi’s modernising agenda seem hollow.

At the same time, writers also need to reflect on the perhaps unintended irony of returning their Sahitya a kademi awards as a protest against the government. t his implicitly concedes that Sahitya a kademi is a government body, and thereby raises the question why they were content with government patronage and did not fight for an autonomous body that truly represents writers.

A related concern is whether writers have been as vocal about muslim fundamentalism, or of left-wing crackdowns on dissent, as they have been on hindu fundamentalism. Few writers protested, for example, when the Left stifled intellectual life in Bengal or when Taslima nasrin was drummed out of that state. a solution would be to have a robust, autonomous body of writers that is willing to speak out on assaults on freedom of expression, no matter what quarter the attack is coming from. the government, on its part, must note that leftwing intolerance does not justify right-wing intolerance; both will lead to the same sorry results. India can flourish only in a liberal atmosphere, which gives citizens the right to choose.

A new international tax regime – Govt must con – sult industry and implement BEPS project

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The recent unveiling of the final reports on 15 action plans by the Organisation for
Economic Cooperation and Development, or OECD , under its Base Erosion and Profit Sharing (BEPS) project will undoubtedly mean new and formidable challenges for many companies operating in india and abroad. No less formidable will be the challenge the BEPS project will pose for the Indian tax authorities, as they have to conform to a new regime of cross-border taxation even as they undertake fresh tax policy reforms at home. The BEPS measures, according to one estimate, will affect just under 200 large indian companies. to begin with, these companies will have to adhere to the country-by-country reporting standards for their operations in different tax jurisdictions. Globally, an estimated 9,000 companies will be impacted by the new measures, and each of them will have to reckon with the tax policies in vogue in different countries where they have business operations. t he numbers may not look too large at present. But there is no doubt that the manner in which the indian authorities ensure tax compliance by companies operating in india under the BEPS regime will determine to a great extent india’s reputation in providing the ease of doing business, and hence its attractiveness as a destination for new investments.

The BEPS project, led by the OECD and the Group of 20 (G20) countries, is a response to the 2008 global financial crisis, and is meant to lay the foundations of sustainable and long-term economic growth by avoiding policies that promote growth at the expense of other countries. it has been estimated that multinational businesses have often used a complex transaction structure to artificially reduce their outgo on corporate taxes by shifting to jurisdictions with lower taxation. according to OECD estimates, such tax avoidance has led to a global revenue loss of $100- 240 billion every year – as significantly large as four to 10 per cent of global corporate income-tax revenues. the 15 action plans approved under the BEPS project will help improve transparency for both businesses and governments by introducing commonly agreed minimum standards for tax administration across countries. they are focused on a large number of diverse and important issues including those pertaining to alignment of taxation with the location of economic activity and value creation, application of transfer pricing guidelines and taxation of digital enterprises like those engaged in e-commerce. of particular importance is the BEPS regime’s focus on reinforcing the limitation of benefits to companies to prevent what is commonly referred to as treaty-shopping, where a company uses a location of business with the sole purpose of taking advantage of a tax benefit available under a bilateral tax agreement.

The challenges for both Indian tax policy makers and the companies are, therefore, huge. Indian companies expected to come under the purview of BEPS will have to increase their awareness of the new regime and start preparing to comply with the new regulations that are likely to be in place from 2017. Without losing much time, they have to bring their accounting systems up to date, improve their compliance mechanisms, particularly with regard to country-by-country reporting standards and transfer pricing rules, and upgrade the manner in which they report data. of some concern will be the way the BEPS regime will bring digital economy enterprises like start-ups and e-commerce ventures under the tax net. For the Indian tax authorities, the tasks are even more onerous. they have to start a process of consulting industry players on the BEPS regime and how they intend to bring their taxation system in line with the mandated international standards. this cannot be allowed to be a new source of irritation for industry or a cause for rising cost of compliance. there has to be a healthy balance between ensuring compliance without adversely affecting India Inc’s competitiveness.

New SEBI Listing Regulations – revised requirements of corporate governance, disclosures, etc.

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Background

SEBI has recently notified the SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (“the Listing Regulations”). They will primarily replace the Listing Agreement and certain related provisions. On the face of it, it may appear that the notification is old wine in a new bottle. A superficial review may even create an impression that the Listing Regulations make merely cosmetic/ aesthetic changes in that they organise into categories/ chapters the myriad of clauses that were messily placed in the Listing Agreement, being the result of random additions/deletions and endless amendments. However, a closer analysis reveals that there are several structural changes and new requirements/modifications. Primarily, the status of the provisions has been substantially elevated from a set of provisions that had a dubious legal status to a proper law with, as we will discuss later, severe consequences. The rights and obligations of various parties that were unclear and uncertain under the Listing Agreement are now clearer, well-defined and attributed directly and specifically. More important is the fact that the obligations of various persons such as the company, its directors, the Chief Financial Officer, Company Secretary, etc. and even the auditors and the Audit Committee have increased. The life of the already overburdened and underpaid independent directors will worsen further.

The new regulations are fairly lengthy, though this is also on account of the fact that they seek to cover the listing obligations of not just equity shares but also other types of securities. Still, the 111 page long regulations would need a deep study to understand their implications. In this article, some highlights are briefly discussed.

Nature of the Regulations

The Regulations largely compile, rewrite and re-organise at several places, the familiar Listing Agreement and certain related provisions, in the form of Regulations. The Listing Agreement primarily provide for certain obligations of companies whose securities have been listed on recognised stock exchanges. The requirements include disclosures of important developments in such companies, of periodic accounts, etc. The Listing Agreement is also the place where Clause 49 that covers the requirements relating to corporate governance are placed. There are several other requirements contained in other provisions. These are now gathered at one place in an organised manner in the new Listing Regulations. Thus, while the SEBI ICDR   Regulations pave the road to listing of securities of a company, the Listing Regulations
now provide for requirements of their continued listing.

A formal and very short Listing Agreement of course continues (which listed companies are required to execute) but the substantive provisions are now in the Listing Regulations. Further, the Listing Regulations provide for separate chapters for requirements in case of different type of listed securities.

Date when the regulations shall come into effect

The bulk of the regulations shall come into effect from 1st December 2015 (except, however, as will be seen later, for two sets of provisions that have come into effect immediately, i.e. from 2nd September 2015). This has given time for companies and others concerned to absorb the contents, changes and implications of the new
provisions.

More severe punishment for violations

The primary structural change is that, instead of the provisions being in the form of a listing agreement, which, at least conceptually, had a dubious legal status and hence implications, the Listing Regulations have a well recognised and well defined status and implications.

The Listing Agreement was of course not a mere private agreement where only the signing parties could act against each other. For example, section 23E of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, provided for a stiff penalty for violation of listing conditions. The stock exchanges too ensured discipline and enforcement to considerable extent. Further, SEBI had direct control over the provisions. Nevertheless, the element of uncertainty remained. Moreover, the final recourse of contraventions of the Listing Agreement could, in theory, only be of terminating the Listing Agreement. This would mean delisting the shares in the present case which would obviously be counter productive as this would harm the shareholders for no fault of theirs. SEBI has of course been using its generic and wide powers to take action and pass fairly stringent orders. It has debarred directors, executives, etc. and generally taken penal action in various forms. However, this is not a happy situation. For one, such action is taken only in extreme cases. Further, the role and liability of various parties remains unclear.

Now that the provisions are in the form of regulations, there are clear penalties and other actions under the SEBI Act and the Listing Regulations. Parties such as directors, compliance officers, Auditors, Independent Directors, etc. are clearer on what their role is now.

Penalties are now specific and well defined. Penalties would be levied on specified parties, of defined amounts and as per specified transparent due legal process. It is clearer what the roles of the company (which is primary and generally comprehensive), the compliance officer (there are some provisions made for them directly), and the audit committee are.

Generally, as seen later, corporate governance provisions too have been elevated to status of law and the roles of individual parties or groups are now directly  defined.

Regulation 98 also provides specifically for various actions by the stock exchanges in case of contraventions of the Listing Regulations. These actions include levy  of fine, suspension of trading, etc. These actions are in addition to the penal and other actions under the SEBI Act. In many cases, there may be further action under the Companies Act, 2013 too.

Corporate governance now a law

Clause 49, as a legal term, is now history. Earlier, as a clause bearing that number, it was part of the Listing Agreement and thus had implications only as much as of the Listing Agreement. Now it is a specific component of the Listing Regulations.

While the requirements remain largely unchanged, considering that each requirement lays down what each person, committee, board, etc., has to do, the liability of parties is now specific and defined. These parties would now know what are the requirements statutorily expected of them and what are the consequences of non-compliance.

Chartered accountants and other professionals including auditors who are associated with listed companies in various ways will particularly need to pay heed to and understand the new provisions well.

Related party transactions

The requirements for approval, disclosure, etc. of related party transactions are largely carried over from Clause 49. The requirement of obtaining prior approval of the Audit Committee for all related party transactions continues. The relaxation for giving prior omnibus approval for certain types of recurring transactions as also for transactions up to a specified value under certain conditions also continues.

As earlier, material (as defined) related party transactions require approval of shareholders by way of a special resolution where related parties shall not vote. Two changes were expected. One was that the resolution required would be ordinary and not special. This change has been made and with immediate effect. Thus, now, only an ordinary resolution is required for  approval of material related party transactions. The other was that only the bar on voting on such resolutions should be on only those parties that are related for the purposes of the proposed transactions. This change has not materialised. All related parties are barred from voting at such resolution. The definition of related party transactions remains broader. To these and certain other extent, the requirements under the Regulations are different from the corresponding requirements under the Companies Act, 2013.

Disclosures of material developments

The new Regulations provide for substantially revised provisions for disclosures by companies. Investors and markets generally expect suo motu and prompt disclosure of developments by the company. However, there was uncertainty on what to report, when to report, who to report and how to report. Balance is required between sending a deluge of information where a few important things get hidden in a pile of information, and reporting arbitrarily selective aspects only at the last possible date. Balance is also required in reporting things too early and too late when rumours and leaks have already caused havoc to the markets.

The Regulations now provide for completely re-written requirements for disclosures of  material developments. They are divided broadly into two categories – disclosures of developments that are material as per certain specified guidelines and developments that are deemed to be material and hence to be reported. The stage at which the developments are to be disclosed has also been defined, and once that stage is reached, the requirement also is for prompt disclosure.

Of particular note are the deemed material items. For example, certain types of frauds are  deemed to be material developments irrespective of the amounts involved.

Obligations of the Board

The regulations now specify and define, even if largely general terms, the obligations and duties of the Board of Directors of a listed company. This is of course largely carried over from clause 49. However, again, considering that the requirements are now in the form of  regulations, they will have greater implications. They will need closer attention.

Accounts and financial Disclosures

The requirements of making periodic disclosure of results continue largely as earlier. This aspect would require greater study and analysis particularly by CFOs and Auditors.

Cessation of a person/group from the Promoter Group

Though relatively an infrequent happening, persons seeking to be excluded from the Promoter Group present not just a sensitive issue, but also remains uncertain in terms of legal provisions. For example, an individual or even a family/group may desire to be excluded from the Promoter Group. This may be because they no more hold partly or wholly any control or they wish to relinquish control. Being in control, even if it is joint, results in certain obligations which they wish to relinquish too, along with the control. At the same time, allowing such exclusion may result in persons having control or even a material connection being excluded from obligations. The Listing Regulations now contain fairly comprehensive and transparent requirements for permitting such exclusion. These requirements have come into effect from 2nd September 2015.

Conclusion

The lengthy Regulations provide for many things with far ranging implications that cannot be even highlighted in a short article. However, it is clear that the job of the board, director,  committees, compliance officer, etc. has increased substantially. While in the short term, the transition from the Listing Agreement to the isting Regulations may be smooth, in the longer term perhaps, as companies and others are regularly hauled up and penalised in various forms, the implications of the changes will be realised. It is becoming more and more difficult to exist as a listed company and to be associated with a listed company. In the longer term the question that will confront us is, whether and to whom it is financially and otherwise rewarding to be so?

Jaitley’s Gambit – Piecemeal tax reforms only act as a palliative, it’s time to revive direct tax code

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Finance minister Arun Jaitley has constituted a committee of experts to suggest changes to income tax law with the aim of simplifying it, providing a stable environment and reducing the incidence of litigation through removal of ambiguities. The aims are unexceptionable but the approach is puzzling. during his budget speech, Jaitley said he saw no merit in pursuing a new direct tax law. But controversies since then over the law’s interpretation forced him to engage in firefighting, which has now culminated in the expert committee. i ndia needs a new direct tax code underpinned by an integrated approach to reform, rather than piecemeal change.

The last six years have seen three finance ministers struggle to reform the direct tax code. The first draft in 2009 was the most comprehensive attempt to change the code, but it wasn’t fully implemented. i n the interim, problems multiplied as the law was not in sync with structural changes in the economy. Litigation has grown. a t the end of 2013-14, Rs.2.59 trillion of direct taxes claimed was under dispute. Problems aren’t going away as the recent controversy over MAT on foreign portfolio investors showed.

Jaitley should restart the exercise of a comprehensive new direct tax code. experience suggests that piecemeal reform merely works as apalliative. Not long after an effort at piecemeal reform, a controversy erupts and the fallout spills over to other areas of the economy. t he only way for Jaitley to avoid frequent bouts of crisis management is to completely overhaul the existing law. Blueprints of earlier attempts make it easier to get started and exclusive central control of direct tax means that the legislative process for a new law will be easier.

MAT on FPIs – Fickle Tax Laws hurt Foreign In – vestors

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It is absurd that foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) are facing fresh income-tax queries after the government granted them a retrospective exemption from the minimum alternate tax ( mat ), based on the recommendations of the justice A . P. Shah panel. however, FPIs will now reportedly have to convince tax authorities that they do not have a permanent establishment
 (PE) here to escape the tax.

Foreign institutional investors, now FPIs, have been in relentless fear that tax authorities could construe their domestic custodian as a PE in India, making them liable to pay tax. The government must come out with a clear communiqué on what constitutes a P E , and not leave it to interpretation. Waffling on the promise to scrap MAT on FPIs could create mayhem on the markets, needlessly. do servers, for example, create a permanent presence?
In the OECD’s view, a server i fixed, automated equipment that can perform important and essential business functions – may be sufficient to create a PE at the equipment location without the presence of human beings. Conflicting rulings by the authority of advance rulings have only added to uncertainty in this area of taxation. t he government should clear the air to mitigate investor concerns.

In this case, FPIs have approached the Dispute r esolution m echanism ( DR. P). t he need is to ensure its robust functioning – the DR. P has a pool of dedicated tax officers. India has slipped in the World Bank’s latest ease of doing business index in terms of paying taxes, and mounting disputes could be a major reason. t he country’s tax regime must be reformed to minimise disputes. o ur tax officers should be better trained to deal with complex transactions as India globalises. Predictability of tax conduct is on par with simplicity of the law.

Moody’s is right to warn that belligerent com – munal rhetoric could ruin India’s economic pros – pects

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Prime Minister Narendra Modi has gone all out to pitch i ndia as a global business destination. But the research arm of international ratings agency Moody’s has injected a timely note of warning on domestic actions that might scupper this bid. in a report titled ‘ India outlook: Searching for Potential’, moody’s a nalytics has said unequivocally that unless m odi reins in BJP members making controversial statements, i ndia runs the risk of losing domestic and global credibility.

President Pranab Mukherjee, addressing the Delhi high court on its golden jubilee, pitched yet again for pluralism and tolerance. and RBI governor Raghuram Rajan devoted a good part of his IIT Delhi convocation speech to explicating why tolerance is essential for i ndia’s economic progress. While tolerance allows the best ideas to come forward and compete, in an intolerant regime the worst ideas can’t be questioned. in place of the false opposition between tolerance and nationalism that hyper-nationalists within BJP presume tolerance, as r ajan proposes, should be deemed a patriotic service.

As the Moody’s report points out, there are two interrelated ways that religious majoritarianism and the spreading culture of bans and intolerance can hold up economic progress. First, rising ethnic tensions will discourage investors who have a host of international destinations to choose from. Second, the political debate in the country will turn away from development to more divisive issues, creating stiffer opposition to the government in Parliament and holding up the passage of reform measures key to turning around a sagging economy – such as GST, relaxed labour laws and land acquisition norms. Modi needs to lay down the ‘ sabka saath sabka vikas ’ line more firmly within his own party and government by telling his hardline colleagues they can’t have the cake and eat it too: it’s either economic progress or the religious agenda.

Ease of doing business in India – From 130 to 50 – Long road to genuinely improving business en – vironment

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The World Bank’s Doing Business 2016 report, which evaluates the ease of doing business across the world, has said that i ndia is the 130th toughest nation in the world in which to do business. t his is four ranks higher than it was in 2015, in which its rank has been recalculated to be 134 instead of 142. t he n arendra m odi-led government’s stated aim, to drag i ndia into the top 50 before its term is over, at present, looks distant. e ven this improvement underlines, in fact, how deep and wide-ranging reform will have to be just to improve on paper, let alone in fact and in the eyes of entrepreneurs and investors. t he improvement in the national ranking comes from, essentially, a few procedural changes in how d elhi’s power distribution company BS e S gets new connections to customers in south, east and west d elhi. t he number of inspectors has been reduced from two to one and the number of steps to the process reduced. a nd, the reason why i ndia has jumped many steps in the new method of evaluating ranks is because “reliability” of power supply is now a criterion, which it wasn’t in the old method used till 2015. o f course, power supply in d elhi and m umbai, the only locations the World Bank considers, is reliable – but, in the rest of the country, that is not always the case. Far deeper and broader reform will be needed, and it would be risky to be content with such improvements. Coincidentally, the government has also announced a committee, led by a retired judge, to look into how to redraft the income-tax law. t his is a valuable effort; by making the language clearer and less ambiguous, the number of disputes between the taxman and companies or individuals could theoretically be reduced. t he number of tax cases has gone up in the past decade, and several thousands of complex legal cases block up i ndia’s courts. o f course a well-drafted law might conceivably help settle cases quicker. But without a better-administered income- tax department, one that is not incentivised to chase down targets, a well-drafted law will make only a limited impact in tackling the current problems. n or will a better-drafted law help settle outstanding or frivolous cases quicker in the absence of judicial capacity at every level.

Finally, the quality of drafting of the tax law is not its only constraint on the ease of doing business – India ranked 157th in the world in terms of the ease of paying taxes. according to the report, 243 hours a year are devoted by business to paying taxes, which they have to do as many as 33 times, at an effective tax rate of close to 60 per cent of profits. In other words, the tax system needs to be overhauled not just in terms of legal but also economic effectiveness. And this is not a difficult task either. The finance ministry has in its possession a series of reports on taxation reforms, which have outlined a detailed action plan on how to make India’s tax system less adversarial, more friendly to the tax-payer and less prone to litigation. i t is time the ministry took a closer look at those recommendations for overhauling the tax system. a shallow effort will not work.

[Comment: Without a change in the mindset of the Bureaucracy, Revenue officials & the Regulators, it would be an impossible aspiration !]

Keeping abreast – Judiciary needs to keep up with economic knowledge

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Do senior judges and regulators who have to increasingly deliver pronouncements and findings on complex technical and economic issues have a chance to keep abreast with the rapid changes taking place to knowledge? r ecently the Bombay h igh Court delivered a verdict on taxation issues relating to Vodafone, a telecom service provider, and the Competition Commission of i ndia pronounced on the conduct of sugar mills. i n such instances the judicial or quasi-judicial authority needs to have a knowledge of not just the law but also have some grounding in the imperatives governing market-driven economies and ground realities in particular industries. t he latter keep changing rapidly with technological developments altering the rules of the game even as the number of regulators with specific economic jurisdictions keeps going up.

There is already some institutional support in this endeavour. t he National Judicial a cademy, a training institute for judicial officers, has established the “national judicial education strategy” which holds programmes for high court judges and district judges. But the training usually pertains to matters like correct legal procedure and evaluating evidence. t his does not sufficiently help a judge when dealing with scientific evidence in judging, say, an intellectual property dispute in pharmaceuticals or information technology software. Consider the differences with senior i ndian civil servants who can, for instance under the Colombo Plan, attend courses in internationally reputable institutions to acquaint themselves with the latest developments in economic thinking and public administration.

Given the increasing calls being made upon the judiciary to freely and fairly determine contentious issues which are grounded in the latest technology and economic principles, senior judges and regulators would benefit from refreshing their knowledge beyond the domain of law. t here is a need, therefore to formalise a system whereby senior judges and regulators can expand their knowledge base in keeping with the changing needs of society. the cost of even the best such training has been substantially reduced by the rapidly expanding fields of e-learning and e-tutoring. modules can be prepared keeping the needs of judges in mind and they can pursue them interactively, with guidance from remotely placed experts. the process can be topped up with a course or residential seminar at a reputed institution. a ll professionals – not just civil servants or doctors – need to keep abreast with the new knowledge of the day and there is an urgent need to set in place a system to deliver this to judges.

Arbitration Law Amendments – Cuts Both Ways!

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Introduction

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 (“the Act”) was enacted in 1996 to repeal and replace the Arbitration Act, 1940 and other ancillary Acts. It was considered a pathbreaking Act since, to a great extent, it institutionalised the forum of Arbitration in India and introduced various sweeping changes based on the UNCITRAL Model Law on International Commercial Arbitration and the UNCITRAL Conciliation Rules adopted by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL). Arbitration was considered to be the saviour to a judiciary creaking from an alarming number of cases. It was considered to be a fast-track route to dispute resolution. However, the reality has been quite contrary.

Almost 20 years later, the Government felt that the Act requires urgent changes and since Parliament was not in session, it promulgated an Ordinance titled, The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Ordinance, 2015. This Ordinance was promulgated by the President on 23rd October, 2015 and is in force from that date. The Ordinance has  introduced several changes to the Act, which are intended to speed up the process and improve the quality of arbitration. Under the Constitution of India, an Ordinance must be laid before both the Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate as an Ordinance after six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament. Thus, the Government must come out with an Amendment Act within this time or another Ordinance.

As is the case with several enactments, there is often a slip between the cup and the lip and the best of intent is set to naught! The Ordinance contains a few good amendments and a few not so good ones. Let us examine some crucial changes introduced by this Ordinance and how some of these could actually derail the process of arbitration!

Arbitrators’ Fees Capped

An extremely innovative concept introduced by the Ordinance is that of fixing the fees of the arbitrators. The High Court is empowered to frame Rules for the fees of the arbitrators after considering the rates specified in the Schedule to the Ordinance. The Schedule lays down model fees on an ad valorem basis with a cap on the maximum fees which can be charged. The sliding scale provides for a minimum fee of Rs.45,000 for a dispute in which the sum involved is up to Rs.5 lakh. The maximum slab is in case of a dispute in which the sum  involved is above Rs.20 crore, in which case the fees are Rs.19.87 lakh + 0.5% of the claim above Rs.20 crore. However, the maximum fees cannot exceed Rs.30 lakh. This is probably one of the few instances of a Central Enactment laying down fees. While the lawyers and other consultants appearing before the arbitrators can charge any amount of fees, the arbitrators are constrained by the Ordinance! Moreover, what happens if the arbitrators actually spend more time and effort in hearings, gathering evidences, etc., than the fees prescribed by the Ordinance? Would this in fact not reduce the supply of good arbitrators? Fees are a matter of demand and supply and commercial negotiation between the parties to the dispute and the arbitrators. One wonders where is the need for legislative intervention in this? Would this not disincentivise good arbitrators?

The Ordinance provides an escape route by stating that the limit on fees would not apply to international commercial arbitrations and those arbitrations which are as per the rules of an  arbitral institution. Thus, for instance, if parties to the dispute agree to hold the arbitration as per the Rules of the Indian Council of Arbitration, then the fee schedule prescribed by the Council would not apply.

No more Recusing oneself afterwards

The Ordinance seeks to lay down under what scenarios an arbitrator would be considered as having a conflict of interest scenario with the parties to the dispute. Thus, instead of allegations of conflict cropping up later on and the arbitrator recusing himself, the law upfront states what is a conflict.

Where there is existence of a direct or indirect past or present relationship of the arbitrator either with any of the parties to the dispute or in relation to the subject matter of the dispute, then he must disclose such interest, in writing, before accepting appointment. The interest could be financial, business, professional or any other kind which is likely to give rise to justifiable doubts as to his independence or impartiality.

While a good part of this was already contained in the Act, the Ordinance seeks to provide the grounds which shall guide in determining whether or not circumstances exist which give rise to justifiable doubts as to his independence or impartiality. A long list of 34 such circumstances has been given, classified under the following grounds:

  • Arbitrator’s relationship with the parties to the dispute or their counsel
  • Arbitrator’s relationship to the dispute
  • Arbitrator’s direct or indirect interest in the dispute
  • Previous services for one of the parties or other involvement in the case
  • Relationship between an arbitrator and another arbitrator
  • Relationship between an arbitrator and counsel
  • Relationship between an arbitrator and parties to the dispute or their affiliates
  • Other circumstances.

This specific list of circumstances would remove any ambiguity as to whether or not there is any conflict of interest in a given case. If the arbitrator is of the view that there exist  circumstances of the type specified in the Ordinance, then the format in which the disclosure is to be made has also been laid down.

Magical Time limit for completion

Just as in the fairy tale, Cinderella had a time limit of getting home by 12 midnight, an  arbitration award must now be made within a period of 12 months from the date of reference to the arbitral Tribunal! The date of reference is the date on which all the arbitrators have received written notice of their appointment. Thus, there is a maximum period of 12 months to dispose of the arbitration. If the parties consent, the 12 months period can be extended by a maximum further period of 6 months. Any extension beyond 6 months cannot be granted by the parties.

After this extended period of 18 months, only the Court would have powers to extend the period or else the mandate of the arbitrators would terminate. While the intent is to speed up the process, this may actually retard the process. Lobbing the ball back to the Court would be a step backwards.

While granting the extension, the Court may substitute one or all of the arbitrators and if such a substitution does take place, then the substituted arbitrators would be deemed to have been  appointed from inception and the proceedings would continue from the stage where they  ended before the earlier panel of arbitrators. Further, the new arbitrators would have deemed to have received the evidence and material already on record. Is this not an extremely strange position? What if all the arbitrators are replaced and all evidence / witnesses / submissions  were already heard by the earlier panel? The new panel would be expected to pronounce its award without examining the witnesses, without hearing the submissions once again, etc. They would have to rely solely on the papers before them. All the best to the new arbitrators for jumping on to a running train.

Carrot and Stick approach for Arbitrators

Another novel concept introduced is the success fee and penalty clause for arbitrators. If the arbitrators complete an arbitration within 6 months from the date of reference (instead of the available 12 months), then they shall be entitled to such additional fees as the parties decide. Thus, there is an incentive for completing the job earlier. The law also presents a stick to the arbitrators. If the Court extends the arbitration beyond 18 months but while doing so finds that the delay is attributable to the arbitrator’s fault, then it may reduce the arbitrator’s fees by a maximum of 5% for each month of delay. Thus, if the Court is of the view that  the entire delay over 12 months was due to the fault of the arbitrator, then it may deduct 5% * 6 = 30% of the fees! Who wants to be an arbitrator is going to be the name of the new game!

Fast Track Procedure

One good concept is that of a fast track arbitration. If the parties agree then they can opt for this instead of the regular procedure. In this case, there may be a sole arbitrator who shall only admit written submissions. There would not be any oral hearings unless all the parties so  request or unless the arbitrator considers it necessary for certain clarifications. Technical formalities may also be disposed of by the arbitrator. However, the award must be made  within a period of 6 months from the date of reference. The model fees and maximum fees would not apply in the case of a fast track procedure.

Award against Public Policy

One of the grounds for setting aside an arbitration award by a Court is, if it finds that the  award is in conflict with the public policy of India. The Act provided that this was a general phrase which could have several grounds. It only stated that an award made by fraud or induced by corruption would be one of them. This gave an open field to the parties to challenge the award, thereby delaying the dispute resolution process.

The Ordinance has come out with an exhaustive and restrictive meaning of the term ‘conflict with the public policy of India’ as a ground for challenging an award. Only where making of the award was induced or affected by fraud or corruption, or it is in contravention with the fundamental policy of Indian Law or is in conflict with the most basic notions of morality or justice, the award shall be treated as against the Public Policy of India.

Conclusion

Internationally, an arbitration is usually completed within a year (even though it may not be a legal binding to do so). In India, arbitrations are nefarious for lingering on. In this scenario, when the time limit is set by law, is it helpful? While the idea behind the Ordinance is a noble one, that of speeding up and improving the quality of arbitration so as to lessen the load of the judiciary, one wonders whether the pill may in fact be worse than the ill!

Is this a knee-jerk reaction to improving India’s ease of doing business ranking or is it a well-thought out longterm strategy is something which time will tell. Has the Government unwittingly unleashed a double-edged sword, one which would speed up the arbitration process but may also reduce the number of arbitrators? It would be worthwhile to remember that those who live by the sword, often perish by it!!

Aadhaar – Govt should now bring forth an effec – tive privacy law

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The Supreme Court’s modification of its order on Aadhaar, expanding the use of the unique identification system to four additional welfare schemes – provident funds and pensions, the
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme and Jan Dhan Yojana – is a welcome step. t he court’s earlier decision this summer limiting Aadhaar to the public food distribution system and fuel subsidies had thrown authorities like the Ministry of Rural
Development and the Election Commission into confusion. t hey were reported to be pulling back from using the biometric system as it was feared they would be seen to be in contempt of court. t he earlier order ruled that Aadhaar could be used for food and fuel subsidies but not for other purposes, limiting the use of this potent tool to contain subsidies leakage. Aadhaar is best understood as a technology foundation upon which i ndia can build a better, more-targeted and less-leaky subsidies system – food and fuel subsidies have been grossly misdirected over the past several decades. It can also help achieve radically higher rates of financial inclusion. In Bengaluru, efforts by a non-governmental organisation has seen construction labourers, among others, open bank accounts late at night at small grocery stores and remit money to their families in rural India. By being able to do so without paying onerous commissions of as much as Rs. 100 for a remittance of Rs.1,000 has made them eager adopters of a financial inclusion effort that uses Aadhaar as a backbone. Aadhaar thus enjoys support at both ends of the policy spectrum: the poor without bank accounts, who are delighted to have access to services that are often elusive, and policymakers, who see larger goals such as reducing the fiscal deficit and wasteful expenditure. n ot surprisingly, the judgment last week was welcomed by both the central bank governor and the finance minister. Chief Justice H L Dattu put forward an elemental question: if Aadhaar was to be used for the public distribution system and cooking gas supplies, “why not extend it to other activities?

The thorny question of whether Aadhaar is a threat to privacy and indeed whether privacy is a fundamental right has again been referred to a larger bench to adjudicate. m any observers have criticised the government for muddling the issue of using Aadhaar by arguing that there was no fundamental right to privacy. indeed, the government might not have had to embark on this long and tortuous road of protracted legal challenges to a adhaar if it had legislated adequate laws to protect privacy. Aadhaar has been something of a case study in enrolment – some 920 million indians have an Aadhaar identity – but its safeguards and benefits are poorly understood by many in the middle class. t he use of it for a “know your customer”, for instance, stays within the banking system. When an authentication is done, the system does not know the purpose for which it was done. n o system this large is immune from, say, a hacker, but what it replaces was riddled with abuse. But that is no excuse for not putting in place a privacy law to prevent anybody from misusing individual data. t he court’s decision allowing a wider use of Aadhaar should ensure improved governance that is both more humane and pragmatic in dispensing welfare benefits. The government should now urgently get down to the task of framing an effective privacy law to address all doubts and concerns over data security.

Whose India is it? – Today’s intolerant hordes would do well to read the Constitution, plus Vi – vekananda

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Clouds are gathering over the idea of India, threatening to shut out the sun of liberal democracy. t he light of liberalism opens minds. It shines on debate and diversity. It radiates tolerance. t hat is how the founding fathers of the nation saw it. So, they wanted India to be liberal and tolerant. t hey wrote a Constitution proclaiming ‘liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship’ as a founding principle of this republic. today, there’s a growing anxiety in the air, an anxiety about the life of that principle. People in India, as well as in other parts of the world, have begun to wonder: i s India tolerant? i s it safe to live or travel in those swathes of the country where the beast of intolerance prowls? is it safe to dine in public if you eat meat and fish? i s it a safe home for a Christian or a Muslim or a Buddhist or an atheist or even a Hindu of any shade different from the one declared as exclusively authentic by the marauding mobs of Hindutva? Will it turn into a Pakistan, where if you don’t surrender to an exclusive brand of Islam as defined by the radicals, being a Muslim by faith is no longer enough to ensure safety? ask a Shia or an Ahmadiyya or a liberal. Jinnah himself won’t qualify to be Islamic in today’s Pakistan.

Just as Gandhi and Tagore and, yes, even Vivekananda would blink in disbelief at the kind of India demanded by today’s intolerant hordes. i t won’t be possible to enter into a detailed discussion in this space but here are two thoughts for consideration: one, India is not a Hindu nation, not even a ‘ Hindu-Majority’ country in constitutional terms. two, Hinduism can be seen as a way of life or a portmanteau term to describe a civilisation. it’s not a single-faith dogma.

On Point one, the framers of the secular Constitution were careful to avoid any reference to Hinduism as a requirement for citizenship. article 25 assures citizens ‘freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion’, which means any religion. Sub-clause 2(b) mentions hindu religious institutions only in the context of the state’s ability to provide ‘for social welfare and reform’ and explains ‘ Hindus’ here to mean also Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists.

Clearly, the founding fathers were determined to ensure that india would not be a Pakistan, which had been created solely as a home for Muslims. India would be a democratic, secular entity in which people of any faith or no faith would be able to pursue their preferred way of life or religion. Unless there is any highly unlikely move to throw out the Constitution and rewrite its basic tenets, it would remain totally unconstitutional to call India a Hindu nation.

Although the census might say that India contains a majority of persons who describe themselves as hindu, it remains a constitutionally secular republic which does not officially recognise any religious identity as a defining characteristic of an Indian. in fact, among those who say they are hindu by faith or custom there exists such a range of belief and practice that, in a sense, every single religious sect, caste and ethnic group can be considered a ‘minority’ in a secular India which does not recognise any section of its diverse population as dominant. the Jains and the Sikhs saw this as a door to get minority status. others, like dalits, can as well.

Point two. Indians have just two secular faiths in which all communities, castes and ethnic groups believe: Bollywood and cricket. the religious picture, especially of Hinduism, reflects myriad realities. Even Diwali, assumed to be the quintessentially hindu festival, is an occasion when Bengalis and eastern i ndians worship a blood- drunk Kali, not sweet Lakshmi. Navratri in Gujarat has little connection with Dussehra in north India even as they happen at the same time.

And, vegetarianism is not, repeat not, a required h indu practice. Going by available surveys, a minority of i ndians are vegetarian, including a minority of h indus. not even Hindu Brahmins are all Vegetarian. Kashmiri and eastern Indian brahmins eat meat and fish. And ancient Hindus merrily ate beef after sacrificing bulls way back then.

If you don’t believe me, read the literature. For spiritual endorsement, read Vivekananda.

On Religious Tolerance – Dr. Rajan has displayed candour and courage rare in India’s public servants.

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In the current public discourse on religious tolerance, reserve Bank of India Governor
Raghuram Rajan’s convocation address to the students of the Indian Institute of Technology
( iit ) delhi on Saturday, delivered an unmistakable if nuanced critique of the ideological underpinnings of this government and their outward manifestation. d rawing on the work of nobel Laureates robert Solow and richard Feynman and using the example of india’s global it achievements to make his point, D R. Rajan linked the importance of ideas to a nation’s progress and highlighted the need to “foster competition in the marketplace for ideas” as a prerequisite for delivering economic growth. a chieving this, he argued, required “the right to question and challenge, the right to behave differently so long as it does not hurt others seriously”. When someone of d r. r ajan’s stature and authority adds his voice to the growing avalanche of criticism from a broad range of civil society, the importance of the message cannot be underestimated. It is especially impactful because he addressed precisely the age cohort that the current regime targets with its message of religious nationalism with all its deceptive certainties.

In leveraging the functional independence of his job as central bank governor to comment on issues that are, strictly, outside his official remit, Dr. Rajan has displayed candour and courage rare in i ndia’s public servants. h owever, there may be unintended repercussions to the institution he heads. To be sure, this is not the first time he has publicly expressed dissatisfaction with the government’s non-monetary policy actions and it is unlikely to be the last. i n this, he is perhaps following the precedents set by central bankers like Ben Bernanke and janet yellen of the u S Federal reserve and m ark Carney of the Bank of england. But they work within developed democracies where standards of debate are reasonably mature. d r. r ajan raised this point in his speech. ” t olerance means not being so insecure about one’s ideas that one cannot subject them to challenge – it implies a degree of detachment that is absolutely necessary for mature debate.” unfortunately, this is manifestly not the case in india, so it is unlikely that his remarks will be received in the spirit in which they were made.

Indeed, the manner in which senior ruling party functionaries are fiercely dismissing all criticism as politically motivated is a case in point – though President Pranab

Mukherjee’s repeated reference to intolerance in quick succession admittedly makes that point hard to refute. d r. r ajan’s criticism should also be set against the growing pressure – as much by the last regime as this one – to curtail the RBI governor’s room for independent action and the proclivity to establish unequivocal control over institutions. i t could encourage the government to take that short step towards appointing governors who may lack the expertise and understanding that consistently marked past appointees – and who is thus amenable to doing the government’s bidding. it is a dangerous prospect.

Will – Execution Proof – Both attesting witnesses not alive – Evidence Act should receive a wider purposive interpretation: Evidence Act Section 68, 69.

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C. G. Raveendran & Ors. vs. C. G. Gopi & Ors. AIR 2015 Kerala 250

The plaintiffs and defendants were the children of late Govindan and Bhanumathi. Govindan died on 28/8/1994 and Bhanumathi on 18/5/2004. The plaint schedule properties belonged to Govindan. He had constructed a building therein and was residing there with his family till his death.

According to the plaintiffs, after the death of Govindan, the right to the properties have devolved on the plaintiffs and the defendants equally and they were entitled to inherit. However, the plaintiffs came to know about a registered Will allegedly executed by Govindan.

It was contended that the Will was a fabricated one and Govindan had no occasion to execute such a Will. During the period of execution of the Will, Govindan was mentally ill and was undergoing treatment for partial paralysis. He had not executed the Will and was allegedly executed under suspicious circumstances. Hence the suit was filed seeking a declaration that the Will was null and void and for a consequential partition of the properties.

The Court below on an evaluation of the oral testimony on the side of the plaintiffs and the oral evidence on the side of the defendants held that Will was validly executed by Govindan.

The Hon’ble Court observed that the above evidence had to be evaluated to decide the genuineness of Will. It is pertinent to note that Will is registered. In the absence of any serious challenge regarding registration, it must be presumed that the Will was registered after complying with all the statutory formalities. Registration of a Will is a piece of evidence confirming its genuineness and can confer it a higher degree of sanctity. There seems to be a consensus in the judicial pronouncements that, though there is no requirement that Will should be registered, but if registered, it adds to its authenticity.

Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act, provides that if a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution. In the present case, the attesting witnesses are Parameswaran and Padmanabhan Nair. Parameswaran himself was the scribe. There is no legal bar in scribe himself being an attesting witness, provided he has actually seen the executant signing or affixing his mark or has received a personal acknowledgment from the executant and has consciously affixed his signature as an attesting witness, as a token of having witnessed the executant signing or affixing his mark. Evidence should prove that the scribe, apart from being so, had signed for the purpose of testifying to the signature of the executant and had the animo attestandi.

It is on record that both the attesting witnesses are no more alive. Hence, section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act cannot apply. The provision that governs the field can only be the section 69 of the Indian Evidence Act. It deals with a situation wherein no attesting witnesses can be found. Though the Statute prescribes that section 69 applies when the witness is not found, in the absence of any other provision dealing with cases wherein the presence of witnesses cannot be procured for various other reasons, like death of both attesting witness, out of jurisdiction, physical incapacity, insanity etc. Section 69 should apply and can be extended to such cases. Hence, the word “not found” occurring in section 69 of Evidence Act should receive a wider purposive interpretation than its literal meaning and should take in situation where the presence of the attesting witness cannot be procured. This view gets its support from Venkataramayya vs. Kamisetti Gattayya (AIR 1927 Madras 662) and Ponnuswami Goundan vs. Kalyanasundara Ayyar (AIR 1930 Madras 770).

It is settled that mode of proving a Will does not ordinarily differ from that of proving any other document except as to the special requirement of attestation prescribed by section 63 of Indian Succession Act. Section 69 imposes a twin fold duty on the propounder. It provides that if no such attesting witness can be found, it must be proved that attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting and also that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person. Hence, to rely on a Will propounded in a case covered by section 69 the propounder should prove i) that the attestation is in the handwriting of the attesting witness and ii) that the document was signed by the executant. Both the limbs will have to be cumulatively proved by the propounder. Evidently, the section demands proof of execution in addition to attestation and does not permit execution to be inferred from proof of attestation. However, section 69 presumes that once the handwriting of attesting witness is proved he has witnessed the execution of the document. The twin requirement of proving the signature and handwriting has to be in accordance with section 67 of the Indian Evidence Act.

Architect Services, Consulting Engineers Services, Management Consultancy Services etc. used for construction are eligible input services against the output service of Renting of Immovable Property.

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44. [2015-TIOL-2418-CESTAT-MUM] Maharashtra Cricket Association vs. Commissioner of Central Excise, Pune-III.

Architect Services, Consulting Engineers Services, Management Consultancy Services etc. used for construction are eligible input services against the output service of Renting of Immovable Property.

Facts

The assessee, an association, constructed a stadium and availed the services of Architect, Consulting Engineering and Management Consultancy and availed CENVAT credit of the service tax paid thereon. The department contended that vide Circular No. 98/01/2008-ST, the credit of service tax paid on commercial or industrial construction or works contract service used for construction of immovable property is not eligible to a person providing renting of immovable property service and accordingly the input services availed being in relation to construction are inadmissible for credit.

Held

The Tribunal observed that the definition of input service provided under Rule 2(l) of the CENVAT credit Rules, 2004 specifically includes services “in relation to setting up, premises of provider of output service or an office relating to such premises”. Accordingly, the services used for setting up the stadium are eligible input services. The Tribunal also noted that the circular being contrary to the definition of input service is not tenable. Further, relying on the decision of Navratna S.G. Highway Prop. Pvt. Ltd vs. Commr. of ST, Ahmedabad-2011-TIOL-1703- CESTAT-AHM, the appeal was allowed.

51 taxmann.com 1 (Mumbai) Johnson & Johnson Ltd. vs. Addl. CIT SA No. 288 /Mum/2014 Assessment Year: 2009-10. Date of Order: 31.10.2014

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If the Tribunal has granted stay, even if there is consent of the assessee, the Officer should not collect the amount stayed.

Facts:
By
this stay application the assessee sought stay of collection of
outstanding demand of Rs. 43,24,08,871. The AO after reference to
determine transfer pricing adjustments u/s. 92C of the Act passed an
order determining the income of the assessee at Rs. 353.30 crore and
raised an additional demand of Rs. 116.27 crore. The Tribunal while
dealing with stay application dated 19.2.2014 noticed that most of the
issues stated before the Tribunal have been decided in favor of the
assessee in the orders passed by the Tribunal in assessee’s own cases
for earlier years and therefore it granted stay and directed the AO not
to make any adjustment except for the amount of Rs. 7.50 crore.

The
AO, despite the specific direction by the Bench, obtained consent
letter from the assessee and collected Rs. 16.64 crore during the
subsistence of the stay order. The amount outstanding had been reduced
to Rs. 43.24 crore.

Since the DR sought adjournment from time to time, the assessee filed a fresh stay application for extension of stay.

Held:
In
the proceedings for hearing the second stay application the Tribunal
noticed that the AO followed an innovative method of collection of taxes
despite specific directions of the Bench. The Tribunal clarified that
neither the assessee nor the Revenue has the right to flout the decision
of the Tribunal and being an officer functioning under the Government
of India it is his obligation to follow the directions of the superior
authority and even if there is consent he should not have collected the
amount.

The Tribunal having noticed that in few other cases also
similar consent letters were obtained and tax collected despite the
stay order being passed by the Tribunal, the Bench deplored this
practice and directed the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax to issue a
letter to all concerned officers not to adopt this kind of approach of
obtaining consent letters and to respect the order passed by the
Tribunal as otherwise the Tribunal would be constrained to view the
conduct of the Department adversely.

The Tribunal extended the
stay for a further period of six months and also directed the AO to
refund the amount collected, contrary to the order passed by ITAT in
S.A. No. 50/Mum/2014, along with interest within 15 days and to furnish
the proof of having refunded the amount before the Bench.

The stay application filed by the assessee was allowed.

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49 taxmann.com 578 (Cochin) Three Star Granites (P.) Ltd. vs. ACIT ITA No. 11/Cochin/2011 Assessment Years: 2007-08. Date of Order: 25.4.2014

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Section 40(a)(ia) – No disallowance can be made u/s 40(a)(ia) in cases of short deduction of tax at source.

Facts :
In respect of certain payments made by the assessee to resident contractors the Tribunal vide its order dated 29th March, 2012 decided that the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source u/s. 194I and not u/s. 194C as was the contention of the assessee. Aggrieved by this order of the Tribunal, the assessee carried the matter, by way of an appeal u/s. 260A, to the High Court. The High Court vide its order dated 26th November, 2013 held that the assessee was liable to deduct tax at source u/s. 194I and not u/s. 194C. For the limited purposes of applicability of section 40(a)(ia) of the Act in respect of short deduction of tax, i.e., deduction of tax at 2.06 % instead of 10 % u/s. 194-I of the Act, the High Court restored the matter to the file of the Tribunal.

Held:
The Tribunal noted that the issue of disallowance in respect of short deduction of of tax at source has been considered by the co-ordinate Bench in the case of Apollo Tyres Ltd. vs. Dy. CIT [2013] 60 SOT 1 (Cochin). Having considered the provisions of section 40(a)(ia) and also the provisions of section 201(1A), the Tribunal held that section 40(a)(ia) does not envisage a situation where there was short deduction/lesser deduction as in case of section 201(1A) of the Act. There is an obvious omission to include short deduction/lesser deduction in section 40(a) (ia) of the Act. Therefore, the entire expenditure whose genuineness was not doubted by the Assessing Officer, cannot be disallowed. The Tribunal set aside the orders of lower authorities and deleted the entire disallowance.

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Gift – Validity – Delivery of possession is not an essential prerequisite for making of valid gift in case of immovable property: Transfer of property Act. Section 123.

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Renikuntha Rajamma (D) by LRS vs. AIR 2014 SC 2906

A reference was made to a larger bench for an authoritative pronouncement as to the true and correct interpretation of sections 122 and 123 of The Transfer of Property Act, 1882. The Plaintiff-Respondent in this appeal filed for a declaration to the effect that revocation deed dated 5th March, 1986 executed by the Defendant-Appellant purporting to revoke a gift deed earlier executed by her was null and void.

The Plaintiff’s case as set out in the plaint was that the gift deed executed by the Defendant- Appellant was valid in the eyes of law and had been accepted by the Plaintiff when the donee-Defendant had reserved to herself during for life, the right to enjoy the benefits arising from the suit property. The purported revocation of the gift in favour of the Plaintiff-Respondent in terms of the revocation deed was, on that basis, assailed and a declaration about its being invalid and void ab initio prayed for.

The suit was contested by the Defendant-Appellant herein on several grounds including the ground that the gift deed executed in favour of the Plaintiff was vitiated by fraud, misrepresentation and undue influence. The parties led evidence and went through the trial with the Trial Court eventually holding that the deed purporting to revoke the gift in favour of the Plaintiff was null and void. The Trial Court found that the Defendant had failed to prove that the gift deed set up by the Plaintiff was vitiated by fraud or undue influence or that it was a sham or nominal document. The gift, according to Trial Court, had been validly made and accepted by the Plaintiff, hence, irrevocable in nature. It was also held that since the donor had taken no steps to assail the gift made by her for more than 12 years, the same was voluntary in nature and free from any undue influence, misrepresentation or suspicion. The fact that the donor had reserved the right to enjoy the property during her life time did not affect the validity of the deed, opined the Trial Court.

The First Appellate Court also held that the gift deed was not a sham document, as alleged by the Defendant and that its purported cancellation/revocation was totally ineffective.

The first Appellate Court also affirmed the finding of the Trial Court that the donee had accepted the gift made in his favour. The appeal filed by the Defendant (Appellant herein) was dismissed.

The High Court declined to interfere with the judgments and orders impugned before it and dismissed the second appeal of the Appellant, holding that the case set up by the Defendant that the gift was vitiated by undue influence or fraud had been thoroughly disproved at the trial.

The Court observed that Chapter VII of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with gifts generally and, inter alia, provides for the mode of making gifts. Section 122 of the Act defines ‘gift’ as a transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration by one person called the donor to another called the donee and accepted by or on behalf of the donee. In order to constitute a valid gift, acceptance must, according to this provision, be made during the life time of the donor and while he is still capable of giving the gift. It stipulates that a gift is void if the donee dies before acceptance.

Section 123 regulates mode of making a gift and, inter alia, provides that a gift of immovable property must be effected by a registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses. In the case of movable property, transfer either by a registered instrument signed as aforesaid or by delivery is valid u/s. 123.

When read with section 122 of the Act, a gift made by a registered instrument duly signed by or on behalf of the donor and attested by at least two witnesses is valid, if the same is accepted by or on behalf of the donee. That such acceptance must be given during the life time of the donor and while he is still capable of giving is evident from a plain reading of section 122 of the Act. A conjoint reading of sections 122 and 123 of the Act makes it abundantly clear that “transfer of possession” of the property covered by the registered instrument of the gift duly signed by the donor and attested as required is not a sine qua non for the making of a valid gift under the provisions of Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Judicial pronouncements as to the true and correct interpretation of section 123 of the T.P. Act have for a fairly long period held that section 123 of the Act supersedes the rule of Hindu Law if it contained any stipulation in making delivery of possession an essential condition for the completion of a valid gift.

Section 123 of the T.P. Act is in two parts. The first part deals with gifts of immovable property while the second part deals with gifts of movable property. Insofar as the gifts of immovable property are concerned, section 123 makes transfer by a registered instrument mandatory. This is evident from the words “transfer must be effected” used by the Parliament insofar as immovable property is concerned. In contradistinction to that requirement the second part of section 123 dealing with gifts of movable property, simply requires that gift of movable property may be effected either by a registered instrument signed as aforesaid or “by delivery.” The difference in the two provisions lies in the fact that insofar as the transfer of movable property by way of gift is concerned, the same can be effected by a registered instrument or by delivery. In the case of immovable property no doubt requires a registered instrument, but the provision does not make delivery of possession of the immovable property gifted as an additional requirement for the gift to be valid and effective.

There is indeed no provision in law that ownership in property cannot be gifted without transfer of possession of such property. As noticed earlier, section 123 does not make the delivery of possession of the gifted property essential for validity of a gift.

The recitals in the gift deed also prove transfer of absolute title in the gifted property from the donor to the donee. What is retained is only the right to use the property during the lifetime of the donor which does not in any way affect the transfer of ownership in favour of the donee by the donor.

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Labour Reforms – Hold the Celebrations

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There has been some minor celebration over the fact that the president has given assent to changes in three central laws relating to industrial labour, proposed by the Rajasthan government and, therefore, applicable to that state. It would seem that we are prepared to celebrate even the smallest change in labour legislation in one corner of the country, when what the country needs is wholesale change across all states. The most significant of the changes in Rajasthan is one that does away with the need for government permission to retrench staff or shut down a unit, so long as the unit employs fewer than 300 workers (against 100 earlier). This is to be welcomed, but do remember that a more ambitious change along the same lines was proposed on a national scale by Yashwant Sinha, in a Budget speech, more than a decade ago. So this is reform by inches over decades. In any case, the real changes needed in labour laws are not those that facilitate units shutting down, rather those that help units to function more easily – though it is also true that you are more likely to hire workers if you know that you can retrench them should they become surplus.

What one would like to hear more of are the changes to labour laws on an all-India scale that the Cabinet was widely reported to have cleared more than three months ago. These were more wide-ranging, though perhaps not comprehensive, and with all-India application. As reported at the time, the changes related to limits on hours of overtime (important for seasonal businesses that have peaking cycles at specific times of the year), women working night shifts (many industries have traditionally had more women employees), reducing the scope for harassing factory owners because of minor infractions, and simplifying form-filling for the owners of small factories. Some of these changes were clearly designed to reduce the scope for blackmail by labour inspectors – harking back once again to Yashwant Sinha’s unfulfilled promise to get rid of the “inspector raj”.

The accompanying message to the country has to be that the government wants to create real jobs that create real value, and pay much better wages than the rural employment guarantee programme does. China, which has been factory to the world, is now less than competitive in quite a few labour-intensive industries because of its much higher level of per capita income and a stronger currency. So far the slack has been taken up by countries like Bangladesh, Vietnam and the Philippines. There is no reason why some of those industries should not find a welcoming home in India. If the government can bring about a more congenial environment for employers, the jobs should materialise – and that would be more important than all the other Modi initiatives so far.

(Source: Article in Weekend Ruminations by T. N. Ninan in Business Standard dated 15.11.2014)

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Gold imports: Reform Taxes, don’t create new smugglers

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Gold imports have skyrocketed despite the global price of the yellow metal weakening. That signals that gold has not lost its sheen as an investment choice. The government is worried that the surge in gold imports could undermine the country’s balance of payments position. The worry is not misplaced. India’s current account deficit is within limits of prudence, due to the sharp drop in global crude prices, but splurging foreign exchange on imported gold will negate these gains. Anecdotal evidence suggests that people are using their unaccounted money to buy jewellery and bullion, shunning financial instruments that create audit trails. So, the need is to establish audit trails of these transactions. One way would be for the Centre to impose a nominal 1% excise duty on jewellery, to create audit trails and curb the use of black money to fund gold purchases.

Jewellery purchases in cash of over Rs. 5 lakh is captured under the annual information returns (AIR) that identify potential taxpayers by examining their expenditure patterns. AIR creates an audit trail too, but there are no trails for cash purchases below Rs. 5 lakh. The import surge is being attributed to a relaxation of the 80:20 scheme — at least onefifth of every lot of imported gold is exclusively made available for exports, and the balance for domestic use — for star and premier trading houses. However, the government should desist from any attempt to restrict the demand for gold through quantitative restrictions or impose higher import duties, as it would only encourage smuggling.

(Source: The Economic Times dated 17-11-2014)

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Voluntary Disclosure Scheme for politicians

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I am a senior citizen. My greatest regret is that I was totally inactive beyond my personal and professional life. I was happy with my family, books, T.V., residence, court-work and holidays here and abroad. Doing something concrete for the nation was no part of my life or living. Not surprising, of late, I have been experiencing substantial remorse on this count. By such indifference I, like many others, permitted some unscrupulous and corrupt politicians to loot the people of this country. It is because of this loot that crores of people of this country are below the poverty line and many children are dying at infancy or in the womb, all because of the absence of proper nourishment. I blame particularly the educated, me included, for being self-centered and being totally indifferent to this on-going loot; a loot of far greater magnitude than what our foreign rules are accepted of.

I have come across, of course, a few politicians, who are sorry for their sins and would like to wash off those sins, given an opportunity. There are others, who also must be given a similar opportunity so that they are not blamed for what follows in case the opportunity is not availed of. These people have enjoyed the monies, which really belong to the nation and which would have alleviated the poverty of teeming millions of this country; these politicians have enjoyed the ill-gotten monies for a fairly long time. The earlier they pay back the same to the nation, the better. In this direction, let me share a few ideas.

By way of a first opportunity, there must be Voluntary Disclosure and Repayment Scheme (‘Scheme’ hereafter) promulgated by the Government, giving an opportunity to such profligate politicians to voluntarily declare the amount of ill-gotten monies that they have got by corruption or by any other illegal means and to payback the same to the Government forthwith or by installments, as may be laid down in the scheme. The Scheme will apply even to a member of Village Panchayat. In future, a similar Scheme can be promulgated for Government servants.

The politicians making such a declaration would have immunity from prosecution and penalty under all laws of the land in respect of the ill-gotten monies declared under the Scheme.

If after the expiry of the scheme, any politician, who has not availed of the scheme, is found to have the monies received in corruption, his entire wealth will immediately vest in the Government and the custody thereof will also be immediately taken by the Government. A special committee headed by the retired Supreme Court judge will decide whether the politician has been having the ill-gotten monies with him and yet has not availed of the Scheme.

The concerned laws must be amended to provide that in cases of corruption beyond a particular figure the incumbent must be punished with life imprisonment and others with rigorous imprisonment of minimum 14 years; the corruption cases of these VIPs must be taken up on a priority basis by the Courts; if necessary Special Courts must be established so that the litigation, which is bound to ensue at the instance of these VIPs and VVIPs comes to an end immediately and the message goes to all concerned that now the corruption is not profitable, or for that matter dangerous and risky. The attempt in this article is to give an idea to get back the people’s money from the corrupt. To those who will feel like criticising the idea, my earnest request is to come out with a better and more effective idea; I will be very happy.

It is a sad commentary on the CBI, that inspite of long-standing corruption, its record on this count, to say the least, is not very impressive. Is it that they did not know what every man in the street knew? The rampant corruption requires a CBI with bigger manpower and greater competence. Today, CBI does not seem to be fully equipped to take on the powerful and influential head on.

More criminal lawyers and chartered accountants trained in investigation of corruption cases must be put at the disposal of the CBI at the stage of investigation; in fact, the CBI must have some of them in house, so that they are at their beck and call any time it wants them.

Looking at the fact that the corrupt are also very powerful and influential persons, it is very necessary that the C.B.I. must be made an independent body, like the Election Commission. It will be unfair to expect much on this count from the present CBI. We must acknowledge that with all its handicaps, the performance of the CBI of late is becoming better. The present C.B.I. can go up as much as its Chief is keen to take it. Recall what Seshan did to the Election Commission. An independent C.B.I. will be a great check on the corrupt and will have huge credibility amongst the people of this country and even abroad.

I will exhort to those amongst us to whom the nation is dear, particularly the youngsters, to see that these corrupt politicians cannot enjoy status and power resulting from their ill-gotten riches. I will suggest that Gandhian methods must be adopted when the corrupt are out to show, rather exhibit, their ill-gotten wealth on various social or other occasions. A great mass of Gandhians, scattered all across the country in a disjointed manner, can be of great help in this direction. In this direction if they unite for this work, miracles can happen. Recall the Anna Hazare movement.

Let me illustrate as to where we were when we got independence and where we are now. When Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister, he was invited to a wedding function, by one of his ministers. Instead of straightaway attending the marriage function, he sent his personal secretary to check whether the function was on a modest scale or was it on an ostentatious and gaudy scale. After the personal secretary reported that it was on a modest scale, he attended.

I think it is high time that the Prime Minister and the State’s Chief Ministers must ask their Cabinet Colleagues to live within their legitimate means; or for that matter set all examples in simple living. The citizens of this country will highly appreciate it.

The citizens, particularly the industrialists and the big traders, must at least decide that they will not be seeking favours from the Ministers and the Government servants by bribe, and the FICCI can declare a particular year say 2015 as the ‘No bribe year’. Those people who help the CBI to catch the corrupt red-handed must be rewarded by the Government in appreciation of their service to the nation. The T.V. channels can do a great job by publishing and glorifying such events. Let me state one heartening incident, which I read sometime back. A particular unit of WIPRO required a dedicated electric sub-station and for installation thereof some permission was required. That unit made an application. The Manager of that unit, who was newly appointed, was approached by the public utility employee informing him that in ordinary course, the permission would take about a year but if his demands are met he can get the permission within a week’s time. The newly appointed Manager thought that this is a great opportunity to impress the boss about his competence and went to Mr. Azim Premji. Mr. Premji heard him patiently and then told him, “You are new to this company. Let me tell you that bribing is not our culture. Therefore, hereafter do not think of doing any such thing as long as you are in this organisation.” We require many more Premjis. I am sure there are a few others like Mr. Premji; but for sure, we require many many more like him. In the challenging task of making India corruption free India, the industry and trade leaders can contribute a lot.

Let me tell the people that as against the corrupt ones there are honest politicians also. It is because of such people that the country has not collapsed.

I request the Government and our Economists to tell the nation as to what is the corruption-cost component in the cost of living index.

Lastly, the Election must be funded by the State. The earlier this is done, the better, because anybody can have an alibi when caught red-handed that he was accepting monies for the party. The ensuing election in the States is a great opportunity to the voters. Consider only that candidate to be eligible for vote who declares on oath his (and his family members’) wealth as on last 31st March at least one month before election and undertakes to declare it as on 31st March of every year thereafter till the next election.

I am absolutely shocked by the ‘I don’t care’ attitude of the Central and State Governments to the progressively aggravating problem of overpopulation and the absence of any discussion of the problem as if it does not exist at all! In my humble opinion, all the talk of progress will be a hogwash if the overpopulation problem is not urgently attended to. It looks like that after the back lash in late Sanjay Gandhi’s times, the politicians of all hue decided to turn a Nelson’s eye to the problem.

In the end, it is impossible to conclude this article without mentioning that our judiciary, particularly the higher echelons thereof like the Supreme Court and High Court have done remarkable work and has made us all very proud. I wonder if the framers of the Constitution would have imagined that the judicial wing in future will be a life belt to a sinking nation caught in the malicious whirlpool of rampant, nepotism, dishonesty and corruption. Permit me to say that much more is expected from the judiciary.

One man from Gujarat was instrumental in getting us independence. I hope and trust that another man from Gujarat also fulfils the hopes and inspiration of the nation, which has entrusted its destiny into his hands.

Let me conclude with Pearl Buck; “Oh India, dare to be worthy of your Gandhi.” Jai Hind.

Press Note No. 9 – DIPP File No. 9(8)/2014-IL(IP) dated 20th October, 2014

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Press Note No. 9 – DIPP File No. 9(8)/2014-IL(IP) dated 20th October, 2014

Streamlining the procedures for grant of Industrial Licences

This Press Note contains 3 clauses which modify the existing preocedures as under: –

1. Increasing the validity of the Industrial Licence
This Press Note, in supersession of Press Note No. 5 (2014 Series) dated 2nd July, 2014, provides for 2 extensions of 2 years each in the initial validity of 3 years of the Industrial Licence.

2. Removal of stipulation of annual capacity in the Industrial Licence

Annual capacity for defense items for Industrial Licence has been de-regulated. The Licencee now has to submit half-yearly production returns to the DIPP & Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence in the proscribed format.

3. Sale of Defence items to Government entities without approval of Ministry of Defence

Licensee’s are allowed to sell Defence items to Government entities under the control of Ministry of Home Affairs, State Governments, Public Sector Undertakings and other valid Defence Licenced Companies without prior approval of the Department of Defence Production. Sales to others will require prior approval of the Department of Defence Production.

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Are sebi’s answers to Faqs binding on sebi and/or third parties?

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Synopsis
This article touches upon the issue of legal sanctity, enforceability & binding nature of the answers to ‘frequently asked questions’ (FAQs), that are provided by the SEBI. It raises some fundamental questions – whether SEBI has the authority to issue such FAQs, whether these FAQs are binding on SEBI and/or third parties, and can these FAQs override regulations issued by the SEBI?

These challenging questions have been debated in the light of a recent SEBI order where the SEBI-issued FAQS were relied upon & also considered valid in deciding the questions of law. The article, after comprehensive analysis, demonstrates a view that is inconsistent with the view held in the recent SEBI order.

Basic issue
How far are answers by SEBI to Frequently Asked Questions (‘FAQs’) on SEBI Regulations, etc. binding? Can they even be relied on by SEBI? More so, when substantive legal issues are to be decided which may result in grant/rejection of relief to parties or even levy of penalty for violation of Regulations. SEBI has recently passed an Order (dated 30th October, 2014 in matter of Mr. A. B. Gupta) where it relies on the FAQs. Further, SEBI asserts that FAQs are valid and can be relied on by SEBI for answering questions of law.

What are FAQ s?
As is known, SEBI (like many other regulators) issues Frequently Asked Questions (‘FAQs’) from time-to-time (the correct term should be AFAQ – Answers to Frequently Asked Questions, but that is perhaps a semantic issue).

Thus, they are generally answers to specific questions that SEBI anticipates or has received from timeto- time. The answers are usually not reasoned in detail though in some cases, where the Regulation itself answers the question, due reference is given. Often they are answers about how the Regulations would be viewed in practice and also about matters of procedure. Such details may not always be possible to be inserted in Regulations.

However, several questions arise. If the Regulations say one thing and the FAQs something different, or even the opposite, will the FAQs override the Regulations? If the Regulations do not cover certain matters, can the FAQs fill in the gaps and provide for such matters, even if by this it would mean extending or amending the Regulations? In particular, can the FAQs be binding in regard to the Regulations, when these FAQs give clarifications on substantial matters and/or matters which can result in penalty/prosecution or other adverse directions? Indeed, in the other extreme, can SEBI even rely on such FAQs in any manner? ?

How are FAQ s issued?
There does not seem to be any prescribed procedure by which the FAQs are issued. Indeed, as we will see later, there is no legal power or basis to issue FAQs either which gives them any legal sanctity. Generally, they seem to be issued by way of display on its website. It is not clear under whose authority, if any, these are issued – i.e., whether it is issued by the authority of the Board with contents duly confirmed by it, or by the Chairman of SEBI or by a senior official. Further, the FAQs can keep changing from time-to-time and while it appears that at least in a couple of cases, they have highlighted the change and when it was made, it is possible that the FAQs could be changed without any notification. The FAQs can be added to, deleted from, and amended generally from time to time without any notice or even a mention.

SEBI’s order
In this background, let us consider what the recent SEBI Order said.

SEBI, as stated earlier, recently passed an order in which it relied on its own FAQs for arriving at answers to substantive issues of law under the Regulations. While doing so, it made some observations. The case concerns an allegedly hostile takeover and is on some objections made by certain persons against open offer made. The core issues in that case are interesting. However, this post focuses only on one matter and that is on the manner in which SEBI has relied on FAQs (Frequently Asked Questions) on the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers), Regulations 2011 (the Regulations), released by it.

SEBI relied on the FAQs to arrive at the conclusion on two issues raised. The issues were significant. Depending on which way SEBI had decided it, certain parties could have gained or lost substantial rights. Hence, the Order interpreted the Regulations. Whether the interpretation was correct or not could be a matter of debate. What is worth reviewing here are observations SEBI made while relying on the FAQs.

At first, SEBI relied on the FAQs while answering the issues raised. The complainant objected to SEBI’s reliance on FAQs saying they do not have the force of Regulations. SEBI rejected this argument and said:-

“9. The complainant’s Advocates acknowledged the existence of SEBI’s FAQs as reproduced on pages 15-16 of this Order but argued that FAQs does not have the force of regulations and therefore should not be considered at all. The question before me is whether SEBI can interpret its own regulations, which it has done in the form of FAQs. I am of the opinion that it can and it should, otherwise doubts raised about the effect of regulations would bring the entire business to a halt. I am of the opinion that such interpretations are valid so long as these are transparent and applied consistently without discrimination. No case has been made out that SEBI interpreted regulations 3(1), 3(2) and 4 otherwise in any other matter, or that SEBI’s interpretation was not known publicly.”

Several questions arise.
– Do FAQs have the force of Regulations?
– Is SEBI’s interpretation expressed through FAQs binding on third parties?
– Does SEBI’s interpretation bind SEBI itself?

Assuming such interpretations are valid, what are pre-requisites for reliance on such FAQs – whether it is enough that they are (i) transparent/published and known publicly (ii) applied consistently without discrimination?

SEBI seems to have taken a view that the FAQs are binding if they are transparent and applied consistently. On one of the issues raised, it even gave a few examples of similar practices adopted in the past where it had applied in practice the same interpretation that it was applying in the present case. However, does practice make or amend law in such circumstances?

Nature of FAQ s as per the FAQ s
Firstly, let us examine the FAQs themselves. This is what the introductory paragraphs to the FAQs to the SEBI (SAST) Regulations 2011, which are the subject matter of this decision, say:-

“These FAQs offer only a simplistic explanation/ clarification of terms/concepts related to the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 [“SAST Regulations, 2011”]. Any such explanation/clarification that is provided herein should not be regarded as an interpretation of law nor be treated as a binding opinion/ guidance from the Securities and Exchange Board of India [“SEBI”]. For full particulars of laws governing the substantial acquisition of shares and takeovers, please refer to actual text of the Acts/ Regulations/Circulars appearing under the Legal Framework Section on the SEBI website.” (emphasis supplied).

Thus, the FAQs themselves clearly say that are not to be regarded as interpretation of law. Further, they are not binding on SEBI or third parties nor do they have the status of any guidance from SEBI. For knowing the law, it is the actual text of the Regulations, etc. that has to be read.

Nature of Regulations and manner of their issue

The SEBI Act, 1992 empowers SEBI to issue Regulations for certain specified purposes. The Regulations are required to be made – and amended – in the prescribed manner u/s. 31 of the SEBI Act, 1992. They have to be released and notified as prescribed under the Act. They have to be then laid before the House of Parliament for prescribed period. Any changes agreed by the Houses have to be duly incorporated.

Further, violations of the Regulations have significant consequences under the Act and the Regulations them- selves. These include penalties, prosecution, directions, etc. Thus, there is a clear basis of Regulations as a law, clear prescribed procedure of how they are to be made and notified. Finally, it is this clear basis which gives them a force of law such that violations of Regulations have adverse consequences in law.

Whether There is any Power To issue FAQs?
SEBI does not have power under the Act to issue such “clarifications” to the Regulations where such clarifications would have binding force of Regulations, particularly when they contradict the Regulations or result in extended application of the Regulations. Indeed, there is no concept of FAQs under the Act.

There have been several decisions of the Courts and even the Securities Appellate Tribunal that uphold Regulations over circulars. And that in case of any contradictions between the Regulations and circulars, it will be the Regulations that would apply.

Undoubtedly, the FAQs would help a party, particularly a lay person, in throwing some light at what the Regulations are trying to say. They may even be a sort of guidance of how SEBI views certain issues, though it seems from the introduction to the FAQs themselves that they may not be binding even on SEBI.

In case the Regulations are clear, therefore, it is submitted then FAQs have no relevance. Indeed, it cannot be even said that in case of ambiguity, the FAQs could be looked into and the views in the FAQs could apply.

It appears that SEBI has erred in stating that the FAQs have any binding legal status. SEBI, it is submitted, cannot take any adverse action in terms of penalties/prosecution/directions by relying on FAQs that contradict the Regulations. The Regulations are self-contained in this sense; the FAQs cannot add or modify the Regulations.

In conclusion, it is reiterated that the issue here is not whether the interpretation given in the FAQs is correct or not, it is on how much, if at all, can they be considered binding on SEBI and/or parties. The better view seems to be that FAQs cannot be relied on at all while deciding on substantive legal issues. They are neither binding on SEBI nor they are binding on any third party.

REITs: Providing Liquidity to Illiquid Assets!

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Synopsis
When a cheque issued to a creditor is dishonoured, where does the creditor file a suit against the debtor – in the Court which has jurisdiction over the creditor or in a Court which has jurisdiction over the debtor? This one issue has been oscillating back and forth with several Supreme Court decisions giving their view one way or the other. There now seems to be some finality on the matter …. … … … or is it?

Introduction
According to a 2008 Report of the Law Commission of India, over 38 lakh cheque bouncing cases were pending at the Magistrate Level as of October 2008. Over six years have passed since that Report and this figure is expected to have leapfrogged! The Magistrate is the first Court in the hierarchy of criminal justice in India and if this entry level forum itself is clogged, one can very well understand why justice in India often takes so long.

Section138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (“the Act”) is one of the few provisions which is equally well known both by lawmen and laymen. The section imposes a criminal liability in case of a dishonoured or bounced cheque. One of the most litigious issues in relation to a bounced cheque has been which Court has jurisdiction over a case? Say a debtor which has its registered office in Ranchi, Jharkhand issued a cheque drawn on a Ranchi bank to a creditor based in Mumbai and the cheque bounces, should the suit be filed in Mumbai or in Ranchi? This answer could make a big difference since the ease of filing a case in one’s own city or State is manifold as compared to a remote location. This issue has recently seen several Supreme Court and High Court decisions leading to a see-saw, one way and the other. A slew of decisions have come out strongly in favour of the accused unlike the earlier decisions which were procomplainant. Let us look at the history and the current position on this very important aspect which has made several creditors and banks jittery.

The Law: Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act
Before we plunge into the issue on hand, let us pause for a moment and examine the impugned section. Section138 of the Act provides that if any cheque is drawn by a person to another person, and if the cheque is dishonoured because of insufficient funds in the drawer’s bank accounts, then such person shall be deemed to have committed an offence. The penalty for this offence is imprisonment for a term which may be extended to two years and/or with a fine which may extend to twice the amount of the cheque. In order to invoke the provisions of section138, the following three steps are necessary:

(a) the cheque must be presented to the bank within a period of six months from the date on which it is drawn or within the period of its validity, whichever is earlier;

(b) once the payee is informed by the bank about the dishonour of the cheque, then he must, within 30 days of such information, make a demand for the payment of the said account of money by giving a notice in writing, to the drawer of the cheque; and

(c) the drawer of such cheque fails to make the payment of the said amount of money to the payee of the cheque, within 15 days of the receipt of the said notice.

A fourth step is specified u/s.142 of the Act which provides that a complaint must be made to the Court within 30 days from the date from which the cause of action arises (i.e., the notice period).

Where to file the case – Bhaskaran sets the stage!
A two-member bench of the Supreme Court in K. Bhaskaran vs. Sankaran Vaidhyan Balan (1999) 7 SCC 510 laid down five important components for filing a compliant u/s. 138 of the Act:

(1) D rawing of the cheque,
(2) Presentation of the cheque to the bank,
(3) Returning the cheque unpaid by the drawee bank,
(4) Giving notice in writing to the drawer of the cheque demanding payment of the cheque amount, and
(5) Failure of the drawer to make payment within 15 days of the receipt of the notice.

The Apex Court finally concluded that since an offence could pertain to any of the above five acts there could be five offences which could be committed at five different locations and hence, the suit could be filed in any Court having jurisdiction over these locations. Thus, the complainant can select any of the five Courts for filing his complaint within whose jurisdiction the five acts were done.

To continue our example above, the creditor could file his case against the Ranchi Company before the Magistrate Court in Mumbai (or Ranchi) and save himself a lot of trouble and effort, not to mention money! Suppose further, that the creditor has operations in all major cities and also bank accounts in all these cities. He deposits the cheque in his Ahmedabad branch which bounces. He issues the Notice from his Hyderabad office. As per Bhaskaran’s decision, not only can he file the suit in Mumbai or Ranchi but even from Ahmedabad and Hyderabad. Thus, the payee has full freedom to decide where to sue the drawer from. At times, this can also be used as a tool for harassment and as a pressure tactic.

Subsequent Cases Queer the Pitch
There have been several subsequent decisions but two noteworthy cases stand out. In Harman Electronics P. Ltd. vs. National Panasonic India (2009) 1 SCC 720, another two-member Bench held that the correct Court would be the one where the Notice for the bounced cheque was received and not where the Notice was sent. It also observed that section138 is being rampantly misused for territorial jurisdiction.

A subsequent three-member Bench in Shri Ishar Alloy Steels vs. Jayaswals Neco Ltd. (2001) 3 SCC 609 clarified that to be able to file a case u/s. 138 the cheque must be presented within six months on the bank of the drawer and not to the bank of the payer. The place where the complainant presented the cheque would not be relevant. Thus, the decisions of Harman and Ishar Alloy suggest that the Court of the accused should be the place where the suit should be filed. To continue our example above, the creditor could file his case against the Ranchi Company before the Jharkhand Courts.

Interestingly in Nishant Aggarwal vs. Kailash Kumar Sharma (2013) 10 SCC 72 the Supreme Court held that the ratio laid down by these two decisions in the case of Harman and Ishar Alloy did not dilute the principle stated in Bhaskaran’s case. This view was followed by the Supreme

Court in FIL Industries Ltd. vs. Imtiyaz Ahmad Bhat (2014) 2 SCC 266 and in Escorts Ltd. vs. Rama Mukherjee (2014) 2 SCC 255 all of which followed Bhaskaran.

Dashrath Rathod’s case – Cat amongst the Pigeons?
A recent decision of the three-member Supreme Court decision in the case of Dashrath Rupsingh Rathod vs. State of Maharashtra, Cr. A. No. 2287 /2009 Order dated 1st August, 2014 has led to debtors across the Country celebrating and creditors panicking. The decision of the Apex Court was as follows:

(a) T he offence contemplated u/s. 138 stands committed on the dishonour of the cheque, and accordingly the Magistrate at the place where this occurs is ordinarily where the Complaint must be filed, entertained and tried. The place, situs or venue of judicial inquiry and trial of the offence must logically be restricted to where the drawee bank, is located. The law should not be warped for commercial exigencies.

(b) T he place of the issuance or delivery of the statutory notice or where the Complainant chooses to present the cheque for encashment by his bank are not relevant for purposes of territorial jurisdiction of the complaints.

(c)    It is also now manifest that traders and businessmen have become reckless and incautious in extending credit where they would heretofore have been ex- tremely hesitant, solely because of the availability of redress by way of criminal proceedings.

(d)    Every magistrate is inundated with prosecutions u/s. 138 NI act, so much so that the burden is becoming unbearable and detrimental to the disposal of other equally pressing litigation.

(e)    Courts are not required to twist the law to give relief to incautious or impetuous persons and hence, the territorial jurisdiction is restricted to the Court within whose local jurisdiction the offence was committed, which in the present context is where the cheque is dishonoured by the bank on which it is drawn.

(f)    Bhaskaran’s case permitting prosecution at any one of the five places has resulted in hardship and inconvenience to the accused. Thus, it overruled Bhaskaran’s case and all subsequent decisions which followed it. Consequently, it endorsed the views expressed in the cases of harman and Ishar alloy.

(g)    Courts must avoid an interpretation which can be used as an instrument of oppression by the complainant.

The Supreme Court also observed as follows in respect to the problem this order would create for Creditors:

(a)    It is always open to the creditor to insist that the cheques in question be made payable at a place of the creditor’s convenience.

(b)    the relief introduced by section 138 of the act is in ad- dition to the contemplations in the Indian Penal Code. It is still open to such a payee recipient of a dishon- oured cheque to lodge a First Information report (FLR) with the Police or file a Complaint directly before the concerned magistrate. If the payee succeeds in establishing that the inducement for accepting a cheque which subsequently bounced had occurred where he resides or ordinarily transacts business, he will not have to suffer the travails of journeying to the place where the cheque has been dishonoured.

Coming back to our example, the case must now deffnitely be filed before the Courts in Ranchi. Thus, it is the creditor who now would have to travel to ranchi every time  there  is  a  hearing  and  appoint  local  lawyers. this substantially pushes up the cost of litigation.

Decision Retrospective or Prospective?

Is  this  decision  retrospective  or  prospective?  the  Supreme Court in Dashrath’s case held that this decision applied retrospectively and not just to complaints filed after the date of the Order!

The Court however held that this decision would not apply in those pending cases where the accused has been summoned to give evidence u/s. 145(2) of the act. Section 145(2) requires that the complainant has given evidence under an Affidavit and he has been summoned and examined.

All other cases where evidence recording has not commenced would be bound by this order and shall be returned to the proper jurisdictional Court in accordance with the Order laid down by the Court. If they are refiled within 30 days of their return then they shall be deemed to have been filed in time else they would be treated as being filed late. This decision would cause a series of transfer of cases in Courts across India.

Section 145(2) – a gaTeway? Considering the gateway given u/s.145(2), a series of cases have come up before the Courts as to whether they are exempt from the decision of Dashrath’s case. Some of the important principles laid down by the Bombay high Court in this respect are as follows:

(a)    Peter David Pinto vs. Dinesh Ranawat, Cr. WP No. 4421 /2013 dated 9th September 2014 – Mere filing of an affidavit cannot take the case out of the princi- ples laid down by the Supreme Court. Section 145(2) would apply only when the complainant has been ex- amined/cross-examined.

(b)    Suresh K. K. vs. Mansingaram, Cr. WP No. 923/2013 dated 9th September, 2014 and Sanjay Ramchandra Shrikande, Cr. WP No. 3619/2013 dated 19th Septem- ber, 2014 – even in a case which has travelled beyond section 145(2), the gateway provided by Dashrath’s case would not be available where the challenge of territorial jurisdiction has been given before the Supreme Court Order. Thus, the Supreme Court’s gateway is only applicable to cases where an objection to jurisdiction has been raised on the basis of the judgment. the Bombay high Court held that the Supreme Court order was retrospective in nature. Thus, Courts are loath to allow the gateway very easily.

Back to square one?
Can the decision in Dashrath’s case be distinguished in those cases where the cheque has been issued at par? thus, can it be said that for all cheques which are pay- able at par, the place where the cheques are deposited would  have  jurisdiction?  this  was  the  issue  before  the Bombay high Court in the case of Ramanbhai Mathurbhai Patel vs. State of Maharashtra, Cr. WP No. 2362/2014 dated 25th August, 2014. the Bombay high Court was faced with a case where “at par cheques” drawn on an ahmedabad      Branch      were      dishonoured.      They were    deposited    at    a    branch    in    mumbai.       The Court  held   that   by   issuing   cheques   payable   at all  branches,  the  drawer  of  the   cheques   had   given an option to the banker of payee to get the cheques cleared from the nearest available branch of bank of the drawer. It, therefore, held that the cheques were dishonoured within the territorial jurisdiction of the Court were they  bounced.  the  Bombay  high  Court  took  this  view based on its interpretation of Dashrath’s case.

It may be noted that the delhi high Court in similar facts in GVPR Engineers Ltd. vs. A. K. Tiwari, Cr. MC 3689/2009 dated 31st January, 2011 has held that the mere fact that a cheque is payable does not confer territorial jurisdiction on the place where the cheque is dishonoured. this decision was not considered by the Bombay high Court.

Stay
The Supreme Court vide its order dated 16th September, 2014 in SLP (Crl.) No. 7251/2014 has granted an interim stay to the Bombay High Court’s Order in Raman-bhai Mathurbhai Patel vs. State of Maharashtra. A final decision of the Supreme Court on this issue of cheques payable at par is expected soon.

Conclusion
One hopes that a judicial see-saw of this type where the complainants are in the dark over where to file suits is resolved soon. A reading of Dashrath’s decision shows that the question of cheques “payable at par” was not an issue before the apex Court. Since a majority of cheques are payable at par, based on this Bombay high Court decision, the suit could be filed at the place where they were deposited. the view endorsed by the Bombay high Court merits consideration considering centralised processing and clearing systems/electronic fund transfers. In today’s day and age the cheque does not physically travel to the drawer’s branch. In fact, even within a bank after centralised processing, it is the centralised unit which clears all cheques without physically receiving a cheque. One would have to wait and watch how the Supreme Court deals with these interesting arguments while finally deciding the issue!

Family Settlement – Registration – Document not compulsorily registrable –Registration Act, section 17:

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Vikaram Singh & Anr. vs. Ajit Indersingh; AIR 2014 Del 173

The learned Single Judge held that Memorandum of Family Settlement not being a registered document was inadmissible in evidence and also held that family arrangements are governed by special equities and principles applicable to dealings between strangers do not apply to dealings within the family.

On appeal, the division Bench held that the tenth recital records that a family settlement was being reduced into writing because it had already been acted upon by the parties. Thus, it is clear that the Deed of Family Settlement is a Memorandum i.e., a written record of what the parties had orally agreed upon at an earlier point of time and had acted thereupon. The second thing which emerges is that parties have acknowledged antecedent title. Thus, the court agreed with the view taken by the learned Single Judge in view of the law declared in the decisions. AIR 1958 SC 706 Nanibai & Ors. vs. Geeta Bai Kom Rama Gunge, AIR 1976 SC 807 Kale & Ors. vs. Deputy Director of Consolidation & Ors., and AIR 2007 SC 18 Hansa Industries vs. Kidar Sons Industries Ltd. The Deed of Family Settlement does not require any registration u/s. 17 and is a document admissible in evidence.

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Coparcenary property – Right of daughters – Section 6 as amended by Amendment Act (2005) is available to all daughters living on date of coming into force of 2005 Amendment Act : Hindu Succession Act, 1956:

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Badrinarayan Shankar Bhandari & Ors vs. Omprakash Shankar Bhandari AIR 2014 Bombay 151 (FB).

The Full Bench of the Bombay High Court held that the provisions of amended section 6 are retroactive in operation, and daughters living on 9th September, 2005 get rights in coparcenary property with effect from 9th September, 2005.

The Amendment Act applies to daughters born any time provided the daughters born prior to 9th September, 2005 are alive on the date of the coming into force of the Amendment Act i.e., on 9th September,2005. There is no dispute between the parties that the Amendment Act applies to daughters born on or after 9th September, 2005.

A bare perusal of sub-section (1) of section 6 would, thus, clearly show that the legislative intent in enacting clause (a) is prospective i.e. daughter born on or after 9th September, 2005 will become a coparcenary by birth, but the legislative intent in enacting clauses (b) and (c) is retroactive, because rights in the coparcenary property are conferred by clause (b) on the daughter who was already born before the amendment, and who is alive on the date of Amendment coming into force. Hence, if a daughter of a coparcener had died before 9th September, 2005, since she would not have acquired any rights in the coparcenary property, her heirs would have no right in the coparcenary property. Since section 6(1) expressly confers right on daughter only on and with effect from the date of coming into force of the Amendment Act, it is not possible to take that view of the heirs of a deceased daughter would get such a right.

On examination of amendment section 6 of the principal act and bearing in mind the words ‘on and from commencement of the Hindu Succession Act, 2005 found in section 6’, it must follow that the rights under the amended section 6 can be exercised by a daughter of a coparcener only after the commencement of the Amendment Act, 2005. Therefore, it is imperative that the daughter who seeks to exercise such a right must herself be alive at the time when the Amendment Act, 2005 was brought into force. It would not matter whether the daughter concerned is born before 1956 or after 1956. This is for the simple reason that the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, when it came into force applied to all Hindus in the country irrespective of their date of birth. The date of birth was not a criterion for application of the Principal Act. The only requirement is that when the Act is being sought to be applied, the person concerned must be a existence/ living. The Parliament has specifically used the word “on and from the commencement of Hindu Succession(Amendment) Act, 2005″ so as to ensure that rights which are already settled are not disturbed by virtue of a person claiming as heir to a daughter who had passed away before the Amendment Act came into force.

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Citizenship by Registration – Eligibility Criteria not fulfilled:Citizenship Act, 1955 section 5(1)(a):

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Shah Mohammed Anwar Ali & Ors vs. The State of Assam & Ors. AIR 2014 Gauhati 156

The appellant Nos. 1 and 2 filed a writ petition, praying for a direction to the respondents to consider their applications filed u/s. 5(1)(a) of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and to pass appropriate orders thereon, in accordance with law, contending inter alia that both the petitioners were born in Gauhati and the petitioner no. 1’s father was also initially a citizen of India born in undivided India. It has further been contended that after partition, the father of the petitioner no. 1 permanently settled in Shylet district of the then East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and due to his old age ailments, the petitioners along with their first child Shah Mohammad Aminul Islam, who is the appellant no. 3 went to Bangladesh in the month of September, 1991 and stayed in Bangladesh up to the month of March, 1992, during which period the second child, namely, Jakia (appellant no. 4) was born in Bangladesh on 30-12-1991. The further contention of the writ petitioners was that they again went to Bangladesh in the month of November, 1996 to attend to the ailing father of the appellant no. 1 with the intention to return to India as early as possible, but unfortunately as the father of the petitioner no. 1 fell seriously ill, for which they had to stay back in Bangladesh.Thereafter though they wanted to return to India, they could not do so and under compelling circumstances they had to obtain the passports from the Government of Bangladesh and entered India on 10-05-1997 as Bangladeshi nationals. It has also been pleaded that after the expiry of the initial period of visa, they filed an application for extension from time to time and accordingly the visa was extended and though their application for further extension of visa dated 21-03-1998 was under active consideration of the Government, they were arrested along with their minor children on the ground that they overstayed in India beyond the period for which visa was granted.

The court observed that sub-section (2) of section 9 of 1955 Act, empowers the Central Govt. to determine the question as to whether, when or how any citizen of India has acquired the citizenship of another country, if such question arises for consideration. It is, therefore, the Central Government and no other authority, who can determine such question. The writ court would also, ordinarily, not enter into such determination unless of course the determination made by the Central Government is put to challenge by the aggrieved party.

In the instant case, the applicants never at any point of time, prior to filing of the writ petition, claimed that they had under compulsion and not voluntarily acquired the citizenship of Bangladesh. On the other hand, they had filed the application u/s. 5(1)(a) of 1955 Act seeking registration of their names as Indian citizen, upon accepting that they had voluntarily acquired the citizenship of Bangladesh.

Since the question as to whether, when or how the applicants acquired citizenship of Bangladesh, did not arise at all, there was no question of determination of such question by the Central Government, before passing an order of deportation.

The appellants having approached the writ Court for a direction to the respondent authorities to consider their applications filed u/s. 5(1)(a) of the 1955 Act, they must demonstrate that they have fulfilled the requirement of the said provisions of law for getting their names registered, which they had failed to do. The writ Court rightly refused to issue directions, which if issued, would be a futile writ, when the appellants on their own admission have accepted that they have not fulfilled the requirement of section 5(1)(a) of the said Act.

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Bombay Stamp Act, 1958 – Delay in filing application before Chief Controlling Revenue Authority – Specific exclusion of Limitation Act – Executive cannot condone delay taking recourse of limitation Act: Limitation Act section 5, 29:

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Jayminbhai Navinbhai Doshi & Ors vs. State of Gujarat & Ors AIR 2014 Gujarat 220

The petitioners challenged the orders passed by the authority u/s. 53 of the Bombay Stamp Act, 1958, by which, the said authority, viz., the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority refused to condone the delay in filing the proceedings on the ground that those were not filed within 90 days from the date of order passed by the competent authority because of lack of power with such authority to condone the delay.

The Bombay Stamp Act is a self contained code dealing with all relevant matters exhaustively therein and its provisions show an intention to depart from the common rule, qui facit per lalium facit per se. In the Bombay Stamp Act, 1958, there is no provision incorporated by which the provision of the Limitation Act is extended to the proceedings under the said statute. The provision of the Limitation Act applies only to courts and courts alone, and it does not even apply to any Tribunal or any other authority unless by virtue of the statute creating such Tribunal or the Authority, the provisions of the Limitation Act have been specifically made applicable.

Thus, in the instant case, the authority u/s. 53 of the Act not being a Court could not take the assistance of the provisions contained in section 29(2) of the Limitation Act. Section 54 of the Bombay Stamp Act however, unlike section 53, specifically gives power to the Chief controlling Revenue Authority to condone delay in preferring an application beyond the period of limitation fixed therein, namely, 60 days, but that power of condonation by the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority is also limited to only to a further period not exceeding 30 days.

Thus, if the Chief Controlling Authority has no power of condonation, it necessarily follows that the High Court in exercise of power under Article 226 of the Constitution against the order of the Chief Controlling Revenue Authority cannot condone the delay.

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Ind-AS Carve Outs – Straightlining of leases

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The issue of straight-lining of leases is very important for many enterprises; particularly entities that obtain assets on long-term operating leases; for example, retail entities, multiplexes, telecom towers, etc. Thus, if a telecom tower was leased for nine years on a non-cancellable basis, paying rent of Rs.1,00,000 in the first year, with a 10% escalation each year, the charge in the P&L each year would be Rs.1,50,883 and not the contractual amount to be paid which is the rent for previous year plus 10% escalation. In determining the lease period for straight-lining the possibility of lease extension is also considered, and hence the impact could be much higher than one would normally anticipate.

In a recent discussion organised by an industry association on IFRS adoption, the author was surprised, when the presenter opined that operating leases should not be straight-lined under IFRS and hence a carve-out was required. The reason provided for the carve-out was that IFRS should be pain free. Interestingly, straight-lining is required under Indian GAAP (and is also clarified by an Expert Advisory Committee opinion). Thus, it was absolutely fine to give pain under the Indian GAAP but not under IFRS!

Financial statements should reflect a true and fair view, based on robust accounting standards. Whether the accounting gives pain or is pain free is not relevant. However, what is an appropriate technical approach can sometimes be very debatable. Straight-lining of leases is one such instance where there are strong arguments in favour of and against straight-lining of leases, which one should consider. Let us discuss what those arguments are.

Arguments for and against straight-lining of leases
The primary reason for straight-lining of leases is contained in paragraph 23 of AS-19 which states that “Lease payments under an operating lease should be recognised as an expense in the statement of profit and loss on a straight-line basis over the lease term unless another systematic basis is more representative of the time pattern of the user’s benefit.” In other words, in the above example of telecom towers, the benefit received from the telecom tower over the nine years is absolutely uniform and hence the charge in each of the nine years should be equal. The lessee is expected to derive the same benefit, in physical terms, from the leased asset over the lease term and, accordingly, the scheduled rent increases in the lease rental do not meet the criterion for recognising expense/ income on a basis other than straight-line basis over the lease term.

One view is that the increases in rent in the agreement may only be considered as an adjustment for inflation and hence leases should not be straight-lined. The counter argument is that inflation factor in the agreement may not be representative of the inflation index in the country. Thus, it may so happen that a 10% escalation is built in the rent agreement each year in anticipation of inflation, was not supported by the inflation index, which was expected to be 5%. In reality, it may so happen that in subsequent years rents may fall down drastically, instead of going up. In other words, the cost of operating would be cheaper in future years and hence the assumption that escalations represent future inflation may not be tenable. In India, it may be fair to state that one of the reasons for lease rentals to increase is the inflation factor. Now if the scale up on the rentals in the agreement was based on an inflation index rather than a fixed amount, the scale up would be treated as contingent rentals under AS-19 and accounted for as and when the contingent rentals become due (not on straight-line). However, if the rent increases does not represent an inflation index then straight-lining would be required. This appears to be a fair argument for straightlining leases.

It is understandable that in India people focus on contractual terms and therefore recognising any expense or income that does not represent those contractual terms makes them very uncomfortable. An interesting point would be to look at the standard on depreciation, which permits the straight-line, written down value method and other methods such as unit of production method. A lessee would depreciate an asset obtained on finance lease and capitalised by it using any of the above methods. In other words, the P&L charge would not be based on the contractual terms/payments. Thus, focusing on contractual terms/payments in the case of operating lease would also not be appropriate and would unnecessarily result in structuring possibilities.

Some argue that straight-lining results in recognising future costs. The standard ignores the fact that as time passes, costs go up (or may go down) and so does revenue. The cost of operating in 2007 would always be different from the cost of operating in 2008. The same can be said for the revenue rates; they may go up or down. To try and straight-line the cost (in the case of lessee’s) selectively for leases is a violation of sound accounting principles.

Paragraph 24 of AS-19 states that, “for operating leases, lease payments (excluding costs for services such as insurance and maintenance) are recognised as an expense in the statement of profit and loss on a straight-line basis unless another systematic basis is more representative of the time pattern of the user’s benefit, even if the payments are not on that basis.” This means that if services are provided by lessor to the lessee, for example, maintenance services with a 10% increase each year, those are not required to be straight-lined. Also when a purchaser makes an upfront commitment to purchase goods each year from a seller with a 10% increase over the previous year’s rate, one does not straight-line the cost of purchase over those years. Therefore the point is if straight-lining is not required as a principle in the framework or by other standards, then is it appropriate to apply it selectively in the case of leases?

A point to be noted is that the straight-lining under the standard is an anti-abuse measure arising out of rent-free periods. Thus, if a building is taken on operating lease for three years, with zero rent in the first two years and rent of Rs. 3 lakh for the third year, the standard would require Rs. 1 lakh to be charged each year. This is fair, because in substance there is no such thing as rent-free period. Therefore, some argue that to require straight-lining when there is no indication of deliberate ballooning is unfairly stretching the argument for straight-lining.

The straight-lining of lease rentals would result in a deferred equalisation which may be a liability or an asset. For example, if the operating lease is for two years with rental in year one, of Rs. 100 and rental in year two of Rs. 110; equalisation would result in a deferred liability of Rs. 5 in the first year (which will reverse in the following year). Now the problem with deferred equalisation is that it does not fulfill the definition of an asset or liability under “The Framework For The Preparation And Presentation Of Financial Statements” issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India. Under the framework, asset and liability is defined as follows:

(a) An asset is a resource controlled by the enterprise as a result of past events from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the enterprise.

(b) A liability is a present obligation of the enterprise arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the enterprise of resources embodying economic benefits.

It begs the question therefore that if deferred equalisation is not an asset or liability as defined under the Framework, then what is it doing in the balance sheet?

Overall, there appears to be good arguments for and against straight-lining of leases. Ultimately, one has to take a decision.

Overall Conclusion
The adoption of Ind-AS will bring India at par with the world (more than 120 countries) at large that has adopted IFRS. To achieve full benefit, it is imperative that Ind-AS’s are notified without any major difference from IASb IFRS. If India were to implement IFRS with too many differences,  it  would  be  akin to moving from one Indian gAAP to another Indian gAAP. This would entail 100% efforts with zero benefits. Moving from Indian GAAP to IASB IFRS would entail 100% efforts but will provide 100% benefits. By adopting IASB IFRS it would become possible  for  Indian companies to state that they are compliant with IASB IFRS, and hence those financial statements can be used globally.

It is well appreciated that accounting is an art, and not   a precise science. Primarily, financial statements should reflect and capture the underlying substance of transactions. The accounting standards are drafted to ensure that underlying transactions are properly accounted for and also aggregated and reflected transparently in the financial statements. But as already pointed out, this is not a precise science, and people may have different views as is evident from the above debate on leases. Sometimes there are no right or wrong answers, and a decision needs to be taken and people need to move ahead.

IASB IFRS is not necessarily the best cut in all cases, and there may be a few instances where the standards could have been better, from another person’s perspective. Nonetheless, the author believes that the standard setters and regulators will have to consider the benefit of these carve outs with the benefits lost as a result of departing from IASB IFRS. ultimately, it is not about one-upmanship but aligning with the world. In my view, full adoption of IASb IFRS is a goal worth pursuing. At the same time the standards setters and regulators should engage with the IASB in resolving the Indian specific issues amicably. As an alternative approach, the author suggests that companies should be allowed an option to adopt IASb IFRS, instead of Ind-AS, if they wish to.

In the long-run, the Indian standard setters and regulators should work closely with the IASB so that any differences that arise are resolved more promptly. A mutually respectable relationship can be built with the IASB, where the IASB and the world can gain from India’s participation in the standard setting process and simultaneously India can also benefit from the process in improving its financial reporting framework.

IASB certainly has a global objective of having one set  of uniform IFRS standards across the world. Therefore, if IFRS are adopted in India without any carve-outs it would be a positive development for IASB. But adopting full IFRS or providing an option to do so, would be a far bigger positive development for India.

Role of an auditor in assessing fraud risks

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Introduction
Worldwide, companies are striving to survive in adverse economic and competitive market conditions. This survival struggle often results in some of them engaging in unethical business practices such as fraud, espionage and corruption. To help organisations mitigate these risks, regulatory bodies, both international and national, have reformed and implemented several stringent laws and regulations. These include Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) in the US, UK Bribery Act in UK and the new Companies Act, 2013 in India.

The Companies Act 2013 – A new era of corporate governance
According to the 13th Global Fraud Survey, 2013 by EY, 34% of India respondents said that they resorted to unethical actions in a business situation, which is the second highest amongst the surveyed nations. The Companies Act, 2013 is set to be a game changer for corporate India, paving the way for an enhanced control environment, greater transparency and higher standards of governance. Section 447, under the Act for the first time provides a definition of fraud and also makes extensive provisions for penalising fraudulent activities.

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has specifically outlined the Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement to adopt leading global practices on corporate governance and to make the corporate governance framework more effective. The enforcement of these norms demands organisations to provide assurance to the board, audit committee on adequacy of internal controls, effective risk management process, anti-fraud controls and effective legal compliance framework. With these changes in place, the role of an auditor has undergone a significant transformation.

Reporting on internal financial controls

Management is still dependent on auditors to provide them assurance on anti-fraud controls which are in place across businesses, together with the ability to detect and deter a potential fraud. Auditors are expected to evaluate accounting systems for weakness, reviewing and monitoring internal controls, determining the degree of fraud risks and interpreting financial data for picking up unusual trends and following up on red flags.

The Companies Act, 2013 has made it mandatory for the auditors to comment on whether the company has adequate internal financial controls system in place and operating effectiveness for such controls. Here, the term, ‘internal financial controls,’ means the policies and procedures adopted by the company for ensuring orderly and efficient conduct of its business, including the prevention and detection of frauds or errors, the accuracy and completeness of the accounting records, and the timely preparation of reliable financial information.

Evaluating fraud risks
An auditor should have the ability to understand how a fraud is committed and how it can be identified. He/ she should also understand the underlying factors that motivate individuals to commit fraud. As per the Companies Act, 2013, the term ‘fraud’ includes any act, omission, concealment of any fact or abuse of the position committed by any person, with intent to deceive, to gain undue advantage from, or to injure the interests of, the company or its shareholders or its creditors or any other person, whether or not there is any wrongful gain or wrongful loss.
• Under the Act, liability and punishment for fraud is extended to every individual who has been a party to it intentionally, including the auditors of the organisations.
• Auditors need to be involved in monitoring the whistleblowing mechanism, which is made mandatory for directors and all employees to report genuine cases of frauds.

Therefore, an auditor is expected to be in a position to identify potentially fraudulent situations during the course of the audit and play a vital role in preventing fraud and other unethical acts. It is essential they remain unbiased and must conduct the audit with a clear mind-set to catch possible material misstatements resulting from a fraud. This should be regardless of their relationship with the organisation or their belief about the management’s honesty or integrity. Objectively, the auditor is always in a better position to detect symptoms that accompany fraud, and usually has continual presence in the organisation. This provides them with a better understanding of the organisation and its internal financial controls.

With the new legislations, the auditor will now need to take responsibility over the adequacy of fraud prevention measures in various business processes. He/she is required to exercise professional scepticism, which requires an ongoing questioning of whether the information and evidence obtained suggests that a material misstatement or fraud has occurred. Sometimes, he/ she may even have to undertake extended audit procedures in areas where potential red flags were noticed. Another key consideration is the inclusion of fraud detection procedure as part of every audit and keeping an eye open for red flags.

Proactive auditing to look for fraud risks
In this new era of auditing, ushered in by the Companies Act 2013, Auditors will have to proactively look for fraud vulnerabilities and fraud risks, by extending the audit procedure to:

Examine and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of internal financial controls

• Unusual transactions
• Adjustments in the period-end financial reporting process
• Related party transactions

Make use of data analytics to find unfamiliar items and perform detailed analyses of high risk transactions
Identify relevant fraud risks: Understand the business environment. Review the documentation of previous and suspected frauds, monitoring the reporting through whistle-blowing mechanisms and formulating the ethics programme
Outline existing controls to potential fraud schemes and carry out a gap assessment.

In the standard audit reports that accompany corporate financial statements, the auditor’s responsibility for detecting fraud is not discussed. Indeed, the word fraud isn’t mentioned at all. The auditing profession calls the discrepancy between what investors expect and what auditors do an “expectations gap.”

In recent years, audit firms have attempted to close the gap by educating the public on their role. Even though fraud is not one of the main objectives of auditors, it has been observed in past few years they have been instrumental in detecting or raising a warning sign to the management. It has been an increasing trend that the auditors have come across a fraud or a potential fraud and highlighted the same to the management or investigating agencies. It is with their help that investigators are able to crack the toughest cases by using various forensic tools and techniques such as data analytics, disk imaging, extensive public domain searches etc. Understanding fraud risk and developing the necessary skills for fraud detection is now a necessity for auditors; as stakeholders expect them to be red flag bearers of good corporate governance within the company.

The road ahead
Going forward, the role of the auditor is expected to become much more onerous as the board, management and Independent Directors seek increased comfort on newer areas to comply with the complex regulatory environment and legal duties and responsibilities. Their role is set to evolve into a more extensive, outward, forward looking and continuous activity to help deliver a more sustainable, efficient and effective audit function.

Please note: Views expressed in this article are personal to the author.

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